Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Anesthesiology > TrueLearn ITE > Flashcards

TrueLearn ITE Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What does Bupivacaine do to the heart?
A

a. Blocks sodium-gated channels which leads to delayed repolarization and arrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. What is the effect of tobacco use on the oxyhemoblogin curve?
A

a. Shift left (decrease oxygen perfusion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. What is most effective treatment for neuraxial opioid-induced pruritus?
A

Nalbuphine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What causes persistent fetal circulation in neonate?

A

Acidosis and hypoxia which cause increased pulmonary vascular resistance and pulmonary hypertension and persistence of right to left shunt.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is Milrinone’s effect?

A

Increased inotropy and cardiac output while also decreasing pulmonary and systemic vascular resistance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is preferred pharmacologic treatment for atropine resistant bradycardia?

A

Epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is second line pressor in septic shock, after Norepinephrine?

A

Epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A dot on the left of a MIGET graph represents what?

A

Pure shunt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is key feature of MIGET graph for COPD/asthma?

A

No pure shunt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In bilateral carotid endarterectomy care must be taken with opioids, why?

A

Because carotid body denervation can happen. If it does central chemoreceptors solely respond to hypoxia and acidosis. Opioids blunt this and severe respiratory depression can occur.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How should bronchospasm be initially treated?

A

Hand ventilation with 100% FiO2 and deepening of anesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is mechanism of action of terbutaline? Effect?

A

Beta 2 agonist. Causes bronchial smooth muscle relaxation and bronchodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the primary effect of furosemide in the acute CHF?

A

Decreases venous resistance thereby decreasing mean systemic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Redistribution of most anesthetic drugs occurs to where?

A

Skeletal muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does hypothermia decrease?

A

Oxygen consumption, CO, respiratory effort, drug clearance, insulin secretion, clotting/platelet function, immune response, P50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How do you treat seizures in LAST (local anesthetic systemic toxicity)?

A

Benzos (Versed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the hepatic arterial buffer response?

A

Hepatic artery vasodilation in response to reduced portal venous flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What can happen after large bolus of dexmedetomidine?

A

Hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A sharp rightward deflection of spirometry at end of pressure-volume loop is indicative of what?

A

Pulmonary overdistension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What two lung parameters are unchanged in obesity?

A

Closing capacity (volume at which small airways begin to close) and residual volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the key unique physiology in patients with hypoplastic left heart palliated with the Fontan procedure?

A

Passive pulmonary blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the 5 primary causes of hypoxemia?

A

Decreased PO2. Hypoventilation. V/Q mismatch. Impaired diffusion. Right to left shunt.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are three reasons for increased incidence of aspiration pneumonitis in obstetric patients?

A
  1. high incidence difficult airway 2. Lower gastric fluid pH 3. Increased intraabdominal pressure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Name 4 drugs with low hepatic extraction ratio

A

Diazepam. Methadone. Rocuronium. Thiopental.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the respiratory quotient?

A

Ratio of CO2 produced to O2 consumed during metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the affect of Sch on lower esophageal sphincter tone in pregnancy?

A

It increased to tone and decreases risk of aspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the venous admixture equation? (“shunt equation”)

A

Qs/Qt= CcO2-CaO2/Cc02-CvO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Up until what post-conceptual age is it prudent to monitor a neonate overnight after general anesthesia?

A

60 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Three requirements to prevent rebreathing in traditional circle circuit system?

A
  1. A unidirectional valve must be positioned between the patient and both the inspiratory and expiratory limbs
  2. Fresh gas flow cannot come into the circle system between the patient and the expiratory valve
  3. The APL valve cannot be positioned between the patient and the inspiratory valve
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the shortcut for calculating the volume of liquid volatile anesthetic consumed in one hour?

A

ml/hr=3FGF(L/min) % anesthetic vapor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the distance relationship between arterial line transducers and blood pressure?

A

10 cm change results in 7.5 mmHg change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is Henry’s Law?

Dalton/s Law?

A

Henry: Concentration of gas dissolved in a solution is directly proportional to the partial pressure

Dalton: The total pressure of a gas is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of individual gasses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What’s the quick way to approximate the volume remaining in an O2 tank?

A

3:1 rule. So if full, 2000 psi then about 625 L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

At what serum levels does hypermagnesemia cause respiratory depression?

At what levels will QRS become widened?

