spine/peripheral nerve Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following nerves passes through the quadrangular space below the teres minor

A

The quadrangular space is lateral to the scapula and is defined by laterally by the humerus, medial by the triceps, rostrally by the teres minor and caudally by the teres major. The axillary nerve along with the circumflex artery exit caudal to the teres minor and rostral to the teres major, providing innervation to the deltoid. The suprascapular nerve originates from the upper trunk and passes across the posterior triangle of the neck providing innervation to the supraspinatus and infraspinatus. The thoracodorsal nerve originates from the posterior cord and provides innervation to the latissimus dorsi. The radial nerve innervates most of the upper extremity extensors and exits below the quadrangular space between the long and lateral heads of the triceps. The long thoracic nerve originates from roots C5, C6, and C7 traversing the chest to provide innervation of the serratus anterior muscle. Injury to the long thoracic nerve results in scapular winging.

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2
Q

For patients with post ACDF horners syndrome, what was injured and how?

A

The sympathetic plexus or trunk is located running on the longus colli muscle. In anterior cervical surgery, the sympathetic plexus is at risk of injury due to unintentional thermal injury from using monopolar electrocautery directly on the longus colli muscle, or from prolonged retraction inducing stretching of the fibers.

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3
Q

Thoracic pedicle morphology studies consistently show that the narrowest pedicle is most likely to be found at which of the following locations?

A

T5 as the transverse diameter of the thoracic pedicle decreases from T1 to its narrowest diameter between T4-6. From T7 -T12 the diameter of the thoracic pedicles progressively enlarge.

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4
Q

Each somatic muscle fiber is innervated by?

A

Each somatic muscle fiber is innervated by an alpha motor neuron which has a cell body in either the spinal cord or brain stem. A motor neuron and muscle fibers it innervates is called a motor unit. The number of fibers innervated by one motor neuron can vary. A smaller innervation number leads to finer motor control. Gamma motor neurons adjust the sensitivity of muscle spindle fibers

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5
Q

A 52-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after being involved in a motor vehicle collision. He has an L2 sensory level; muscle strength is 4/5 in the proximal lower extremities and 4-/5 in the distal lower extremities. X-ray films show a severe L2 fracture. Which of the following is the most likely ASIA Impairment Scale score (modified Frankel score) in this patient?

A

The patient here has sustained an ASIA D injury, where motor function is preserved below the neurological level, and more than half of the key muscles below the neurological level have a muscle strength of at least grade 3. An ASIA A injury is complete, an ASIA B injury is incomplete where sensory function is spared without motor function except for preservation of the sacral segments. An ASIA C injury has motor function preserved below the neurological level, and more than half of the key muscles below the neurological level have a muscle strength less than grade 3. ASIA E is normal strength.

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6
Q

A 50-year-old man is evaluated because of a two-week history of low back pain and sciatica on the right side. Straight-leg raising test is positive at 30 degrees and extensor hallucis longus strength on the right side is 4/5. Which of the following disc herniations is most likely?

A

L5 radiculopathy.

Far lateral and foraminal disc herniations are most likely to affect the exiting nerve root at that level while central and paracentral herniations most likely affect the traversing nerve root.

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7
Q

Vertebra plana (pancake VB) is classically associated with which spinal lesions?

A

eosinophilic granuloma otherwise known as Langerhan cell histiocytosis (LCH) or histiocytosis X, a proliferation of Langerhan cells and abundance of eosinophils, lymphocytes, and neutrophils. These cells produce prostaglandins which result in medullary bone resorption.

Hand-Schuller-Christian disease describes when the disease is chronic and disseminated in bone and viscera.

Letterer-Siwe describes a fatal form that occurs in young children.

Other causes of vertebrae plana can be identified from the mnemonic I MELT (infection, metastasis/myeloma, eosinophilic granuloma, lymphoma/leukemia, trauma/tuberculosis)

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8
Q

Most common level at which the vertebral artery enters the vertebral foramen on the cervical spine?

