Tumors Flashcards

1
Q

Appearance of hemangioblastoma in the spine? What is the secreted factor and associated secondary disease?

A

Intramedullary cyst with enhancing mural nodule. Sometimes secretes erythropoietin causing secondary polycythemia Vera. Can lead to strokes

They are rich in blood vessels and clear cells (from lipid content)

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2
Q

Which immunohistochemical markers is most accurate in diagnosing a central neurocytoma?

A

Strong staining for the neuronal marker synaptophysin, as well as for neuron-specific enolase, is characteristic of central neurocytoma. Glial tumors are usually vimentin and GFAP positive. Meningiomas, on the other hand, are usually positive for vimentin and EMA, but negative for GFAP. S100 stains for neural crest cell derived tumors, including schwannomas, melanocytes, chondrocytes, etc.

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3
Q

In children, the most common intramedullary spinal cord neoplasm is?

A

Astrocytomas are the most common intramedullary tumor in the pediatric population accounting for 60% of these tumors. This is followed by ependymomas at 30% and developmental tumors at approximately 4%

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4
Q

Which primary tumors has the greatest propensity to metastasize to the brain?

A

Melanoma is the 6th most common cancer in the U.S. among adults and has the highest propensity to metastasize to the brain. Up to 75% of patients who die from melanoma have brain metastases and in 50% of cases the cause of death is brain metastases.

Lung, breast and colon cancer are common brain metastases encountered in practice due to the high incidence of these cancer types.

Prostate cancer often metastasizes to bone so skull and spine mets are much more common compared to brain metastases.

The prognosis associated with melanoma including patients with brain metastases has improved due to treatment options with BRAF inhibitors and immunotherapy. 50-60% of patients demonstrate response of intracranial brain mets to treatment with immunotherapy

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5
Q

What are the criteria for NF1 diagnosis?

A

involves mutations/deletion of the neurofibromin gene on 17q

autosomal dominant, though almost 50% of cases arise sporadically

diagnostic criteria for NF1 are met if a person has two or more of the following:

1) Six or more cafe-au-lait macules that have a maximum diameter of greater than 5 mm in prepubertal patients and greater than 15 mm in post pubertal patients
2) Two or more neurofibromas of any type, or one plexiform neurofibroma
3) Freckling in the axillary or inguinal region
4) Optic glioma
5) Two or more Lisch nodules
6) A characteristic osseous lesion, such as sphenoid wing dysplasia or thinning of long bone cortex
7) A first-degree relative with NF1 by the above criteria

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6
Q

Extraneural metastases from a medulloblastoma most commonly occur in which anatomic locations?

A

Medulloblastoma is the most common brain tumor in children and 7-10% of patients will develop extraneural metastases. Extraneural metastases can involve bone (85% of cases), bone marrow (27%), lymph nodes (15%), lung (6%) and liver (6%).

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7
Q

Which radiosurgical doses is most likely to provide tumor control and hearing maintenance in a patient with a 1-cm vestibular schwannoma?

A

At a dose of 12-13 Gy, the facial nerve function is reportedly very well preserved.

Studies evaluating higher doses have found 8% facial dysfunction at a mean marginal dose of 13.4 Gy (Rowe et.al.), 16% at 14 Gy (Matthieu et.al.), 33% at 17 Gy (Rowe et.al.) and 50% at 15-16 Gy (Mallory et al. only evaluating 78% of all patients).

Doses lower than 12-13 Gy have been associated with less effective tumor control.

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8
Q

A 25-year-old man is evaluated because of a one-month history of headache and unsteady gait. An MR image and a CT scan are shown. This patient’s abnormality is most likely in which of the following vascular distributions?

A

A choroid plexus papilloma is seen in the left lateral ventricle. The choroid of the lateral ventricles is supplied by the posterior choroidal artery arising from the posterior cerebral artery.

The medial posterior choroidal artery supplies the choroid plexus of the third ventricle. The lateral posterior choroidal artery supplies the choroid plexus of the lateral ventricles.

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9
Q

Which study is best to differentiate tumor from abscess?

A

MR spectroscopy

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10
Q

Contents, locations, and types of dermoid cysts

A

most common congenital lesion of the scalp and calvarium

result from failure of disjunction of the neuroectoderm

contain epithelium, hair follicles, sebaceous glands, and other cutaneous elements.

