Tuberculosis Flashcards

1
Q

What bacteria causes tuberculosis?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Give two reasons why it is very difficult to culture M. tuberculosis:

A

1) they are very slow at dividing
2) they have high oxygen requirements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does acid-fast mean?

A

physical property of certain microorganisms with unique cell wall composition that makes them resistant to acid decolorization such that Gram staining is not effective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What staining method is used for M. tuberculosis?

A

Ziehl Neelson

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How does M. tuberculosis appear on Ziehl Neelson staining?

A

bright red on a blue background

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How is tuberculosis transmitted?

A

Droplets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is primary active tuberculosis?

A

active infection following exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is latent tuberculosis?

A

Presence of M. tuberculosis without being symptomatic or infectious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is secondary tuberculosis?

A

reactivation of latent tuberculosis into an active infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is miliary tuberculosis?

A

disseminated and severe disease where the immune system cannot control the infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the most common site of TB infection?

A

Lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Give 8 potential extrapulmonary sites of TB infection:

A

1) lymph nodes
2) GI system
3) pleura
4) bones and joints
5) skin
6) pericardium
7) genitourinary system
8) CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does BCG vaccine stand for?

A

Bacille Calmette-Guerin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the name of the tuberculosis vaccination?

A

BCG vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does the BCG vaccine contain?

A

live attenuated Mycobacterium bovis, a close relative of M. tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

True or false: the BCG is a routinely offered vaccine

A

false (it is only offered to high risk patients)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Give 4 risk factors for TB infection:

A

1) close contact with active TB
2) immigration and travel from areas with high TB prevalence
3) immunocompromised
4) malnutrition, homelessness, smokers, alcoholics and drug users

18
Q

What test should be completed before every BCG vaccine?

A

Matnoux test (must be negative before giving the vaccine)

19
Q

Give 9 presentations associated with tuberculosis:

A

1) haemoptysis
2) cough
3) lethargy
4) fever or night sweats
5) weight loss
6) lymphadenopathy
7) spinal pain
8) erythema nodosum
9) cold abscesses (in the neck)

20
Q

Describe erythema nodosum:

A

tender, red nodules on the skins caused by inflammation of subcutaneous fat

21
Q

What are the two immune tests used to diagnose TB infection?

A

1) Mantoux test
2) Interferon gamma release assay

22
Q

What substance is injected into the skin during the Mantoux test?

A

tuberculin

23
Q

Describe a positive result of the Mantoux test:

A

after 72 hours, the bleb in the skin will from a thickened, indurated patch spanning 5mm or more

23
Q

What is tuberculin?

A

a collection of tuberculosis proteins

24
Describe the interferon-gamma release assay:
mixing a blood sample with antigens from M. tuberculosis so that if the patient has been exposed to the bacteria before, WBCs will become sensitised and release interferon gamma
25
Give 3 CXR findings in line with primary tuberculosis:
1) patchy consolidation 2) pleural effusion 3) hilar lymphadenopathy
26
Give 2 CXR findings in line with reactivated tuberculosis:
1) patchy/ nodular consolidation 2) cavitation (gas filled spaces)
27
What CXR finding supports a diagnosis of disseminated tuberculosis?
millet seed appearance spread uniformly across the lungs (small 1-3mm nodules)
28
True or false: TB cultures can take several months
True
29
How many sputum samples should be taken when investigating TB?
3
30
What are the three types of culture that should be completed for TB investigation?
1) sputum cultures (x3) 2) Mycobacterium blood cultures (requires special blood culture bottle) 3) lymph node aspiration or biopsy
31
What does NAATs stand for?
Nucleic acid amplification tests
32
Describe how NAATs can be used to investigate TB:
a sputum can be taken and genetically analysed, providing info much faster than cultures
33
Give 3 instances where NAAT would be used to investigate TB:
1) in those with HIV 2) in those under 16 3) where there are risk factors for multi drug resistance
34
What two medications are used to treat latent TB?
1) isoniazid 2) rifampicin
35
What 4 medications are used to treat active TB?
1) Rifampicin 2) Isoniazid 3) Pyrazinamide 4) Ethabutol
36
What medication is prescribed alongside isoniazid?
Vitamin B6 (as isoniazid causes peripheral neuropathy)
37
True or false: every TB case needs to be made known to the UK Health Security Agency
True
38
Give 2 side effects of rifampicin:
1) makes secretions orange/ red (red-i'm-pissin) 2) induces cytochrome p450 enzymes meaning other drugs are metabolised rapidly and are thus less effective
39
Give a side effect of isoniazid:
peripheral neuropathy (i'm-so-numb-azid)
40
Give a side effect of pyrazinamide:
hyperuricaemia (gout and kidney stones)
41
Give a side effect of ethambutol:
colour blindness and reduced visual acuity (eye-thambutol)