A

15-20 mg/dL

(cardiac): 5-10 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the effect of PEEP on hemodynamics? In systolic HF?

A

Increases Intrathoracic pressure thereby increasing right ventricular afterload. This decreases preload which can lead to hypotension in normovolemic without heart failure.

In heart failure preload is excessive. So PEEP improves CO and decreases LVEDP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are two side effects of Oxytocin?

A

Hypotension (vasodilation) and hyponatremia (hyponatremia 2/2 antidiuretic effect)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the most common complication of hyperbaric oxygen therapy?

A

Middle ear pressure equalization. (Pain, edema, bleeding, rupture)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What induction agent should be avoided in patients with history PONV?

A

Etomidate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What type of ETT with most likely prevent airway fire?

A

Aluminum (metal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Why should paralytics be avoided in patients with anterior mediastinal mass?

A

Relaxation of skeletal muscle could lead to airway collapse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Describe respiratory changes in pregnancy. Increase/decrease?

A

Decrease: TLC, FRC. VC unchanged. RR unchanged. All else (capacities and ventilation (ie: MV)) increased.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Patient with mitral regurg and pulmonary edema following inferior MI. First line treatment?

A

Sodium nitroprusside. As an arterial vasodilator it will decrease afterload and reduce regurgitant flow. Milrinone may also be a good choice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Describe cardiovascular effects in NORMOTENSIVE morbidly obese patient

A

increased blood volume leading to increased CO and DECREASED SVR.

Note: eventually increase Angiotensin-Renin and sympathetic nervous system will lead in increase BP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

List risk factors for difficult bag-mask ventilation

A 
BMI > 26
Beard
Age > 55
Edentulous
Snoring

Also Mallampati III-IV, limited mandibular protrusion, mouth opening < 3cm, TM distance < 6 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Vent settings for utilizing PPV

A

Controlled ventilation, TV > 7-8 ml/kg, no PEEP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

In an adult what anesthetic is most common cause of perioperative anaphylaxis?

A

Rocuronium (neuromuscular blocking agents)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What factors decrease evoked potentials in neuromonitoring?

A

volatile anesthetics, nitrous oxide, anemia, ischemia, hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How is MH transmitted genetically? What is the diagnostic test?

A

Autosomal dominant.

CHCT. Caffeine/halothane contracture test. Muscle biopsy exposed to ryanodine receptor agonists (caffeine and halothane) and strength of contracture measured.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

When should Metformin be discontinued preoperatively?

A

Acute renal failure or when acute renal insufficiency is high risk (contrast dye)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How does CO change during labor?

A

Increases 15% in latent labor, 30% in active labor, and 45% in expulsive phase.

Additional 10-25% increase with contractions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

In a patient with emergency surgery and significant risk factors for aspiration, which medication (class and two examples) can be given for prophylaxis?

A

H2 receptor antagonists.

Ranitidine
Famotidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What two factors cause shedding of endothelial glycocalyx?

A

ANP and hypervolemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What physical characteristics affect respiration in neonates?

A

Pliable rib cage causing retractions
Lower lung compliance but increased chest wall compliance
Immature intercostal musculature
Less type 1 muscle in diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are the 4 T’s of the HIT scoring system?

A
  1. Thrombocytopenia
  2. Timing of reduced platelet count
  3. Thrombus
  4. oTher causes ruled out
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

In kids, what is the premedication dose of IM Ketamine?

A

2-5 mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Enoxaparin?

A

LMWH, inhibits Fator Xa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Which neuromuscular blocking agent is primarily eliminated by the kidney?

A

Pancuronium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the initial treatment for symptomatic sever hypermagnesemia? (hypotension)

A

Calcium gluconate or calcium chloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is treatment for SVT in WPW?

A

Procainamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What class of medication must be avoided in pheochromocytoma?

A

Beta specific Beta-blockers (Metoprolol), Because unopposed alpha agonism will worsen hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are the side effects of Gabapentin?

A 
Nausea
Sedation
Nystagmus
Ataxia
Peripheral Edema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is induction agent of choice in acute intermittent porphyria?

A

Fentanyl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are the 5 goals of anesthetic management of HCOM?

A
  1. Reduce myocardial contractility
  2. Maintain or increase SVR
  3. Increase preload and CO
  4. Maintain low-normal heart rate
  5. Treat arrhythmia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What EKG change is characteristic for hypocalcemia?

