Tumors and Infections Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 5 most common primary sites of cancer that metastasize to bone?

A

Breast
Lung
Kidney
Thyroid
Prostate

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2
Q

Most Common Malignancy of Bone

A

Metastases

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3
Q

Most common Primary Malignancy of Bone

A

Myeloma

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4
Q

Most Common Primary Sarcoma of Bone

A

Osteosarcoma

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5
Q

Benign tumor that involves the cortex and expands into the medullary cavity. Lytic with well-defined and lobulated margins.

A

Nonossyfying Fibroma

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6
Q

Where are Nonossyfying Fibromas most commonly found?

A

Femur
Tibia

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7
Q

Benign tumor that is sclerotic and presents with a small < 1cm Lucent nidus
- best seen on CT

A

Osteoid Osteoma

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8
Q

Signs and Symptoms of Osteoid Osteoma

A

Night Pain
- responsive to NSAIDs

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9
Q

Where are Osteoid Osteomas most commonly found?

A

Long Bones
Posterior Spine

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10
Q

Treatment for Osteoid Osteoma

A

Self-limited
Non-surgical

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11
Q

Benign and progressive tumor that may be lytic, sclerotic, or mixed.

Radiolucent nidus > 2cm

Big Brother to Osteoid Osteoma

A

Osteoblastoma

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12
Q

Osteoblastoma Signs and Symptoms

A

Dull ache
- not relieved by NSAIDs

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13
Q

Osteoblastoma Treatment

A

Surgery

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14
Q

Bone arising from stalk (pedunculated) or “bump” on bone that is benign. Occurs on the metaphysis of long bones usually in childhood and young adults.

A

Osteochondroma

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15
Q

Benign lytic bone expansion. Can occur on any bone and has a ground glass appearance on X-Ray.

A

Fibrous Dysplasia

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16
Q

Radiolucent, well-defined, confined to the cortex with a sclerotic border. Benign.

A

Fibrous Cortical Defect

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17
Q

Where are Fibrous Cortical Defects most commonly found?

A

Distal Femur
Tibia

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18
Q

Benign lytic lesion that may erode beyond the cortex. Can metastasize to the lungs, even though it is benign.

A

Giant Cell Tumor

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19
Q

Where are Giant Cell Tumors most commonly found?

A

Distal Femur
Proximal Tibia
Distal Radius
Proximal Humerus
Pelvis
Sacrum

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20
Q

A benign vascular tumor of bone.

Honey-comb appearance
Jail Bar Appearance

A

Hemangioma

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21
Q

Most common primary bone malignancy. Usually has localized bone pain (ribs or spine) or pathologic fractures.

X-Rays show “Punched Out” Lesions

A

Multiple Myeloma

22
Q

Who does Multiple Myeloma most Commonly Effect?

A

Males > 40
African Americans

23
Q

What are 2 significant findings of Multiple Myeloma?

A

Bence Jones Proteins
- proteinuria

Hypercalcemia
- due to bone destruction

24
Q

Malignancy that causes callous formations.

A

Osteosarcoma

25
Q

What is the most common site of Metastasis of Osteosarcoma?

26
Q

How is osteosarcoma treated?

A

Multi-Agent Chemotherapy
+
Limb Salvage Resection

27
Q

What pathogen is the primary cause of Osteomyelitis?

A

Staph. aureus
- 60% of cases

28
Q

What are common causes that allow for Osteomyelitis?

A

Open Fracture
Surgery
Open Wound
Hematogenous Spread

29
Q

Signs of an Epidural Abscess with Vertebral Osteomyelitis

A

Fever
Severe Back or Neck Pain
Radicular Symptoms
Incontinence

30
Q

What are the most common locations of Osteomyelitis?

A

Long Bones
Vertebrae

31
Q

If a patient is an IV drug abuser, what are the most likely sites of Osteomyelitis?

A
  1. SPINE

But also:
2. Sternoclavicular Joint
3. Sacroiliac Joint

32
Q

Signs and Symptoms of Hematogenous Osteomyelitis

A

Sudden Onset of Fever
Chills
Pain
Tenderness

33
Q

Causes of Contiguous Osteomyelitis

A

Prosthetic Joint
Orthopedic Surgery

34
Q

Causes of Vascular Insufficiency Osteomyelitis

A

Diabetes
- foot and ankle are most common

35
Q

What are 2 clues of Osteomyelitis in Ulcers?

A

Easily able to advance probe to the Bone
Ulcer area > 2cm

36
Q

If testing for Osteomyelitis, why should you get the cultures from the bone or blood and not from the overlying wounds or ulcers?

A

Wounds or ulcers are unreliable due to contamination with skin flora.

37
Q

Osteomyelitis Treatment

A

IV ABX (4 - 6 weeks)
- MRSA → Vancomycin
- MSSA → Cefazolin. Oxacillin. Nafcillin.

38
Q

When does Osteomyelitis require Surgery?

A
  1. Epidural Abscess
  2. Extensive Disease
  3. Recurrent or Persistent Infection
39
Q

Acute onset of inflammatory monoarticular arthritis, most often in large weight-bearing joints and wrists.

A

Septic Arthritis
(Non-gonococcal acute bacterial arthritis)

40
Q

What is the most common pathogen to cause of Septic Arthritis?

A

Staph. aureus

41
Q

What are the most common causes of Septic Arthritis in IV Drug Abusers?

A

E. coli
Pseudomonas

42
Q

Joints are usually in what position with Septic Arthritis due to effusion?

A

Flexion
Abduction

43
Q

What are the hallmarks of Septic Arthritis?

A

Joint Tenderness
Effusion
Erythema
Marked Limitation of Passive Motion

44
Q

What tests should be performed on a patient with Septic Arthritis?

A

Labs
Ultrasound
Joint Fluid Aspiration
Cultures

Gonococcal → Throat, Cervical, and Urethral Cultures

45
Q

What might a AP/Lateral X-Ray show in a patient with Septic Arthritis?

A

Usually Normal
- maybe soft tissue swelling with widened joint space

46
Q

What would an Ultrasound show in a patient with Septic Arthritis?

A

Joint Effusion

47
Q

Why should you perform an MRI with Septic Arthritis?

A

Rule Out Osteomyelitis

48
Q

Septic Arthritis Treatment

A

Vancomycin + Ceftriaxone until cultures return

Emergent Surgical Decompression and Lavage
- Cornerstone of Treatment

49
Q

Arthritis that is common is MSM → higher incidence of asymptomatic gonococcal pharyngitis and proctitis predisposes them to disseminated infection.

Women 2-3x > men
- especially during menses and pregnancy

Typically occurs in healthy persons.

A

Gonococcal Arthritis

50
Q

Signs and Symptoms of Gonococcal Arthritis

A

1 - 4 days of migratory polyarthralgias

  1. Tenosynovitis (60%)
  2. Purulent Monoarthritis (40%)

Most have asymptomatic skin lesions

51
Q

Best Test for Gonococcal Arthritis

A

Urinary NAAT

52
Q

Gonococcal Arthritis Treatment

A

Ceftriaxone (1g IV or IM)
- change to oral agent with 7 day course
- Responds DRAMATICALLY to ABX