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Level 2 Study > TrueLearn COMBANK 2 > Flashcards

TrueLearn COMBANK 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the general age that children are switched from rear-facing carseats to fowrard-facing?

A

2 years

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2
Q

Location of the psoas tender point & positioning of counterstrain technique?

A
  • 2/3 the distance of the ASIS to the midline
  • patient supine, bilateral hip flexion, side-bending of lumbar spine toward the tender point
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3
Q

Location of the iliacus tender point & positioning of counterstrain technique?

A
  • 1/3 distance ASIS to midline
  • bilateral hip flexion and external rotation of hips with knees flexed
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4
Q

Location of the low ilium tender point & positioning of counterstrain technique?

A
  • superior surface of the iliopubic eminence at attachement of psoas minor
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5
Q

Location of the inguinal tender point & positioning of counterstrain technique?

A
  • lateral aspect of pubic tubercle at the attachement of the pectineus muscle or inguinal ligament
  • flexion of hips with contralateral thigh crossed over ipsilateral thigh; causes flexion, adduction, internal rotation
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6
Q

What test is used to diagnose a gastrinoma?

A

secretion stimulation test

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7
Q

What is the term for the small, painful, palmar nodules seen in patients with endocarditis?

A

Osler nodes

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8
Q

Major and minor duke criteria for endocarditis?

A

2 major, 1 major + 3 monor, 5 minor
Major
* 2 separate blood cultures showing viridans streptococci, HAECK, or community-acquired enterococci
* persistently positive blood cutures: + cultues obtained >12 hrs apart > 3 positive blood cultures with bateria known to be skin flora
* culture posotive for Coxiella
* echo showing vegetation or abscess

Minor
* osler nodes, roth spots, glomerularnephritis
* fever >38C (100.4F)
* arterial emboli, conjunctival hemorrhage, intracranial hemorrhage, septic pulmonary emboli, janeway lesion
* positive blood culture with other organisms than listed above
* history of IV drug use or prosthetic valve

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9
Q

Treatment for severe hyponatremia?

A

100mL bolus 3% saline
if symptoms persist, 2 additional 100mL doses can be given over 10 min
goal is to increase Na by 4-6mEq/L over period of hours

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10
Q

Initial evaluation after discovery of atypical glandular cells from pap?

A

colposcopy & endometrial sampling if patient is over 35

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11
Q

Which papillary muscle is most prone to rupure post MI?

A

posteromedial b/c it is has only one coronary distrubution via the right coronary artery

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12
Q

35 year old female presents with an isolated, painless mass in her thyroid gland. Labs reveal hyperclacemia and elevated parathyroid hormone. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

medullary carcinoma

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13
Q

What is the first line treatment for hypertension in patients with proteinuria or evidence of chronic kidney disease?

A

ACE inhibitor

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14
Q

Embryologic innervation foregut?

A
  • stomach: T5 - 10 (left)
  • duodenum: T6 - 8 (right)
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15
Q

Embryologic innervation midgut?

A
  • small intesting: T8 - 10
  • Appendix/cecum: T9 - 12
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16
Q

Embryologic innervation hindgut?

A

descending colon/rectum: L1 - L3 (left)

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17
Q

Typical labs seen in patients with hyperaldosteronism?

A
  • hypokalemia
  • hypernatremia
  • metabolic alkalosis
  • hypomagnesemia
  • increased aldosterone to plasma renin activity ration
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18
Q

A 50-year-old female presents to the office with the complaint of a rash that has progressed over the past few months. She said it started as a red rash but it has now changed to a plaque like area over her arms and legs. A biopsy of the lesion is obtained and reveals Pautrier’s microabscesses. The most likely diagnosis is

A

mycosis fungoides

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19
Q

What is a sensitive laboratory test to screen for muscular dystrophy?

A

serum creatinine kinase

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20
Q

What is the most appropriate position to examine a patient is the 3rd trimester of pregnancy?

A

left lateral decubitus

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21
Q

When a patient in DKA is ready to be transitioned off the insulin drip, when should subcutaneous insulin be started?

A

2 hours before the insulin drip is stopped

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22
Q

What is the treatment for Bell’s palsy?

A

glucocorticoids (within 72 hours)
eye care

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23
Q

Treatment for postpartum endometritis?

A

clindamycin and gentamicin
ampicillin if patient is know to be colonized by group B strep

24
Q

Histology, AFP, and B-hCG of yok sac tumor?

A

Histology
* multiple patterns
* Schiller-Duval bodies present in 50%

AFP
* elevated (>100ng/mL)

B-hCG
* negative

25
Q

Histology, AFP, and B-hCG of choriocarcinoma?