A

C6

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9
Q

Innervation of the median nerve:

A

The median nerve:
orginates from both the lateral and medial cords of the brachial plexus (C5-T1)

provides sensory innervation to the anterolateral surface of the hand and provides motor innervation to the following muscles – pronator teres, flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longus, and flexor digitorum superficialis, flexor pollicis longus and flexor digitorum profundus, pronator quadratus, opponens pollicis brevis, and flexor pollicis brevis, 1st and 2nd lumbricals.

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10
Q

Innervation of obturator nerve:

A

originates from L2, L3, and L4, providing sensory innervation to the medial thigh and motor innervation to the adductor longus, adductor brevis, adductor magnus, external obturator, and variably to the pectineus

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11
Q

How is pelvic incidence calculated?

A

Pelvic incidence is a fixed spinopelvic parameter.

It is calculated as the angle between the perpendicular line drawn from the center of the S1 endplate and the line that joins the center of the femoral heads to the center of the S1 endplate.

It is also defined by the formula: PI = PT + SS, (PI=pelvic incidence, PT=pelvic tilt, SS=sacral slope). Sacral slope and pelvic tilt can vary with retroversion of the pelvis, and lumbar lordosis changes with flexion and extension maneuvers.
Fractional scoliosis is a coronal plane parameter that is variable in the absence of spinal fusion.

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12
Q

A patient is diagnosed with left vestibular schwannoma and bilateral hypoglossal canal meningiomas. This patient most likely has which of the following genetic conditions?

A

neurofibromatosis type 2 (NF2) is diagnosed when one of the following criteria are met.

  1.  Bilateral vestibular schwannoma (VS), diagnosed before age 70
  2.  First-degree relative family history of NF2 and unilateral VS, diagnosed before age 70
  3.  First-degree relative family history of NF2 or unilateral VS or 2 of: meningioma, cataract, schwannoma, cerebral calcification (if unilateral VS and > 2 nonintradermal schwannomas, needs negative LZTR1 genetic testing)
  4.  Multiple meningiomas (2 or more) and 2 of: unilateral VS, cataract, ependymoma, schwannoma, cerebral calcification
  5.  Constitutional or mosaic pathogenic NF2 gene mutation in blood or identical mutations in 2 distinct tumors.
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13
Q

Which muscles is innervated by the anterior interosseous nerve?

A

anterior interosseous nerve is a distal branch of the median nerve that originates at the level of the anterior forearm

It originates from the nerve roots C8 and T1

It intervates the flexor pollicis longus, flexor digitorum profundus, and the pronator quadratus.

Compression at the level of the forearm or parsonage turner syndrome are the most common pathologies producing varying degrees of weakness but without sensory deficit.

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14
Q

Duchennes muscular dystophy: inheritance, lab abnormalities, and symptoms?

A

x linked recessive

caused by decreased dystophin

Increased creatinine kinase, muscle fiber necrosis

atrophy of shoulder and pelvic gridle muscles, calf pseudohypertrophy, CHF, + gowers test Tx: prednisone

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15
Q

myotonic muscular dystophy: inheritance, lab abnormalities, and symptoms?

A

AD 19

CTG trinucleotide repeat

ring fibers, EMG: dive bomber frequency

face then extremity, MR, dysrythmias, cataracts, endocrinopathies

Tx: quinine, procainamide, and dilantin

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16
Q

Beckers muscular dystophy: inheritance, lab abnormalities, and symptoms?