Nasal and midline sub-occipital (inion) cysts are more likely to be associated with a small overlying pit or tract and have a higher risk of intracranial and intradural extension (generally between the leaves of the falx cerebri or falx cerebelli, respectively).

Extracranial cysts present as palpable or enlarging lumps or with local infection. Cysts with intracranial extension may also present due to recurring meningitis or, rarely, with intracranial mass effect. The treatment in all cases is surgical excision.

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11
Q

Most common location for and appearance on MRI of DNET?

A

Dysembryoplastic neuroepithelial tumor (DNET):
WHO grade I lesion that has glioneuronal elements

associated with cortical dysplasias.

most common in the temporal lobe (50-80%) followed by the frontal lobe.

DNETs can account for 20% of medically refractory epilepsy.

usually well circumscribed on imaging with a “bubbly” appearance

hyperintense on T2 with patchy enhancement on T1 post contrast imaging.

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12
Q

A 47-year-old woman has a focal motor seizure seven months after undergoing stereotactic radiosurgery for metastatic breast cancer lesions. Today, an MR image of her head shows loss of enhancement within the confines of the treated right frontal lobe lesion. Findings include a ring of contrast enhancement in the right frontal lobe surrounding the treated tumor, and hyperintensity in the right frontal lobe on T2-weighted MR image and FLAIR, which are consistent with edema. A PET scan with FDG demonstrates hypometabolism within the right frontal lobe lesion. The lesion is most likely which of the following?

A

Radiation induced neoplasm.

The criteria for a radiation-induced tumor include: 1) a latency interval between delivery of the radiation and tumor development, 2) the tumor must arise in the irradiated region, 3) the neoplasm must be histologically distinct from the original irradiated tumor, and 4) an absence of a genetic predisposition for neoplastic transformation.

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13
Q

Most common type of brain tumor? Most common primary? Sex predisposition?

A

Metastasis are most common.

most common primary is glioma (males), second is meningioma (females)

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14
Q

Causes of brain tumors:

A

Radiation: Associated with meningiomas, fibrosarcomas, and gliomas.

Immunosuppression: Associated with lymphomas.

Viruses: EBV is associated with Burkitt lymphoma and nasopharyngeal carcinoma, and the human papillomavirus is associated with cervical carcinoma.

Chemotherapy: nitrosoureas.

Genetics: As seen in phakomatoses and Turcot syndrome (APC gene mutation on chromosome 5q with familial polyposis, colorectal cancer, and primary brain tumors).

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15
Q

Immunohistochemical stains and their associated tumors:

A

AFP: embryonal carcinoma, endodermal sinus tumor.

CEA: carcinoembryonic antigen.

Chromogranin: pituitary adenoma.

Common leukocyte antigen: lymphoma, germinoma.

Cytokeratin: carcinoma, craniopharyngioma, chordoma.

Desmin: rhabdosarcoma, teratoma.

Epithelial membrane antigen (EMA): carcinoma, meningioma, epithelial cysts.

GFAP: astrocytomas, other glial tumors.

Human melanoma black (HMB): melanoma.

Beta human chorionic gonadotrophin (HCG): choriocarcinoma and the syncytiotrophoblastic variant of germinomas.

Immunoglobulins kappa and lambda chains: lymphomas.

Neurofilament and synaptophysin: ganglioglioma, PNET.

Pituitary hormones: pituitary adenoma.

Prostate specific antigen: prostate carcinoma.

S100: schwannoma, neurofibroma, glioma, PNET, chordoma, melanoma, renal cell carcinoma.

Synaptophysin: tumors with neurons (ganglioglioma, central neurocytoma, etc.).

Transthyretin: choroid plexus tumors.

Vimentin: meningioma.

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16
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes: Stiff man syndrome:

A

Involuntary muscle spasms and rigidity; 60% have antibodies to glutamic acid decarboxylase.

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17
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes: Anti-Yo antibodies

A

These cause cerebellar degeneration and are associated with ovarian and breast cancer.

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18
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes: Anti-Ri antibodies

A

These cause opsoclonus and are associated with breast cancer.

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19
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes: Anti-Hu antibodies

A

These cause sensory neuropathy, encephalitis, and cerebellar degeneration. They are associated with oat cell pulmonary carcinoma or lymphoma.