A

Prolonged QT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is mechanism of action of isoproterenol?

A

Non-selective beta-agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What blood product carries the lowest risk of TRALI?

A

PRBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What are the two groups of local anesthetics? How to remember this?

A

Aminoamides and aminoesters.

Aminoamides have two “I’s”:

Bupivacaine, Lidocaine, Mepivacaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is Lithium’s effect of NDNBD’s?

A

Potentiates paralytics by interfering with prejunctional neuron action potential transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are three ways to manage intraoperative pulmonary hypertension?

A

Nitroglycerine (vasodilators), PDE-3 inhibitors, Nitrous Oxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is most commonly used epidural test dose?

A

3 ml of 1.5% Lidocaine with 1:200,000 epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

A complete injury to unilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve would result in what vocal cord position?

A

Paramedian position of affected side (both adductor and abductor segments of nerve injured)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are the ACC/AHA guidelines for days to wait for nonurgent surgery after stent placement?

A

PCA: 14 days
BMS: 30 days
DES: 365 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What 6 parameters comprise the Revised Cardiac Risk Index (RCRI)?

A
  1. Procedural Risk
  2. Hx of CVA
  3. Hx ischemic heart disease
  4. Insulin dependent DM
  5. CKD with Cr > 2.0
  6. Hx of CHF
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

A disc herniation at L4-L5 affects what nerve?

A

L4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What are 5 common characteristics associated with hypoplastic left heart syndrome?

A
  1. ASD
  2. Stenoic or atretic mitral and aortic valves
  3. Hypoplastic left ventricle
  4. hypoplastic ascending aorta
  5. PDA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction (HPV) is attenuated by what? (6 drugs)

A
  1. Inhaled volatiles
  2. ACE
  3. ARBs
  4. NO
  5. PDE inhibitors
  6. prostacyclin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What elements make up VACTERL association?

A 
Vertebral abnormalities
imperforate Anus
Congenital heart disease
TracheoEsophogeal fistula
Renal abnormalities
Limb abnormalities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

ESRD on dialysis, why is surgical hemostasis difficult?

A

Impaired platelet aggregation 2/2 uremia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What statistical term represents the accuracy with which a sample represents the population?

A

Standard error of the mean

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What anesthetic agents must be avoided in carcinoid syndrome?

A

Agents that release Histamine (Succs, Mivacurium, Atracurium, Tubocurarine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

How does altitude affect volatile anesthetic delivery/

A

Delivered concentration is increased

Partial pressure is unchanged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What color nail polish is least likely to affect pulse ox?

A

Red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Volatile anesthetics attenuate what cerebral blood flow response most?

A

Perfusion pressure (autoregulation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

How much does cerebral metabolic rate decrease per decrease in temperature?

A

6-7% reduction per degree C reduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What are general platelet cutoffs for surgery?

A

50,000 for general surgery

100,000 for neurosurgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

In patient with peripartum cardiomyopathy, what is general recommendation for delivery and anesthesia?

A

Vaginal delivery with epidural anesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Postoperative pulmonary complications are likely to be reduced after smoking cessation of what duration?

A

4-8 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is ratio of TOF to % receptors blocked?

A

1 twitch indicates >90% suppression.
2 twitches indicate 80-90% suppression.
3 twitches indicate 70-80% suppression.
4 twitches indicate 65-75% suppression.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What T4:T1 TOF ratio is considered sufficient?

A

0.75

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

How is Rocuronium cleared?

A

30% renally. Clearned primarily by hepatic metabolism.

91
Q

What is initial treatment of hemodynamically unstable or symptomatic SVT?

A

Synchronized cardioversion

92
Q

What anesthetic considerations are associated with hypothyroidism?

A

Hyponatremia and hypoglycemia

93
Q

One unit of cryoprecipitate contains how much fibrinogen?

A

200 mg

94
Q

Name two ophthalmic blocks. Which one is better but more dangerous?

A

Retrobulbar and peribulbar.

Retrobulbar

95
Q

What class of medication is milrinone?

A

PDE III inhibitor

96
Q

What are the pharmacokinetic and dynamic changes of vecuronium in the elderly?

A

Same potency. Longer duration of action

97
Q

What congenital cardiac abnormality is associated with pectus excavatum?

A

MVP

98
Q

What are three neuro effects of propofol?