A

x linked

decreased dystrophin

less severe than duchennes

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17
Q

Muscles of the tympanic cavity and their innervation:

A

Tensor tympani: CN5

stapedius: CN7

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18
Q

Muscles of mastication:

A

temporalis, masseter, medial pterygoid, lateral pterygoid (only one that opens the mouth)

innervation: CN5

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19
Q

Muscles of the tongue and innervation:

A

CN 12: genioglossus, hyoglossus, styloglossus

CN 10: palatoglossus

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20
Q

Muscles of the palate and innervation:

A

CN 5: tensor veli palatini

CN 10: levator veli palatini, palatoglossus, and palatopharyngeus

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21
Q

Muscles of the pharynx and innervation:

A

CN 9: stylopharyngeus

CN 10: salpingopharyngeus, superior, middle, and inferior pharyngeal constrictors

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22
Q

Muscles of the larynx and innervation:

A

all CN 10

cricothyroid from external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve but all others by recurrent laryngeal nerve

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23
Q

Brachial plexus subdivisions and level, innervation (branches) at each level:

A

Roots C5-T1:

  • C5-8: longus colli and scalene muscles
  • C5: dorsal scapular nerve -> rhomboids and levator scapula
  • C5-7: long thoracic nerve –> serratus anterior

Trunks:

  • upper: suprascapular nerve -> supra and infraspinatus
  • middle: no branches (runs under the anterior scalene)
  • lower: no branches (behind the subclavian artery)

cords:

  • lateral: lateral pectoral nerve -> pectoral muscles
  • posterior: upper/lower subscapular nerves -> teres major, subscapularis ; thoracodorsal nerve -> latissimus dorsi ; terminates as the axillary and radial nerves
  • medial: medial pectoral nerve -> pectoral muscles; medial brachial cutaneous nerve -> arm; medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve -> forearm; terminates as median cutaneous and ulnar nerves

Nerves:

  • musculocutaneous: coracobrachialis, biceps, and brachialis
  • axillary: deltoid and teres minor
  • radial: triceps, brachioradialis, extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis; continues as the posterior interosseous nerve (C7-8) -> supinator, externsor carpi ulnaris, extensor digitorum, extensor digiti minimi, abductor pollicus longus, extensor pollicus longus and brevis, and extensor indicis
  • median:
  • ulnar:
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24
Q

Which type of muscle has a longer depolarization and plateau phase?

A

cardiac muscle due to fast voltage-gated sodium channels, slow voltage-gated calcium channels, and potassium channels that do not open until the end of the plateau

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25
Q

what is the conduction velocity in small, unmyelinated fibers?

A

0.5m/s

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26
Q

What are the 5 types of sensory fibers and how are they organized/what do they transmit?

A

Ia (type A-alpha [Aα])—annulospiral endings of muscle spindles; largest (i.e., 17-μm diameter) and fastest (120 m/s).

Ib (Aα)—Golgi’s tendon organs; 16 μm in diameter.

II (type A-beta [Aβ] and A-gamma [Aγ])—flower-spray endings of muscle spindles and cutaneous tactile receptors; 8 μm in diameter.

III (type A-delta [Aδ])—temperature, crude touch, and pricking pain; 3 μm in diameter.

IV (type C)—unmyelinated fibers relaying pain, itch, temperature, and crude touch sensations; 0.5 to 2 μm in diameter.

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27
Q

What are the 3 types of motor nerve fibers?

A

Skeletal muscle—α-type A (myelinated; fastest fibers).

Muscle spindle—γ-type A (myelinated).

Sympathetic—type C (unmyelinated; slowest fibers).

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28
Q

What are the two types of anterior motor neurons?

A

α motor neurons—larger. They innervate skeletal muscle by sending α-type A fibers to large skeletal muscle fibers within the motor unit.

Gamma motor neurons—smaller. They are 50% less numerous and relay γ-type A fibers to the intrafusal fibers of the muscle spindle.

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29
Q

Describe muscle spindle organization, type of endings with attached fibers, and types of intrafusal fibers:

A

spindles lie parallel to fibers, composed of 3-12 intrafusal fibers attached to larger extrafusal fibers

detects length and velocity of change in length of the muscle

two sensory endings of the spindle: primary (type Ia fiber with 70-120m/s impulse relay) and secondary (type II flower spray, slower conduction)

Two types of intrafusal fibers:
-nuclear bag fibers: 1-3/spindle and innervated by primary endings

-nuclear chain: 3-9/spindle; smaller and innervated by primary and secondary endings

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30
Q

Primary motor cortex: cells?