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20
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes: Lambert–Eaton syndrome

A

Antibodies to the presynaptic voltage-gated Ca2+ channels; associated with oat cell (small cell) lung carcinoma.

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21
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes: Limbic encephalitis

A

subacute encephalitis. Gross examination appears normal.

perivascular mononuclear infiltrates, no viral inclusions.

medial temporal lobes, cingulate gyrus, and insula are predominantly affected

usually bilateral hyperintense lesions on T2-weighted MRI

most common in men in their mid-60s and manifests as memory impairment and altered mental status.

may be associated with testicular or lung cancer and anti-Ma protein antibodies. Limbic encephalitis should be differentiated from herpes encephalitis.

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22
Q

Standard radiation doses for metastasis?

A

30 Gy over 2 weeks

23
Q

Radiation Necrosis histopathology and appearance on MRI

A

White matter coagulation necrosis or demyelination associated with arterioles with hyalin intimal thickening, fibrinoid necrosis, and thrombosis

T2-weighted MRI demonstrates increased signal intensity and pathologic examination demonstrates necrosis of the gray and white matter

24
Q

What are the three types of astrocytic cells:

A

Fibrillary: More numerous, mainly in the white matter, stains with phosphotungstic acid hematoxylin (PTAH), silver, and GFAP.

Protoplasmic: Present mainly in the gray matter and has a larger nucleus, but less cytoplasm. Tumors have some stellate cells and mostly in gray matter. Prognosis same to tumors with mostly fibrillary cells

Gemistocytic: Swollen active astrocyte with increased fibers and cytoplasm and appears often with injury, stroke, toxin, infection, or tumor. Tumors defined as >20% gemistocytic cells. Have large cells with eccentric eosinophillic cytoplasm, have worst prognosis.

25
Q

JPA: histopathology, survival, appearance on MRI

Is the outcome similar in adults?

A

second most common pediatric brain tumor

most frequently located in the cerebellum, brainstem, optic pathway, and infundibulum

biphasic pattern of loose cells and microcysts and also dense elongated hair-like astrocytes with Rosenthal fibers and eosinophilic granular bodies.

They tend to be noncystic in the medulla and optic pathway.

Leptomeningeal invasion, nuclear atypia, multinucleated cells, and vascular proliferation are frequently noted but are not adverse prognostic indicators. Approximately 10% contain calcium

Survival rate is 86–100% at 5 years, 83% at 10 years, and 70% at 20 years

In adults, it is not well circumscribed and has a worse outcome

26
Q

Circumscribed astrocytic tumors: These are low grade, have good prognosis, and frequently cystic: 3 of them

A

JPA

SEGA

Pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma

27
Q

Pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma: Age, associated symptoms, appearance on MRI, histopathology

A

peak age is 7–25 years.

Seizures are frequent

temporal lobe predominance

usually superficial and involve the cortex and leptomeninges but not the dura

tend to be cystic with a mural nodule

bizarre pleomorphic astrocytes with xanthomatous fat cells, spindle cells, and multinucleated cells

frequent mitoses, calcifications, a rich reticulin network, and no necrosis.

occasional reported transformations to GBM.

28
Q

Subependymal giant cell astrocytoma:

A

peak age is < 20 years

Symptoms are hydrocephalus and seizures

located near the foramen of Monroe

enhance, frequent calcifications, may be cystic and lobulated, and well demarcated

Pathologic examination reveals large multinucleated cells and rare mitoses.

seen in 15% of patients with tuberous sclerosis, and if found in a patient without tuberous sclerosis, it is considered a forme fruste

29
Q

Which of the following tumors is the most common cause of spinal cord compression in children?

A

Ewing’s sarcoma and neuroblastoma are the most common causes of pediatric epidural spinal cord compression followed by other tumor histologies such s osteogenic sarcoma, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, Wlm’s tumor, and rhabdomyosarcoma.

30
Q

What are the three different types of rosettes and in which tumors are they found?

A

Pseudorosette: has a central vessel. Found in ependymoma

Flexner-wintersteiner: has a central canal. Found in pineoblastoma, retinoblastoma, and ependymoma

Homer weight: no central vessel or canal. Found in medulloblastoma, PNET, and (when very large) pineocytoma

31
Q

Tuberous sclerosis: inheritance, chromosome, and symptoms?