A

Histology
* abundant necrosis & hemorrhage, mixed cytotrophoblasts and syncitiotrophoblasts

AFP
* negative

B-hCG
* elevated (often >1000IU/L)

26
Q

Histology, AFP, and B-hCG of teratoma?

A

Histology
* mature & immature components

AFP
* negative

B-hCG
* negative

27
Q

Histology, AFP, and B-hCG of seminoma?

A

Histology
* clonal cells with wel defined cytoplasmic borders; central nuclei with prominent nucleoli; and clear, glycogenated cytoplasm

AFP
* negative

B-hCG
* may be midly elevated

28
Q

Histology, AFP, and B-hCG of embryonal tumor?

A

Histology
* Rarely present in pure form; demonstrates clusters and sheets of markedly atypical cells. May contain syncitiotrophoblast cells

AFP
* negative

B-hCG
* may be mildly elevated

29
Q

What are the medications used for prophylactic migraine treatment?

A
  • beta blockers (propranolol)
  • calcium channel blocker
  • tricyclic antidepressants
  • valproic acid
  • SNRI
  • topiramate
30
Q

What is the first choice of biopsy for a non-palpable mammographic abnormality?

A

stereotactic core needle biopsy

31
Q

List the adverse effects associated with each of the following tuberculosis medications:
Rifampin
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol

A

Rifampin
* orange discoloration of tears, saliva, and urine

Isoniazid
* hepatitis
* lupus-like-symptoms
* peripheral neuropathy

Pyrazinamide
* hepatitis
* hyperurecicemia

Ethambutol
* optic neuritis

32
Q

What infections are required to be reported to the health department with or without the patient’s consent?

A
  1. syphilis
  2. Hepatitis A & B
  3. Salmonella
  4. Shigella
  5. Measles
  6. Mumps
  7. AIDS
  8. rubella
  9. tuberculosis
  10. Chlamydia
  11. Varicella
  12. Gonorrhea
33
Q

Leg length discrepancies of what length can be treated with an in-sole shoe life?

A

less than 2cm

34
Q

What medications are the most likely to cause stevens-johnsons syndrome?

A
  1. allopurinol
  2. NSAIDs
  3. antibiotics
  4. anticonvulsants
35
Q

Which bones form the occipitomastoid suture?

A

occiput and temporal

36
Q

What are the 3 first line tests in the diagnosis of Cushing Syndrome?

A
  1. low dose dexamethasome test
  2. 11pm salivary cortisol (x2)
  3. 24 hr urine free cortisol (x2)
37
Q

Which cardiac pathology is characteristic of a lout S1, along with a mid-diastolic rumble with an opening snap at the cardiac apex?

A

mitral stenosis

38
Q

Treatment of choice for a hemodynamically stable patient in SVT?

A

IV adenosine

39
Q

Treatment of neurocysticercosis?

A

phenytoin, prednisone, & albendazole
if >2 cysts, add praziquantel

40
Q

Which court case gives the spouse the right to refuse life-sustaining treatment based on an advance directive?

A

Cruzan vs. Director

41
Q

Contact dermatitis is what type of a hypersensitivity reaction?

A

type IV

42
Q

What is the parkland formula and what is it used for?

A

fluid resuscitation in sever burn victims
fluid req. first 24 hr = 4 x kg x BSA%
first half in first 8 hrs
second half in next 16 hrs

43
Q

Treatment for patient 21-24 with atypical squamous cells of underermined significance (ASCUS) found on pap?

A

repeat cytology in 12 months

44
Q

What law prevens people from suddently losing health insurance when transidioning jobs or hours are cut?

A

COBRA

45
Q

What is the treatment for proliferative diabetic retinopathy?

A

laser photocoagulation

46
Q

Common laboratory abnormalities seen in tumor lysis syndrome?

A
  • hyperkalemia
  • hyperphosphatemia
  • hypocalcemia
  • hyperurecemia
47
Q

Common laboratory abnormalities seen in tumor lysis syndrome?

A
  • hyperkalemia
  • hyperphosphatemia
  • hypocalcemia
  • hyperurecemia
48
Q

What are the actions of the piriformis?

A
  • external rotation
  • extension
  • abduction

of the hip

49
Q

PML infects what cell types?

A

oligodendrocytes

50
Q

How can you decrease intracranial pressure via ventilator?

A

hyperventilation

51
Q

Treatment for an AIDS patient with candida esophagitis who has failed a 10-day course of fluconazole?

A

echinocandin (micafungin)

52
Q

Treatment for acute dystonia?

A

benztropine or diphenhydramine

53
Q

Radiation exposure less than what level provides negligable risk to a fetus?

A

50 mGy (5 rad)

54
Q

What is the GFR threshold that makes metformin contraindicated?

A

30 mL/min

55
Q

Which case established a legal precedent for informed consent?

A

Schloendorff vs. Society of New York Hospital

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