TSRA Question Bank Flashcards

1
Q

Transeptal mitral approach puts what structures in danger?
When is it most advantageous?

A

Kugel’s artery and Bachman’s bundle (off SA on SVC to L side/ interatrial band, aka b/w the SVC and aorta).
Used for concomitant tricuspid, bi-atrial enlargement, previous mitral through interatrial groove

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2
Q

Where does persistent L SVC drain?

A

Coronary sinus.
Need to clamp during retrograde cardioplegia.

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3
Q

What is the primitive heart loop?

A

The cardiac loop is developed by day twenty-eight. At its caudal pole it receives venous drainage and pumps blood out of its cranial pole into the dorsal aorta via the first aortic arch. It is made up of a series of dilations – the bulbus cordis, primitive ventricle, primitive atrium and sinus venosus that develop under the influence of homeobox genes.

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4
Q

A patient is stabbed in L flank. He is otherwise ok w/o injury on CXR. What is he at risk of? What should be done next?

A

Diaphragmatic injury. Do dx lap.

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5
Q

Which “chest” fracture has a 70% rate of concomitant injury?

A

nondisplaced scapular fracture

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6
Q

What should PA pressure goal be in pt after CPB (assuming no pulm HTN preop)?

A

<25 mmHg

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7
Q

How do you manage a blunt cardiac injury in a stable patient (ie MVC pt psx w/ chest pain and wide QRS on monitor, stable)?

A

Like an MI: TTE, EKG, CXR, cardiac enzymes

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8
Q

What can be used to calculate SVR?
What is formula?
What are normal values?

A

MAP, CVP, CO.
SVR = 80(MAP-CVP)/CO.
Should be 800-1200.

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9
Q

If you don’t use anticoag during ECMO, what are the risks?

A

Limb ischemia, circuit failure, system thrombosis

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10
Q

O2 sat of 80-85% is most likely seen after which stage of single ventricle palliation (congenital)?

A

bidirectional Glenn or hemi-Fontan

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11
Q

In congenital heart surgery, stenting of the PDA offers an alternative to surgical shunt creation and offers potential benefits. What is a disadvantage?

A

May distort PAs at its PA insertion

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12
Q

What can TTE show (and not show) for surgical planning for ToF?

A

Most important imaging.
Confirms presence of four cardinal lesions, MCAB pattern, presence of other cardiac defects, RVOT obstruction.
Pulmonic circulation distal to the main PA is not well visualized by echo.

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13
Q

In congenital heart surgery, palliative operations seek to address which goals?

A

provide symptomatic relief and minimize the disorder

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14
Q

What are characteristics of effective shunts in cardiac surgery?

A

easily reversible, good functionality and patency, technical simple

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15
Q

Coronary artery anomaly rate in ToF?
Most common?
Where does the most common type of this anomaly lie, and where can it be damaged?

A

5-10%. Most common is LAD from RCA.
Traverses RVOT and can be damaged during infundibulotomy or transannular incision

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16
Q

Lateral tunnel Fontan compared to extra cardiac Fontan?

A

Performed by creating an intra-atrial baffle from IVC to PA and can be done at earlier age d/t potential for growth. Requires CPB. Not superior.

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17
Q

Is repair of partial anomalous pulmonary venous return a palliative procedure?

A

No. It addresses the underlying pathology with a definitive operation.

18
Q

Most common type of VSD in tetralogy of Fallot?

A

Perimembranous.

19
Q

Primary anatomical derangement in ToF?

A

Anterior and leftward displacement of the infundibular septum -> affects primary R V-A junction.

20
Q

Baby brought to the ED w/ tachypnea and FTT. CXR shows cardiomegaly. EKG shows q-wave leads in I, aVL, V5-6, ST-segment elevation, and t-wave inversion. What is diagnosis?

A

ALCAPA.
R cor becomes dilated and tortuous as collaterals develop to the L system.
PA resistance falls after birth -> reversal of blood through L cor -> ischemia -> FTT, wheezing, tachypnea, shock, cardiomegaly on CXR.