A
  1. Decrease cerebral metabolic rate
  2. Decreases cerebral O2 consumption
  3. Decreases ICP
99
Q

What are the axis for the oxygen hemoglobin dissociation curve?

A

X=PO2

Y=% Saturation

100
Q

What are three ASA recommendations for reducing risk of airway fire?

A
  1. Laser resistant tube
  2. Low FiO2 as possible
  3. Fill cuff with saline and methylene blue when feasible
101
Q

What medication should be avoided in Thyroid storm?

A

Aspirin

102
Q

What info do you need to know how much NO remains in an E-cylinder?

A

Weight and tare weight

103
Q

Which nerve is spared with a brachial plexus block?

A

Intercostobrachial

104
Q

What nerve and muscle pairing is responsible for vocal cord abduction?

A

Recurrent laryngeal nerve, posterior cricoarytenoid muscle

105
Q

Name three unique considerations when using neuromuscular blockade in children?

A
  1. Succs not routinely used except RSI
  2. They require higher than normal weight-based doses
  3. Hepatic or renally cleared drugs circulate longer in neonates
106
Q

What anesthetic should be theoretically avoided in pancreatitis?

A

Propofol

107
Q

What is chronic phenytoin use’s effect on NMBA?

A

Duration of block is significantly shorter

108
Q

What perioperative test is best at predicting acute renal failure in setting of suprarenal aortic cross clamping?

A

Creatinine Clearance

109
Q

Meralgia parethetica is injury to what nerve?

A

Lateral femoral cutaneous

110
Q

What muscle is the attachment point of the tongue to the mandible?

A

Genioglossus

111
Q

What is magnesiums affect on NMBA?

A

Prolongs action

112
Q

Describe metabolism of Etomidate. 3 points

A
  1. Metabolized to inactive metabolites in liver
  2. Excreted primarily by kidneys
  3. Highly protein bound
113
Q

What is statistical test to use to compare normally distributed data from more than two groups?

A

Analysis of variance

114
Q

Why can clonidine be added to local anesthetic?

A

Increase duration of action

115
Q

What is the reason for Fentanyl’s quick onset and shorter duration of action as compared to Morphine?

A

More lipid soluble

116
Q

Describe proper placement of an axillary roll

A

Oriented anterior-posterior and placed caudad to axilla

117
Q

What would cause both a decrease in O2 demand and an increase in O2 delivery?

A

Decreased Heart Rate

118
Q

What 5 elements are contained in cryoprecipitate?

Given prophylactically in patient with what hemophilia?

A 
vWf
Fibrinogen
Fibronectin
Factor XIII
Factor XIII

Hemophilia A

119
Q

Which aspiration prophylaxis medication has the longest duration of action and what is its class?

A

Omeprazole

Proton pump inhibitor

120
Q

What is the ideal block for surgeries involving hand, wrist, and forearm?

A

Supraclavicular block

121
Q

Of the “isomolar crystalloids” which has the highest osmolality and sodium concentration?

What is the sodium concentration?

A

0.9% NS

154

122
Q

How does acetazolaminde treat acute mountain sickness?

A

Shifts to CO2-ventilatory response curve left

123
Q

What four hormones does Somatostatin inhibit the release of?

A
  1. Insulin
  2. Glucagon
  3. GH
  4. TSH
124
Q

FGF must be equal to what in a Mapleson A circuit to prevent rebreathing during spontaneous ventilation?

A

Minute Ventilation

125
Q

What is the triad of hepatopulmonary syndrome?

A
  1. Intrapulmonary vascular dilation
  2. Increased A-a gradient
  3. Hepatic failure
126
Q

What is increased in a closed circuit anesthetic technique?

A

PONV

127
Q

IN awake patient with no mention of hemorrhage what is first line treatment for uterine relaxation for surgery on retained placenta?

A

Nitroglycerin

128
Q

What is the formula to calculate the amount of Bicarb needed to correct acidosis?

A

0.2Kgbase deficit

129
Q

What s treatment of choice for prophylactic bleeding risk in patient with type 1 vXD

A

Desmopressin

130
Q

Ongoing bleeding after cardiopulmonary bypass despite adequate reversal with Protamine is managed with what?

A

Platelets

131
Q

What adjuvant medication is contraindicated in neuraxial anesthesia in obstetric patients due to risk of hypotension and sedation?