A

brodmanns area 4. Bets cells are large pyramidal neurons found only in the primary motor cortex; they relay impulses at 70 m/s

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31
Q

Efferent fibers from the motor cortex to:

A

collateral fibers to the cortex (for lateral inhibition), caudate and putamen, red nucleus (rubrospinal fibers), reticular formation (reticulospinal, cerebellar fibers), vestibular system (vestibulospinal, cerebellar fibers), and inferior olive (olivocerebellar fibers)

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32
Q

Afferent fibers to the motor cortex from:

A

input from somatosensory systems (e.g., muscle spindles), visual cortex, auditory cortex, frontal cortex, contralateral motor cortex (via the corpus callosum), ventrobasal thalamus, ventrolateral (VL) and ventroanterior (VA) thalamus (with input from the cerebellum and basal ganglia), and intralaminar nuclei of the thalamus (which regulate the level of excitability)

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33
Q

descending motor pathway:

A

contains 1 million fibers (30% from area 4, 30% from premotor and supplementary motor cortices [area 6], and 40% from sensory fibers). 40% of the fibers are from the parietal lobe. Cells (Betz cells) arise from layer 5.

travels in the posterior limb of the internal capsule and down through the brainstem, forming the medullary pyramid

most fibers then cross and descend in the lateral corticospinal tract, terminate on interneurons (in cord gray matter, mostly Lamina VII), sensory relay neurons (in the dorsal horn), and anterior motor neurons

Some fibers, however, remain ipsilateral; these descend in the ventral corticospinal tract, ultimately crossing at lower levels within the spinal cord. These fibers are used for bilateral postural control, relaying impulses from the supplementary motor area

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34
Q

What is the appearance of SNAPs in nerve root avulsion? what does it look like if the lesion is distal to the DRG?

A

If lesion is proximal, there is still a normal SNAP but no sensation since the axon is attached to the cell body

if lesion is distal to cell body, the SNAP is abnormal

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35
Q

What does the nervi erigentes innervate?

A

parasympathetic supply to the pelvis and perineum

also called the pelvic splanchnic nerve; S2, 3, 4

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36
Q

cause and symptoms of meralgia paresthetica?

A

entrapment or injury of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve causing pain and numbness in the anterolateral thigh

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37
Q

Wartenbergs sign is associated with which nerve injury?

A

Ulnar nerve

inability to adduct the little finger due to weakness of interossei secondary to ulnar n palsy. The little finger is abducted due to the unopposed action of extensor digiti minimi.

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38
Q

what is the membrana tectoria?

A

cranial extension of the PLL and connects C2 to clivus

The transverse ligament of atlas is anterior to it.

(There is another tectorial membrane in the inner ear and is involved with hearing)

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39
Q

which tract carries pain and temp from contralateral body?

A

lateral (neo) spinothalamic tract transmits pain and temperature from the contralateral body and is somatotopically organized with the legs laterally. The ventral (paleo) spinothalamic is involved in light touch.

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40
Q

Substance P is the main neurotransmitter in the:

A

substantia gelatinosa of Rolando (II) and is involved in pain sensation

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41
Q

All of the following tracts enter the cerebellum through the inferior cerebellar peduncle, except:

A

Ventral spinocerebellar (enters through the superior cerebral peduncle)

Dorsal spinocerebellar

Ventral external arcuate fibers

Dorsal external arcuate fibers

Olivocerebellar

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42
Q

which nerve injury causes wrist drop?

A

radial nerve

43
Q

Which nerve injury causes benediction hand?

A

median n.

44
Q

which nerve injury causes ulnar claw and froments sign?

A

ulnar n.

45
Q

Which nerve injury causes an inability to make the OK sign?

