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Pulm (Phase II) > Tulane (HIGH YIELD) > Flashcards

Tulane (HIGH YIELD) Flashcards

1
Q

Appearance of bronchitis on CXR?

A

Normal (usually)

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2
Q

Haemophilus influenza specific culture

A

Require Hematin (X-factor) and NAD (V-factor) for chocolate agar

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3
Q

Virulence factor for invasive Haemophilus influenzae

A

PRP capsule

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4
Q

Can legionella be transmitted person-to-person?

A

No

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5
Q

Gram stain of chlamydial pneumonia

A

“Negative,” but gram stains poorly (cell wall lacks peptidoglycan)

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6
Q

What pneumonia pathogen’s replicative cycle has 2 forms: Elementary Body and Reticulate Body?

A

Chlamydial pneumonia

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7
Q

What is the “6 second test” for lung disease?

A

If forced exhale takes > 6 sec, you have obstructive lung disease

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8
Q

Effect of obstructive disease on FEV1/FVC ratio

A

Decr.

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9
Q

Effect of restrictive disease on FEV1/FVC ratio

A

Incr. or normal

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10
Q

A1AT deficiency genotypes

A

“Pi” = “Protease inhibitor”
PiMM: normal
PiMZ: heterozygotes, ~35% normal levels, protective
PiZZ: diseased

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11
Q

What chromosome is the gene for A1AT on?

A

14q

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12
Q

Clubbing with obstructive disease differential:

A
  • Bronchiectasis
  • Cystic Fibrosis
  • Bronchiogenic carcinoma
    Less important:
  • Intrapulmonary vascular malform
  • Congenital heart disease (R to L shunt)
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13
Q

COPD pathogens (according to Tulane)

A

Haemophilus influenza, moraxella catarrhalis, strep pneumo

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14
Q

Th2 cytokine profile

A

IL-4, IL-5, IL-13 (Pathoma incl. IL-10)

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15
Q

Lung adenocarcinoma location

A

Peripheral

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16
Q

Important genes associated with lung adenocarcinoma

A

KRAS, EGFR

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17
Q

Carcinoid syndrome symptoms

A

Intermittent attacks of: Flushing, cyanosis (weakness?), diarrhea

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18
Q

Drugs that cause pulm fibrosis (according to Tulane)

A

Amiodarone, bleomycin, nitrofurantoin, azathioprine, gold

Low yield: methotrexate, busulfan and radiation

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19
Q

What specific lung pathology is “temporally homogenous”

A

DAD (ARDS, NRDS, AIP)

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20
Q

Interstitial (pulmonary) fibroblast foci are pathognomonic of what disease?

A

Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis (UIP)

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21
Q

Sarcoidosis “pathognomonic” CXR finding

A

Hilar lymphadenopathy

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22
Q

Histopathologic inclusion(s) found in sarcoidosis

A

Asteroid bodies, Schaumann bodies

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23
Q

Birbeck granules pathognomonic of what disease?

A

Pulmonary Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis (PLCH)

24
Q

Disease(s) associated with Lymphocytic Interstitial Pneumonia (LIP)?

A

Connective Tissue disorders e.g. Sjogren’s (highest yield), but also HIV, infection

25
Q

Treatment & Prognosis for Pulmonary eosinophilia

A

Responds well to corticosteroids

26
Q

Treatment for Pulmonary Alveolar Proteinosis (PAP)

A

GM-CSF therapy

27
Q

What is the “most protective” type of antibody to influenza

A

Anti-hemagluttinin (neutralizes the virus)

28
Q

How is bronchiectasis diagnosed?

A

High resolution CT (HRCT)

29
Q

Gene, inheritance pattern and chromosome for Cystic Fibrosis

A

CFTR; autosomal recessive; chromosome 7

30
Q

Most common Cystic Fibrosis mutation

A

Class II CFTR mutation (F508del): creates processing defect, misfiled protein is unable to get through ER

31
Q

What is the results of a G551d mutation in Cystic Fibrosis?

A

Class III mutation: gating defect, channel doesn’t open to let chloride out/in

32
Q

What type of pneumonia is associated with abscess formation?

A

Bronchopneumonia (Staph, klebsiella, pseudomonas, anaerobes according to Tulane)

33
Q

What is the most common cause of pleural effusions?

A

CHF

34
Q

Most common causes of transudative pleural effusions

A

CHF, nephrotic syndrome (hypoalbuminemia), cirrhosis (hepatic hydrothorax)

35
Q

Causes of exudative pleural effusions

A
  • Pneumonia, malignant lung/pleura stuff (mesothelioma, adenocarcinoma)
  • Hemothorax/chylothorax, pulmonary embolism
  • Collagen vascular disease, sarcoidosis
36
Q

2 most common causes of restrictive lung disease

A

IPF and sarcoidosis

37
Q

Histopathologic hallmark of DAD (exudative phase)

A

Hyaline membrane

38
Q

“Eggshell” calcifications of LN on CXR

A

Silicosis

39
Q

Diseases associated with Lymphangioleiomyomatosis (LAM)

A

Tuberous sclerosis, AML

40
Q

SIRS criteria

A
  • Temp > 38 or < 36
  • RR > 20, PaCO2 < 32
  • HR > 90
  • WBC count > 12,000
41
Q

Characteristic lab finding for Bordetella Pertussis?

A

Lymphocytosis

42
Q

Hallmarks of Corynebacterium diphtheriae infection

A

Bulls neck, Pharyngeal pseudomembrane (“thick yellow membrane on tonsils”)

43
Q

High yield symptoms of Secondary TB?

A

Cough, weight loss, night sweats, fever (hemoptysis not sensitive or specific)

44
Q

Number one risk factor for TB progression?

A

HIV

45
Q

How is mycobacterium TB spread?

A

Aerosolized droplets

46
Q

In what cell does mycobacterium TB survive and replicate?

A

Macrophages

47
Q

Th1 cytokine profile

A

IL-12, TNF-a, IFN-g

48
Q

Which Th1 cytokines recruit and activate macrophages?

A

TNF-a, IFN-g

49
Q

Causes of left shift in oxyhemoglobin curve

A

CO, incr. pH, decr. CO2, decr. temp, decr. 2,3-BPG

50
Q

Causes of right shift in oxyhemoglobin curve

A

Exercise, decr. pH, incr. CO2, incr. temp, incr. 2,3-BPG

51
Q

Plexiform lesions

A

Pulmonary HTN

52
Q

BMPR2 disease, chromosome, protein and inheritance pattern

A

Pulmonary HTN; 2q; TGF-b receptor; autosomal dominant

53
Q

Histoplasmosis endemic area(s)

A

Midwest (incl. Mississippi though)

54
Q

Blastomycosis endemic area(s)

A

Midwest

55
Q

Coccidiomycosis endemic area(s)

A

Southwest

56
Q

Paracoccidiomycosis endemic area(s)

A

Central & South America

Pulm (Phase II) (2 decks)

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