A

AD chromosome 9 (TSC1, hamartin) and 16 (TSC2, tuberin)

SEGA, cardiac rhabdomyoma, pancreatic adenoma, renal angiolipoma, facial angiofibroma (adenoma sebacum), subungual fibroma (koenen tumor), ash leaf spots, cysts (liver, lung, and spleen)

32
Q

common location and symptom associated with DNET and gangioglioma? How can the two be distinguised?

A

can both be in temporal lobe and cause seizures

differentiate with path: DNET has large neurons floating in mucin, chicken wire vascular pattern, with small oligodendrocytic cells (image)

ganglioglioma has perivascular lymphocytes, large multinucleated ganglion cells, may have calficiations, frequently cystic and positive for both GFAP and neurofilament

33
Q

Gliosarcoma: age/incidence, location, gross pathology, histopathology, survival, appearance on MRI

A

Represents 2% of GBMs

peak age is 40–60 years

commonly involves the temporal lobe superficially with dural invasion

firm, circumscribed, lobulated, and contain fascicles of spindle cell sarcoma with interspersed GBM cells

Silver stains the reticulin in the sarcoma component and GFAP stains the GBM component

frequent intracranial and extracranial metastases (15–30%)

It is postulated that the sarcoma arises from the vascular structures in the GBM or from leptomeningeal fibroblasts

survival rate is similar to GBM

34
Q

Brain stem glioma: incidence/survival, location, MRI appearance, symptoms, treatment

A

20% of intracranial tumors in children, usually in pons

H3 K27M mutation.

5-year survival rate is 30%

Symptoms begin with cranial nerve palsies and hydrocephalus develops late

Treatment is with radiation

biopsy is usually not necessary because the diffuse pontine lesion (hypointense on T1-weighted MRI and nonenhancing) is very characteristic

The prognosis is better with cystic lesions, dorsal exophytic lesions, and lesions involving the midbrain, medulla, or cervicomedullary junction. These lesions may be amenable to surgical resection

35
Q

oligodendroglioma: incidence/survival, location, MRI appearance, symptoms, treatment

A

10% of gliomas, peak age incidence is 35–40 years, and there is no sex predominance

can be pure or mixed with astrocytic components (i.e., oligoastrocytoma). grade II is pure or mixed and grade III is anaplastic.

grow from the white matter and infiltrate the cortex

CT: hypodense lesion, frequently cystic. higher frequency of hemorrhage

round nuclei with scant cytoplasm, a chicken-wire vascular pattern with thin vessels, occasional serpentine configuration, and an Indian-file lineup of cells in the white matter with satellitosis of neurons in the gray matter. The fried egg yolk-appearing cells and nucleus are caused by an artifact from cytoplasmic retraction seen in permanent, but not in frozen sections. Eighty percent have calcifications.

positive for GFAP and S100

Systemic metastases are rare and usually occur after surgery.

treatment: Procarbazine, carmustine, and vincristine (PCV) or temozolomide

1p-19q associated with a better response to chemotherapy and improved progression-free and overall survival in patients with anaplastic oligodendrogliomas.

36
Q

Ependymoma: incidence/survival, location, MRI appearance, symptoms, treatment

A

Peak age is 10–15, with a large peak at 1–5 years and smaller peak at 35

no sex predominance.

usually infratentorial. account for 60% of intramedullary spinal cord tumors, occurring mostly at the filum

usually pencil-shaped in the spinal cord, often with syrinx, and good margin for resection

may be multiple spinal cord tumors with NF2

CT and MRI demonstrate a lobulated, circumscribed, cystic, moderately enhancing lesion with calcifications (50%) and only rarely hemorrhage.

Pathologic examination demonstrates various patterns:

Cellular: A sheetlike growth of polygonal cells with true rosettes (around a central canal), pseudorosettes (around a blood vessel), and blepharoplasts (ciliary basal bodies in the apical cytoplasm)

Papillary: With typical papillary projections.

Myxopapillary: With intracellular mucin. Occurs at the filum and presacral/postsacral area if there is local spread

Clear cell: With oligodendrocyte-like halos. RELA fusion-positive

positive for GFAP and histochemistry for PTAH

frequently seed the CSF

presacral and postsacral soft-tissue tumors may metastasize to the lung.

Ependymoblastoma (grade IV) occurs in childhood, is in the PNET group, and is malignant.