21
Q

After completion of the repair of subaortic DORV, there is RV dysfunction coming off CPB. Factor for RV dysfunction?

A

Baffle obstruction of RVOT.
DORV operations are complex w/ long cross-clamp times.
RV is generally hypertrophied, stiff, and poorly compliant. Take care for myocardial protection.
LV hypertrophy can result from subaortic stenosis or residual uncorrected pulmonary stenosis.

22
Q

Usual length of idiopathic laryngotracheal stenosis?

A

2-3 cm. Range from 0.5-5 cm.

23
Q

Pt has first spontaneous PTX. CTb is placed, but there is a persistent air leak for 3 days. What should be done?

A

VATS pleurodesis

24
Q

During tracheal resection for cancer, it is discovered that the RLN on one side is involved. What should be done?
Mediastinal and perivascular fascia - should be resected routinely?

A

One side can be sacrificed if the contralateral is preserved.
Mediastinal and perivascular fascia should not be resected routinely.

25
Q

What is the effect of LDCT screening for NSCLC (relative risk reduction)?

A

20% relative risk reduction for mortality compared to CXR. CT detected more cancer and at earlier stages. False positive rate was >90%. NNT to prevent a death was 320.

26
Q

Is remote history of pleurodesis a contraindication for LVRS?

A

Yes. Any history of prior thoracic surgery is a contraindication.

27
Q

NSCLC invades the chest wall. What is T stage?

A

T3

28
Q

Most common complication following caustic ingestion?

A

Stricture. 50% of pts.
GOO, perforation, and cancer are other potential complications.

29
Q

Thoracic sympathectomy is done for axillary hyperhidrosis (BL R4 and R5). What is the most common complication and its tx?

A

compensatory sweating - torso, thighs, legs
reassurance is management
risk factors: division above R2, multiple level sympathectomy, axillary sweating, high BMI, older

30
Q

What luminal diameter in tracheal stenosis is usually required to cause dyspnea at rest?

A

5-6mm

31
Q

Cerebral protection can be purely hypothermic during circulatory arrest. How is this achieved?

A

18 degrees.
Via nasopharyngeal temperature.
Cool to temp for 30 mins when EEG becomes flat (or for 45 min empirically, ie w/o EEG).
30 mins to perform repair.

32
Q

You cause a type A dissection during cannulation. What do you do next?

A

Cerebral and systemic perfusion must be achieved - cannulate somewhere else - fem or ax.

33
Q

Optical med mgmt of chronic systolic HF includes what meds?

A

beta block
diuretics
ACE-inh

34
Q

Cardiac rhabdomyomas in children associations?

A

Most common primary cardiac tumor.
Occur w/ tuberous sclerosis in 50% of pts.
Multicentric and within ventricles.

35
Q

Medical mgmt of CAD?

A

ASA in all.
ASA and plavix if prior ACS or PCI.
Aldosterone blockade if hx of MI w/ low EF w/o CKD.
ACEi for EF <40% OR DM OR HTN.
ARB if hx of MI or HF if intolerant to ACEi.

36
Q

A patient is undergoing CABG and surgical ventricular remodeling. There is severe MR. What is your plan for approach to MR?

A

Aneurysm ventriculostomy to do mitral valve repair first. SVR. CABG.

37
Q

AV groove disruption after mitral surgery.
Presentation?
Risks?
Prevention?

A

Psx: several minutes after coming off bypass, large amount of dark blood welling up from posterior pericardium.
Risks:
Pts w/ extensive calcification of the posterior mitral leaflet and annulus.
Lifting and retracting the heart after replacement.
Prevention: posterior leaflet preservation and chordal-sparing techniques.

38
Q

3 most common causes for pericardial effusion?

A

neoplasm, idiopathic, uremia

39
Q

Define the sensing threshold for a pacemaker.

A

Minimum myocardial voltage required to be detected by the device as a P or R wave, measured in mV. It’s higher for ventricles.
0.4-10 mV for atria.
0.8-20 mV for ventricles.

40
Q

Which part of the aorta is most commonly aneurysmal in Marfan patients?

A

Root