A

Clonidine

132
Q

Decreased MA on TEG (thromboelatography) is indicative of what?

A

Platelet dysfunction

133
Q

What are three goals of treatment of acute right heart failure?

A
  1. Improving inotropy
  2. Increasing pulmonary vasodilation
  3. Diuresis
134
Q

What are 5 absolute contraindication to TEE probe placement?

A
  1. Perforation
  2. Esophageal stricture
  3. Masses
  4. Diverticulum
  5. Active bleeding
135
Q

What classes of medication should be avoided in patients with glaucoma? 3

A

Meds that cause mydriasis (dilation).

  1. Anticholinergic
  2. Antihistamine
  3. Corticosteroids (increase IOP)
136
Q

What is the mechanism of local anesthetic toxicity?

A

Delayed repolarization of via action potential inhibition with binding of voltage-gated sodium channels.

137
Q

In hypotensive trauma with TBI what are two acceptable fluids for resuscitation?

A

NS

hypertonic saline

138
Q

What increases your risk of myalgia following succs?

A

Female. Not being very muscular. Being an adult, not pregnant, not at extremes of age.

139
Q

What 4electrolyte abnormalities are manifest in Addison’s?

A

Hyponatremia
Hypoglycemia
Hyperkalemia
Hypercalcemia

140
Q

What anesthetic principle should be remembered for patients on Amiodarone?

A

Use as low FiO2 as possible to reduce risk of pulmonary fibrosis

141
Q

Which is Glutamates role in the transmission of pain?

A

It is a stimulator

142
Q

What is the correct pacemaker mode for patient s/p AV node ablation?

A

VVI

143
Q

What are indications for hyperbaric Oxygen therapy following CO exposure? (6)

A
  1. Pregnancy
  2. Ischemia
  3. Change in mental status
  4. Coma
  5. Seizure
  6. CO level over 40%
144
Q

What is the strongest predictor of postoperative mortality following liver transplant?

A

Hypoxemia (PaO2 <50)

145
Q

What is the normal physiologic response to ECT?

A

Tonic clonic seizure leading to increase CBF with resultant parasympathetic response with bradycardia followed then by sympathetic surge with hypertension and tachycardia.

146
Q

What is the cause of “fade” on TOF?

A

Binding of NMBD’s to presynaptic receptors preventing reuptake of ACh resulting in depleted stored of ACh in the presynaptic motor nerve ending

147
Q

How much negative pressure is required to expand fluid filled alveoli in a neonate and how long after life until FRC is normal?

A

40-60 cmH2O

20 minutes

148
Q

How is amniotic embolism characterized? (Two stages, two events each stage and one other thing)

A

First stage:
Maternal pulmonary vasospasm with right heart strain/failure

Second stage:
Pulmonary edema with left heart failure.

Also maternal coagulopathy (consumptive)

149
Q

What are two EKG characteristics of MAT (multifocal atrial tachycardia) and what disease processes is it associate with?

A

HR > 100
3+ different P-wave morphologies

Associated with pulmonary and cardiac pathologies especially those resulting in atrial distension and pulmonary HTN

150
Q

What is the most appropriate use for a statistical t-test?

A

Comparing the means between two groups

151
Q

What is the only opioid that has increased clearance in neonates as compared to older children and adults?

A

Remifentanil

152
Q

Neuraxial anesthesia and it’s affect on:

  1. Second stage of labor
  2. Mortality and morbidity
  3. Rate of C-section
A
  1. Prolongs
  2. No change
  3. No change
153
Q

What is the leading cause of perioperative mortality in the morbidly obese patient?

A

DVT

154
Q

What is correct maintenance choice in patient with prolonged QT?

A

TIVA

155
Q

What is the half-life of plasma albumin?

A

3 weeks

156
Q

How many time constraints is required for the concentration of a drug to decrease by 95%?

A

3

157
Q

Why may nitrous be a bad idea in laparoscopic surgery?

A

Decreased surgical visualization

158
Q

What are two effect of epinephrine additive to lidocaine in epidural anesthesia?

A

Increased density and duration of block.

159
Q

Describe three characteristics of nocioceptive afferent nerve fibers

A
  1. high threshold
  2. A delta and C fibers
  3. Unmyelinated
160
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis causes instability to what joint by weakening what two ligaments?

A
  1. Atlantoaxial joint

2. Transverse and alar ligaments

161
Q

What is normal mixed venous oxygen tension?

