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Pulm (Phase II) > Tulane (HIGH YIELD) > Flashcards

Tulane (HIGH YIELD) Flashcards

1
Q

Appearance of bronchitis on CXR?

A

Normal (usually)

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2
Q

Haemophilus influenza specific culture

A

Require Hematin (X-factor) and NAD (V-factor) for chocolate agar

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3
Q

Virulence factor for invasive Haemophilus influenzae

A

PRP capsule

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4
Q

Can legionella be transmitted person-to-person?

A

No

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5
Q

Gram stain of chlamydial pneumonia

A

“Negative,” but gram stains poorly (cell wall lacks peptidoglycan)

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6
Q

What pneumonia pathogen’s replicative cycle has 2 forms: Elementary Body and Reticulate Body?

A

Chlamydial pneumonia

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7
Q

What is the “6 second test” for lung disease?

A

If forced exhale takes > 6 sec, you have obstructive lung disease

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8
Q

Effect of obstructive disease on FEV1/FVC ratio

A

Decr.

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9
Q

Effect of restrictive disease on FEV1/FVC ratio

A

Incr. or normal

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10
Q

A1AT deficiency genotypes

A

“Pi” = “Protease inhibitor”
PiMM: normal
PiMZ: heterozygotes, ~35% normal levels, protective
PiZZ: diseased

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11
Q

What chromosome is the gene for A1AT on?

A

14q

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12
Q

Clubbing with obstructive disease differential:

A
  • Bronchiectasis
  • Cystic Fibrosis
  • Bronchiogenic carcinoma
    Less important:
  • Intrapulmonary vascular malform
  • Congenital heart disease (R to L shunt)
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13
Q

COPD pathogens (according to Tulane)

A

Haemophilus influenza, moraxella catarrhalis, strep pneumo

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14
Q

Th2 cytokine profile

A

IL-4, IL-5, IL-13 (Pathoma incl. IL-10)

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15
Q

Lung adenocarcinoma location

A

Peripheral

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16
Q

Important genes associated with lung adenocarcinoma

A

KRAS, EGFR

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17
Q

Carcinoid syndrome symptoms

A

Intermittent attacks of: Flushing, cyanosis (weakness?), diarrhea

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18
Q

Drugs that cause pulm fibrosis (according to Tulane)

A

Amiodarone, bleomycin, nitrofurantoin, azathioprine, gold

Low yield: methotrexate, busulfan and radiation

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19
Q

What specific lung pathology is “temporally homogenous”

A

DAD (ARDS, NRDS, AIP)

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20
Q

Interstitial (pulmonary) fibroblast foci are pathognomonic of what disease?

A

Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis (UIP)

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21
Q

Sarcoidosis “pathognomonic” CXR finding

A

Hilar lymphadenopathy

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22
Q

Histopathologic inclusion(s) found in sarcoidosis

A

Asteroid bodies, Schaumann bodies

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23
Q

Birbeck granules pathognomonic of what disease?

A

Pulmonary Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis (PLCH)

24
Q

Disease(s) associated with Lymphocytic Interstitial Pneumonia (LIP)?

A

Connective Tissue disorders e.g. Sjogren’s (highest yield), but also HIV, infection

25
Treatment & Prognosis for Pulmonary eosinophilia
Responds well to corticosteroids
26
Treatment for Pulmonary Alveolar Proteinosis (PAP)
GM-CSF therapy
27
What is the "most protective" type of antibody to influenza
Anti-hemagluttinin (neutralizes the virus)
28
How is bronchiectasis diagnosed?
High resolution CT (HRCT)
29
Gene, inheritance pattern and chromosome for Cystic Fibrosis
CFTR; autosomal recessive; chromosome 7
30
Most common Cystic Fibrosis mutation
Class II CFTR mutation (F508del): creates processing defect, misfiled protein is unable to get through ER
31
What is the results of a G551d mutation in Cystic Fibrosis?
Class III mutation: gating defect, channel doesn't open to let chloride out/in
32
What type of pneumonia is associated with abscess formation?
Bronchopneumonia (Staph, klebsiella, pseudomonas, anaerobes according to Tulane)
33
What is the most common cause of pleural effusions?
CHF
34
Most common causes of transudative pleural effusions
CHF, nephrotic syndrome (hypoalbuminemia), cirrhosis (hepatic hydrothorax)
35
Causes of exudative pleural effusions
- Pneumonia, malignant lung/pleura stuff (mesothelioma, adenocarcinoma) - Hemothorax/chylothorax, pulmonary embolism - Collagen vascular disease, sarcoidosis
36
2 most common causes of restrictive lung disease
IPF and sarcoidosis
37
Histopathologic hallmark of DAD (exudative phase)
Hyaline membrane
38
"Eggshell" calcifications of LN on CXR
Silicosis
39
Diseases associated with Lymphangioleiomyomatosis (LAM)
Tuberous sclerosis, AML
40
SIRS criteria
- Temp > 38 or < 36 - RR > 20, PaCO2 < 32 - HR > 90 - WBC count > 12,000
41
Characteristic lab finding for Bordetella Pertussis?
Lymphocytosis
42
Hallmarks of Corynebacterium diphtheriae infection
Bulls neck, Pharyngeal pseudomembrane ("thick yellow membrane on tonsils")
43
High yield symptoms of Secondary TB?
Cough, weight loss, night sweats, fever (hemoptysis not sensitive or specific)
44
Number one risk factor for TB progression?
HIV
45
How is mycobacterium TB spread?
Aerosolized droplets
46
In what cell does mycobacterium TB survive and replicate?
Macrophages
47
Th1 cytokine profile
IL-12, TNF-a, IFN-g
48
Which Th1 cytokines recruit and activate macrophages?
TNF-a, IFN-g
49
Causes of left shift in oxyhemoglobin curve
CO, incr. pH, decr. CO2, decr. temp, decr. 2,3-BPG
50
Causes of right shift in oxyhemoglobin curve
Exercise, decr. pH, incr. CO2, incr. temp, incr. 2,3-BPG
51
Plexiform lesions
Pulmonary HTN
52
BMPR2 disease, chromosome, protein and inheritance pattern
Pulmonary HTN; 2q; TGF-b receptor; autosomal dominant
53
Histoplasmosis endemic area(s)
Midwest (incl. Mississippi though)
54
Blastomycosis endemic area(s)
Midwest
55
Coccidiomycosis endemic area(s)
Southwest
56
Paracoccidiomycosis endemic area(s)
Central & South America

Pulm (Phase II) (2 decks)

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