A

AIN

46
Q

Posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) palsy causes:

A

finger drop and radial deviation with wrist extension due to the intact extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis while the extensor carpi ulnaris is paralyzed

47
Q

What is the best way to assess nerve functionality through a neuroma in continuity?

A

nerve action potential. If there is a signal, then there is a chance of 70% return of function with resection of neuroma

if there is no signal, then should resect and graft nerve

48
Q

What is an oberlin transfer?

A

a technique in which the ulnar nerve is transferred to the biceps brachii muscle to restore elbow flexion.

used when there is isolated injury to the musculocutaneous nerve or with an upper plexus injury in which C5 to C7 nerve damage exists, such as a traumatic brachial plexus avulsion injury

49
Q

What is trigeminal deafferentation pain? How is that different from trigeminal neuropathic pain?

A

pain that develops following ablative treatment for trigeminal neuralgia

usually distinctly different from original trigeminal neuralgia pain

usually constant and burning, and occurs in the territory of reduced, but not anesthetic, sensation

Trigeminal neuropathic pain is a similar, except that it occurs in patients who do not have a history of trigeminal neuralgia

50
Q

Where should a spinal cord stimulator be placed to get relief of low back and lower extremity pain?

A

T9

51
Q

Where should a spinal cord stimulator be placed to get relief of lower extremity and foot pain?

A

T11

52
Q

The supinator muscle is innervated by:

A

the radial nerve

53
Q

flexor carpi radialis is innervated by:

A

median nerve

54
Q

Pain circuits within the substantia gelatinosa receive descending, inhibitory, serotonergic and adrenergic inputs from which brain structure?

A

locus ceruleus

cells enter DRG, ascend lissaurs tract, and synapse in lamina II. Second order neurons then ascend to the spinal thalamic tract but will receive inhibitory signals directly on lamina II from locus ceruleus

55
Q

Radiofrequency facet denervation is an interventional pain procedure used to treat:

A

low back pain

56
Q

AIN is a branch of which muscle? what does it innervate?

A

branch of the median nerve that originates in the proximal forearm and continues distally to innervate the flexor pollicis longus, flexor digitorum profundus 1, and pronator quadratus muscles

There is no sensory component

57
Q

What muscles does the median nerve innervate?

A

opponens pollicis, abductor pollicis brevis, pronator teres, and flexor digitorum superficialis, and first and second lumbrical muscles

58
Q

What is hyperpathia?

A

escalating pain response with a repetitive painful stimulus

59
Q

What is mechanical hyperalgesia?

A

increased sensitivity to pain that occurs on passive joint movements

60
Q

Which analgesics works by binding to spinal cord vanilloid (TRVP1) receptors, thus causing prolonged depolarization and defunctionalization of the pain pathways?

A

Capsaicin

61
Q

What is geniculate (nervus intermedius) neuralgia?

A

lancinating pain involving the deep aspect of the ear canal

62
Q

What is opioid-induced hyperalgesia?

A

occurs when patients on chronic opioid medication develop worsening of their pain that paradoxically becomes less responsive to continued or even increased opioid dosing

63
Q

Location of the nerve entrapment that presents as pain along the left medial knee and electrical shocks that shoot down the anteromedial left leg to the ankle?

A

saphenous nerve (sensory only) distribution

terminal branch of femoral nerve

site of entrapment is the adductor canal in the distal thigh

64
Q

How does thoracic outlet syndrome manifest?

A

arm pain and affects muscles in the hand in the ulnar and median distributions

65
Q

most common nerve injured during posterior cervical lymph node biopsy? symptoms?

A

spinal accessory nerve

present with shoulder pain and inability to adduct the shoulder more than 90*

66
Q

What is neuroplasty (external neurolysis)? when is it used?

A

circumferential dissection of a nerve from the surrounding tissues

used to decompress the entrapped nerve

67
Q

which nerve courses through the achilles tendon and medial malleolus?

A

Tibial nerve

branch of sciatic nerve at a distal thigh level

68
Q

How do the trigeminal nerve branches course through meckels cave?

A
69
Q

Internal neurolysis is best for:

A

good technique for decompressing hourglass constrictions in the nerve or separating scarred fascicles from non-scarred fascicles

70
Q

How does parsonage-turner syndrome present?

A

acute polyradicular pain without weakness, which resolves over days to weeks, only to develop into weakness affecting multiple nerve root distributions, most prominently the proximal arm and shoulder girdle

71
Q

What is the best way to ABORT a cluster headache?

A

subcutaneous sumatriptan

72
Q

What is the difference between type I and type II complex regional pain syndrome? What are the symtoms?

A

Allodynia, mechanical hyperalgesia, color changes, temperature and sudomotor abnormalities, and motor disorders can all occur. Complex regional pain syndrome type 1 occurs in the absence of a discernible nerve injury, whereas complex regional pain syndrome type 2 occurs in the presence of a discernible nerve injury

73
Q

What are the median nerve innervated hand muscles?

A
74
Q

What are the ulnar nerve innervations of the hand muscles?

A
75
Q

Where does the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve course?

A

in front of the ASIS, through the inguinal ligament, and just medial to the sartorius muscle

76
Q

where is the usual site of compression for PIN?

A

leading edge of the supinator as the PIN dives deep to the arcade of frohse

77
Q

Isolated weakness of dorsiflexion and ankle inversion is attributable to which nerve radiculopathy?

A

L5

78
Q

Isolated weakness of plantarflexion and ankle eversion is attributable to which nerve radiculopathy?

A

S1

79
Q

weakness of dorsiflexion and ankle eversion is attributable to which nerve radiculopathy?

A

peroneal nerve

80
Q

weakness of plantarflexion and ankle inversion is attributed to which nerve?

A

tibial mononeuropathy

81
Q

What is one of the best ways to ascertain that ulnar nerve compression is distal (at the wrist) and not proximal (at the elbow)?

A

Test ulnar sensation on the dorsal surface of the hand

82
Q

What is the course of the sciatic nerve and the divisions (tibial and peroneal)?

A

The sciatic nerve traverses the posterior thigh between the hamstring muscles. At a somewhat variable location in the distal thigh, the sciatic nerve splits into the tibial and peroneal nerves. The tibial nerve continues down the midline of the leg, whereas the peroneal nerve courses laterally across the back of the knee towards the fibular head

83
Q

For medically refractory postherpetic neuralgia of the trigeminal nerve, which therapeutic intervention is most likely to alleviate pain?

A

Caudalis dorsal root entry zone procedure

84
Q

Which of the major nerves arising from the brachial plexus has the worst prognosis for return of motor function following injury?

A

Ulnar. hand intrinsic muscles make the worst recovery

85
Q

what type of pain does The dorsal root entry zone (DREZ) procedure is used to treat?

A

upper extremity pain that results from nerve root avulsion injury

86
Q

What is Raeder’s paratrigeminal neuralgia?

A

paratrigeminal neuralgia is associated with ptosis and miosis and facial pain

87
Q

What is the nerve in tarsal tunnel syndrome? symptoms? ligament?

A

Tibial n

plantar foot pain, usually sparing the heel (which is innervated by the calcaneal branch)

lancinate ligament on medial surface of ankle, posterior to medial malleolus

88
Q

What does the suprascapular nerve innervate? symptoms?

A

supraspinatus muscle enables the first 60˚ or so of shoulder abduction, whereas the infraspinatus muscle enables external shoulder rotation

weakness in shoulder abduction and external rotation

89
Q

What is Ramsay-Hunt syndrome?

A

sudden onset of ear pain, facial paralysis, hearing loss and vertigo from zoster oticus neuritis?

90
Q

The upper trunk (C5, C6) of the brachial plexus divides into which nerves (SPA)?