A

40 mmHg

162
Q

Sustained intraabdominal pressures greater than what define abdominal compartment syndrome?

A

20 mmHg

163
Q

What blood pressure medication is associated with oligohydramnios and should be avoided in pregnancy?

A

Lisinopril

164
Q

What EKG change is associated with hypocalcemia?

A

Prolonged QT

165
Q

What is treatment for organophosphate poisoning?

A

Atropine

166
Q

Which medication is useful for aspiration prophylaxis in emergencies due to its immediate onset?

A

Citric acid and sodium citrate

167
Q

What is bolus dosing of Dantrolene in MH?

A

2.5 mg/kg

168
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Metocloprmide in aspiration prophylaxias?

A

Increase LES tone and gastric emptying

169
Q

What is one of the earliest signs of diabetic neuropathy?

A

Decreased HR variability and resting tachycardia

170
Q

What are indications for platelet transfusion in MTP?

A

If ongoing bleeding less than 75K, if no bleeding if less than 50K.

171
Q

What are the FDA approved indications for Dexmedetomidine ?

A

Sedation of non-intubated patients prior to and/or during surgical and other procedures

172
Q

What two muscles are used as landmarks for placement of central line IJ?

A

Clavicular and sternal heads sternocleidomastoid muscle

173
Q

Which electrolyte abnormality can precipitate Digoxin toxicity?

A

Hypokalemia

174
Q

What are the signs of propofol infusion syndrome? (8)

A
  1. Metabolic lactic acidosis
  2. Cardiac failure
  3. Renal failure
  4. Rhabdomyolysis
  5. Hypertriglyceridemia
  6. Hyperkalemia
  7. Hepatomegaly
  8. Pancreatitis
175
Q

How do you approximate a patient’s blood volume?

A

70 ml/kg

176
Q

What is treatment for Thyroid storm?

A

Propylthiouracil then iodide

Arrythmia treated with Beta blocker +/- Digoxin

177
Q

What is nerve block of choice for post op pain in ACL repair?

A

Femoral nerve block

178
Q

Vasopressin secretion is inhibited by what?

A

ANP

179
Q

What are risk factors for cauda equine syndrome? (4)

A
  1. Microcatheter
  2. High local anesthetic concentration
  3. Directing tip in dependent direction
  4. Slow and low pressure injection
180
Q

What is anticoagulation substitute in patient with HIT type II

A

Bivalirudin

181
Q

Which muscle relaxant should be avoided in hyperthyroidism, why?

A

Pancuronium. May stimulate the sympathetic nervous system

182
Q

Describe what products are mixed:

  1. ABO typing
  2. Crossmatching
  3. Antibody screen
A
  1. Recipient RBCs with commercial serum
  2. Recipient serum with donor RBC
  3. Recipient serum with commercial RBC
183
Q

CNS depression secondary to anticholinergic meds can be reversed with what and why?

A

Physostigmine. It is an anticholinesterase that can cross the blood-brain barrier

184
Q

What is the preferred cannulation technique for cardiopulmonary bypass?

A

Aortoatriocaval

185
Q

In acute tubular necrosis, what is the expected FENa and UNa?

A

FENa: >1%

UNa > 40

186
Q

Nitric oxide is used to treat what, how, and what is it’s hematologic side effect?

A

Pulmonary HTN, pulmonary vasodilator, methemoglobinemia

187
Q

Name indicated product in heparin resistance and TTP.

A

FFP

188
Q

Name the three diagnoistic criteria for sepsis and what distinguishes septic shock?

A
  1. RR greater than 22
  2. AMS
  3. Systolic BP less than 100

If volume resuscitated and still requiring pressors to keep MAP above 65 or lactate is greater than 2 they are in septic shock.

189
Q

What antibody test is used to diagnose HIT?

A

Platelet factor 4

190
Q

What are two most important factors in determining spread of spinal anesthesia when using isobaric solution?

A

Site of injection and total dose

191
Q

What are common physiologic changes in brain dead organ donors? (6)

A
  1. Myocardial dysfunction
  2. Catecholamine storm
  3. Pulmonary edema
  4. Hyperglycemia
  5. Pulmonary edema
  6. Polyuria
192
Q

Why does propofol cause hypotension (4)?