37
Q

Mixed neuronal and glial tumors (usually with a good prognosis):

A

Ganglioglioma: contains both neoplastic neurons and glial cells. usually in the temporal lobe and presents with seizures. well circumscribed, cystic, firm, and often has a calcified nodule. It may enhance. Pathologic examination demonstrates perivascular inflammatory cells, reticulin, glia, and binucleate neurons with rare mitoses. Immunohistochemistry is positive for neurofilament, synaptophysin, neurosecretory granules, and GFAP

Gangliocytoma: Neoplastic neurons without neoplastic glia. They may be simply dysplastic brain.

Desmoplastic infantile ganglioglioma: Rare and usually occurs before 18 months. It is massive, frontal, cystic lesions adherent to the dura with a desmoplastic reaction. The tumor enhances. It is differentiated from meningioma because it is GFAP positive and EMA negative

Dysembryoplastic neuroepithelial tumor (DNET): Occurs usually in people with 1–19 years of age, presents with seizures, and is located in the temporal lobe. It is circumscribed, cystic, multinodular, superficial, and cortical. It contains normal neurons with abnormal oligodendrocytes and astrocytes (a ganglioglioma has abnormal neurons, is in the white matter, and lacks nodularity). It is associated with cortical dysplasia. Surgical resection is usually curative and radiation is not needed

Central neurocytoma: It occurs in young adults, usually originates at the septum pellucidum, and occurs in the lateral and third ventricles near the foramen of Monro. It is circumscribed, lobulated, enhancing, noninfiltrative, and usually contains calcifications. Pathologic examination demonstrates monotonous hypercellularity similar to oligodendrogliomas with rare mitoses, frequent cysts, and occasionally hemorrhages. Immunohistochemistry is positive for synaptophysin

38
Q

Frequenet mutation in medulloblastoma?

A

isochromosome 17q

may be associated with Gorlin (basal cell nevus) syndrome that is due to a mutation of the PTCH gene on chromosome 9q

39
Q

Frequent mutations and histopath of ATRT?

A

densely cellular blue cell tumors mixed with rhabdoid cells

Rhabdoid cells have eosinophilic rounded, rhabdoid cytoplasmic inclusions.

associated with deletions of chromosome 22 containing the INI1/hSNF5 gene

40
Q

Radiation dose for meningioma?

A

13 Gy

41
Q

Radiation dose for AVM and brain metastases?

A

20 Gy

42
Q

Calcified psammoma bodies and whorls are characteristic of which tumor?

A

Meningioma

43
Q

Large stag horn blood vessels are characteristic of which tumor?

A

Hemangiopericytomas

positive for reticulin and vimentin, negative for EMA

44
Q

Histopathology of chordoma:

A

characterized by physaliphorous round cells and a mucinous background

45
Q

Familial tumor syndrome: Gorlin- inheritance, chromosome, tumors?

A

AD-9

Medulloblastoma, meningioma, basal cell nevus syndrome

46
Q

Familial tumor syndrome: Turcot- inheritance, chromosome, tumors?

A

AD-5

Medulloblastoma, glioblastoma, colon polyposis or adenocarcinoma

47
Q

appearance of eosinophilic granuloma on histopathology?

A

Bilobed nuclei of eosinophils (black arrow-head), foamy macrophages (white arrow), and large grooved nuclei (black arrow) are seen in eosinophilic granuloma (Langerhans cell histiocytosis)

48
Q

What are the histopathologic features of schwannoma?

A

compact areas called Antoni A (A) and loose areas called Antoni B (blasted apart; B)

Verocay bodies (V) have nuclear palisading around anuclear areas

Some nuclei are arranged like a school of fish (S).

They can occur in NF2

49
Q

which cells form the primary CNS melanomas?

A

leptomeningeal melanocytes of the ventral medulla and cervical spinal cord

These cells make melanin by tyrosinase

50
Q

Definition: Hamartoma

A

comprises disorganized cells in the proper location for that cell type

51
Q

Defintion: Choristoma

A

comprises correctly organized cells in the wrong location

52
Q

Meningiomas with severe peritumoral edema express high levels of which two factors?

A

vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and matrix metalloproteinases (MMPs)

53
Q

classic feature in seen in histology for yolk sac tumors?

A

schiller duval bodies

54
Q

appearance of radiation necrosis on ADC? of tumor recurrence?

A

bright

dark