A

suprascapular n (S) (supraspinatus and infraspinatus), posterior division (P) (axillary n, deltoid), and anterior division (A) (musculocutaneous n, biceps), hence the mnemonic SPA

91
Q

How many ossification centers does the odontoid have?

A

Two primary and one secondary

92
Q

After a type II odontoid fracture, the integrity of which of the following ligaments/membranes most strongly influences treatment options?

A

Tranverse ligament

Rupture of the transverse ligament (the most biomechanically important portion of the cruciate ligament) allows translation of C1 on C2, evidenced by an increase in the atlantodental interval (ADI). Incompetence of this ligament is a contraindication to odontoid screw fixation and is associated with delayed instability. Incompetence may be diagnosed based on either increase in the ADI (greater than 3 mm in adults, 5 mm in children < 15 years old, and 7 mm in Down’s syndrome considered abnormal) or magnetic resonance imaging findings

93
Q

What is the mechanism of action of entacapone?

A

Entacapone is a COMT inhibitor, which decrease the breakdown of dopamine from the synaptic cleft and is used in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease

94
Q

Which drug blocks the uptake of dopamine into synaptic vesicles?

A

Tetrabenazine

dopamine is unique in that it is completely synthesized in the cytosol of the neuron and requires uptake into synaptic vesicles.

95
Q

Isolation of Streptococcus milleri from a brain abscess should prompt inspection of which body part?

A

Oral cavity

96
Q

The sural nerve is formed by contributions from which nerves?

A

tibial and common peroneal nerves

97
Q

Innervation of the facet joints in the lumbar spine is provided by what nerve?

A

medial branch of the dorsal ramus

98
Q

A 42 year old male is undergoing L5-S1 anterior lumbar interbody fusion for spondylolisthesis. What anatomic structure overlying the disc space is potentially at risk during exposure for discectomy?:

A

The autonomic nerves (i.e. hypogastric plexus) traverse the prevertebral space at L5-S1 and may be susceptible to thermal injury (e.g. monopolar cautery) resulting in retrograde ejaculation in men.

99
Q

Vertebral artery injury during C1-2 transarticular screw placement is most likely to result when the screw is misplaced in which direction?

A

caudally

The vertebral foramen lies caudal to the pars of C2, and anatomic variations of the foramen can place the vertebral artery at risk during placement of a transarticular screw. Cranial misdirection of the screw could possibly affect the occiput-C1 joint, although this occurrence is extremely uncommon. Medial placement of a transarticular screw could result in dural laceration, with or without spinal cord injury. Placement of a transarticular screw too far anteriorly has been reported to cause hypoglossal nerve dysfunction in few case reports.

100
Q

How much rotation occurs at the C1-C2 level?

A

about 50%

101
Q

The sagittal vertical axis is the horizontal distance measured from a C7 vertical plumb line and which other structure?

A

Posterior Superior Corner of S1

102
Q

What is the modulus of elasticity? In which material is it highest?

A

measures the stiffness of a material by calculating the slope of the material’s stress-strain curve

highest in carbon fiber

103
Q

A 35-year-old man has had increased difficulty walking, leg numbness, and urinary hesitancy for two weeks. He had a similar episode three years ago that resolved spontaneously. Which of the following electrodiagnostic studies is the most appropriate next step?

A

Visual evoked cortical potential (VEP) latency combined with MRI could improve the accuracy of MS prediction.

104
Q

Pedicle subtraction osteotomy (PSO) produces what degree of correction in sagittal balance?

A

PSO creates a wedge in the vertebral body and achieves 30°–35° of sagittal balance correction. It is usually performed in the mid-lumbar spine (L3 or L2). Ponte osteotomy creates a wedge in the lamina and facets and achieves 10°–15° correction per level. Smith–Peterson osteotomy (SPO) in addition creates a distraction opening of the anterior longitudinal ligament, thus increasing the risk of vascular injuries.