A
  1. Decrease preload
  2. Decrease afterload
  3. Decrease cardiac function
  4. Impair baroreceptor reflex
193
Q

What two colloids are associated with coagulopathy?

A

Hydroxylethyl starch

Dextran

194
Q

What is opioid’s affect on seizure threshold?

A

Lowers it

195
Q

What is the single best test for difficult intubation?

A

Upper lip bite test

196
Q

At rest what is true of autonaumic nervous system differences between elderly and young patients?

A

At rest elderly have higher sympathetic tones and lower parasympathetic tones

197
Q

Initital management of drowning, asphyxiation, choking

A

A-B-C. Start with breaths

198
Q

How is blood flow to the urterus regulation

A

There is no autoregulation. It is all pressure dependent.

199
Q

Local anesthetics block peripheral nerves by what mechanism?

A

Reversible binding the intracellular voltage-gated sodium channels.

200
Q

Opioids are dosed based on what?

A

LBW

201
Q

What is average vital capacity in 70 kg male?

A

5 L

202
Q

Labetolol: Metabolism, lipid solubility, elimination half life

A
  1. In Liver by oxidation and glucuronidation
  2. Poorly lipid soluble (safe in pregnancy)
  3. Half life is 6 hours
203
Q

Awareness under anesthesia is more common in three types of procedure. What are the three?

A
  1. Cardiac
  2. Obstetric
  3. Trauma
204
Q

Ischemia reperfusion injury is thought to be caused by what?

A

Disruption of the sodium-potassium pumps secondary to decreased ATP and glycogen

205
Q

What are the 4 elements of the Berlin criteria in the diagnosis of ARDS?

A
  1. Timing: Acute, within one week
  2. Bilateral opacities on CXR
  3. Edema origin: Respiratory failure not fully explained by cardiac failure or fluid overload
  4. Oxygenation: (Mild) PaO2:FiO2 ratio less than 300 (and goes down from there)
206
Q

What is PCXP in TRALI?

A

<18

207
Q

What is common radiographic finding in croup (laringotraceobronchitis)?

A

Steeple sign (subglottic narrowing)

208
Q

What is the best indicator of liver transplant graft function?

A

INR

209
Q

Labor epidural anesthesia prolongs what stage of labor?

A

Stage II

210
Q

What is hepatorenal syndrome type I?

A

Acute onset renal failure with doubling of baseline creatinine in the setting of cirrhosis and an inciting event (spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, sepsis, surgery)

211
Q

In which space is CSF in the spine?

A

Subarachnoid. Between arachnoid and pia mater

212
Q

Spinal anesthesia may be an option for what age neonates?

A

Former premies at less than 60 weeks postconceptual age.

213
Q

What is the general relationship between PaCO2 and EtCO2?

A

PaCO2 is generally 2-5 mmHg higher due to dead space

214
Q

In local anesthetics, what is the affect of each of these:

  1. Higher protein binding?
  2. More lipid soluble?
  3. Adding sodium bicarb
A
  1. Longer duration of action
  2. More potent
  3. Quicker onset
215
Q

What happens to CO in sepsis? In PE?

A

Increases. Decreases.

216
Q

What is the effect ton blood lines in polycythemia vera. Bonus, what is the mutation?

A

Microcytic erythrocitosis
Leukocytosis
Thrombocytosis

JAK2

217
Q

What receptor is bound by ipratropium to cause bronchodilation?

A

M3

218
Q

Name three (random) conditions associated with MH

A
  1. Central core disease
  2. multi-minicore disease
  3. Ken-Denborough syndrome
219
Q

What is the order of local anesthetic potency?

A

Bupivacaine>ropivacaine>Lidocaine>Mepivacaine>Chloroprocaine

220
Q

What fluids should be avoided in neurosurgery?

A

Fluids containing glucose

221
Q

Name 3 classes of meds that antagonize NDNBDs

A

Anticonvulsant
Calcium
Steroids

222
Q

What happens to blood gas acid/base status in pregnancy?

A

Slight respiratory alkalosis due to increase MV. This also slightly increase PO2. Also some metabolic acidosis compensation (decreased bicarb)

223
Q

Where does the sciatic nerve lie in the popliteal fossa and what are its two division?

A

Lateral

Tibial
Common peroneal

224
Q

What is first step for airway management in patient with trachea tear who is stable? Unstable?

A

Awake fiberoptic intubation.

Modified RSI

Anesthesiology (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions