Truelearn Flashcards

1
Q

Carcinoid tumor

A

1 cause of death is cardiac failure with carcinoid

Mainly in gi tract
High 5 hiaa in urine
Excess of serotonin in systemic circulation
Flushing diarrhea abdominal pain hypotension right heart lesions

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2
Q

Ulnar neuropathy

A

Thin males

Don’t put pressure on condylar groove of humerus

Most common perioperative neuropathy is ulnar

Nerve conduction studies look at both motor and sensory

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3
Q

Decrease smoking for two days

A

Less carboxyhemoglobin and oxyhemoglobin curve shifts to the right

Takes two months to see reduced sputum increased ciliary function improved closing volume

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4
Q

Causes of failed neuraxial block during c-section

A

Maternal obesity
Late labor epidural placement
Rapid conversion from labor to C section

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5
Q

Hyperparathyroidism main cause

A

Single adenoma

Leads to hypercalcemia with abdominal pain nephrolothiasis

Parathyroid stimulates osteoclast activity

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6
Q

Familial hypocalcemic hypocalciuria is due to

A

Decreased excretion of calcium and magnesium

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7
Q

Normal creatinine and BUN I’m pregnant patient

A
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8
Q

In pregnancy

GFR

Blood clotting factors increase/decrease

Hemoglobin

A

Increases

Increase

Decrease -physiologic anemia

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9
Q

Sitting pain =

A

Discogenic

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10
Q

Morning stiffness back pain

A

Anklyosing spondylitis

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11
Q

Primary hyperthyroidism

A

High serum and urinary calcium

Low phosphorus

Causes non anion gap acidosis

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12
Q

Non parathyroid causes of hypercalcemia

A

Multiple myeloma, vitamin d intoxicating

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13
Q

Renal failure

A

Secondary hyperthyroidism

Caliciun low phosphorus hugh

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14
Q

Gas score verbal

A

5 normal
4 confused
3 inappropriate words
2 incomprehensible words

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15
Q

GCS score

Movement

A
6 normal
5 localize to pain
4 withdraw to pain
3 flex ion
2 extension
1 nothing
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16
Q

An acute drop in ventilation during a single lung case is to

A

Ventilate with both lungs

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17
Q

Dependent lung is the

A

Ventilated lung

Can give peep if hypoxemic

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18
Q

Septic shock

A

More glucose formation with insulin resistance

Sepsis leads to hyper metabolism which increases protein catabolism

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19
Q

SVT with WPW syndrome slanted R wave

A

ProcainAmide

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20
Q

Paroxysmal SVT first line

A

Adenosine

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21
Q

Elimination half life of labetolol

A

5.5 hrs

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22
Q

Diltiazem increases

A

AV nodal conduction

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23
Q

Anyicholingeric

A

Tachycardia

Mydriasis

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24
Q

Carbamazepine side effects

A

Widened qrs
Hypotension
Seizures
Anti-cholinergic symptoms

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25
Q

Antiphospholipid syndrome

A

Recurrent pregnancy loss
Leads to arterial/venous thrombosis
Increase in PTT but no change to PT time

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26
Q

Bowel obstruction of my tubes

A

Decrease viscosity of feeds

Flush them through

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27
Q

Refeeding syndrome

A

All electrolytes are down mainly hypophasphatemia

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28
Q

ASIA scoring system for spine injury

A

A = complete cord transection

E = normal

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29
Q

PCNS = p alveoli = p blood

A

At equilibrium

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30
Q

LAD supplies

A

Left anterior wall of left ventricle

Lateral wall of LV is by the circumflex

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31
Q

IVRA

A

Tourniquet on its own provides distal ischemia without local anesthetic

Provides motor and sensory anesthesia

Bier block provides extremity anesthesia by diffusion of local anesthetic from veins to capillaries to vasa vasorum

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32
Q

C section when compared to vaginal delivery

A

Lower risk of maternal hemorrhage or uterine rupture if u do a c section

C section will increase uterine rupture risks in further pregnancies

Infection risk is higher in c section

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33
Q

Phosgene chemical warefare agent

A

Severe pulmonary damage

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34
Q

Can’t give hydroxyethyl starch to a patient with

A

Renal failure

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35
Q

Acute systolic reaction from dopamine antagonism from which drugs

A

Metochlopramide and procholrperazine

Anticholinergic such as diphenhydramine or benztropine can be used for treatment

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36
Q

Sarcoplasmic reticulum calcium goes into the

A

Cytoplasm

Calcium binds troponin c and displaced tropomyosin to allow actin-myosin binding

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37
Q

Lactate

A

Can not replenish ATP in muscle fiber

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38
Q

Binding of what molecule to myosin head allows for detachment from actin

A

ATP

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39
Q

Kappa opioid receptor provides relief from opioid induced

A

Itching

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40
Q

NMDA receptor antagonism

A

Methadone
Ketamine
Memantine

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41
Q

The substance seen most in the epidural space is

A

Fat

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42
Q

Dopamine

A

Increases Cardiac output and svr and doesn’t help with renal function

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43
Q

First line pressor for septic shock is

A

Norepinephrine

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44
Q

First line therapy In all forms of shock is

A

Intravascular volume replacement

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45
Q

Midazolam/diazepam method of bio transformation

A

Oxidation

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46
Q

Lorazepam/oxazepam method of bio transformation

A

Glucoronidation

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47
Q

Latex allergy

A

Tropical fruits
Banana, mango, kiwi, pineapple, mango

Also more with spina bifida, healthcare workers

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48
Q

How many category 1 credits are needed per cycle by MOCA

A

250

Fellowship gives 50

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49
Q

Quadraplegia occurs if lesion is above

A

T1 if not it is paraplegia

Above C4 they will need ventilator support

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50
Q

During forced exhalation

A

The apices of the lungs are emptied first

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51
Q

Unilateral intrascalene block causes

A

Unilateral phrenic nerve blockade

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52
Q

ERV with atelectasis

A

Is less. The ERV difference between expiring with and without atelectasis is closing volume. Closing volume plus RV = closing capacity

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53
Q

Closing capacity is the volume remaining in the lungs

A

When alveoli begin to close

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54
Q

FRC =

A

ERV plus RR

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55
Q

Most safe volatile anesthetic with renal failure

A

Desflurane

Sevoflurane produces compound A which could be determinate in kidneys

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56
Q

Methemoglobin

A

Ferrous form of heme is oxidized to the ferric form

Prilocaine and benzocaine can cause it

Treat with methylene blue 1-2 mg/kg

If patient has G6PD defieciency treat methemoglobinemja with ascorbic acid(vitamin c)

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57
Q

Dibucaine number of 20 is homozygous for pseudo holiness erase deficiency

40-70 is heterozygous

Phase 2 block with succ is after multiple doses and resembles neuromuscular block

A

Yes

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58
Q

Higher dibucaine =

A

More psuedocholinesterase

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59
Q

Pneumothorax

A

Sudden hypoxemia and high peak pressures

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60
Q

Post obstructive pulmonary edema

A

Young males after Extubation

Treat with positive pressure ventilation

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61
Q

Hyperesthesia allodynia autonomic changes with previous fracture and damage to nerve

A

CPRS type 2! Cprs occurs in the abscence of apparent nerve injury

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62
Q

Palpable taut band, pain when nodule pressed on band

A

Myofascial pain syndrome

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63
Q

Treatment cprs

A

Physical therapy

Memantine gabapentin

Sympathetic nerve blocks

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64
Q

Jaw thrust to relieve upper airway obstruction affects what muscle

A

Genioglossus

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65
Q

General anesthesia can do what to uterine musculature

Vagina and perineum is what dermatome

A

Relax it

S2-S4

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66
Q

Registries are good bc they can tell us about

A

Rare events

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67
Q

Closed claims project was made to help with

A

Patient safety

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68
Q

Bumenorphine is a _____ my agonist

A

Partial

Meaning it only get to a partial point if it’s full potential

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69
Q

In procurement give PRBCs to achieve hematocrit of

A

30%

Try to have procurement as soon as possible

Always perform echocardiogram on heart before doing a heart transplant

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70
Q

ACT

A

Used to evaluate intrinsic and final common pathway of coagulation system

Normal ACT is 107

ACT 400-480 in order to go on cardiopulmonary bypass

Hypothermia, thrombocytopenia, hemodilution prong the AcT

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71
Q

Common pathway of coagulation

A

Factors 10, 5, 2

7 extrinsic

Intrinsic 12 11 9 8

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72
Q

Liver produces all vitamin k dependent factors

A

2, 7 9 10 protein c and s

Factor 7 has shortest half life of vitamin k dependent factors

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73
Q

Second degree AV block type 2 requires a

A

Pacemaker
Also third degree

Refractory SVT

Symptomatic bradycardia with sinus node dysfunction

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74
Q

Hypocalcemia

A

Distal paresthesia
Tetany

Hypokalemia = U waves

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75
Q

Emphysema = hyperinflation

With pulmonary bleh on child want to avoid use of

A

Nitrous oxide

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76
Q

Child vs adult airway

A

Child has larger tounge cephalad larynx, slanted vocal cords floppy epiglottis

Infant larynx is at c3-c4 adult is at c5-c6

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77
Q

On TEE cephalad structures

A

Are on the right side

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78
Q

Hardest valve to visualize via TEE

A

Pulmonic valve - easier to see with TTE as it is more anterior

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79
Q

Precedex is mainly metabolized in the

A

Liver

Precedex causes inhibition of presynaptic norepinephrine release

Elimination half life is 2-3 hours

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80
Q

Pregnancy related mortality number one cause is

A

Cardiovascular disease

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81
Q

Transient neurologic syndrome is not affected by the

A

Baricity of the local anesthetic
Back pain with radiation to buttocks thighs and calves occurring 24 hours after spinal and gets better within 1-3 days

TNS is associated with liocaine spinal anesthesia, lithotomy position, same day surgery, and early ambulation after surgery

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82
Q

Sensory level of spinal anesthetic affected by

A

Baricity of solution
Dosage of local anesthetic
Patient position

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83
Q

Motor evoked potentials

A

Procedures involving anterior spinal cord blood supply and anterior spinal artery

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84
Q

Artery of adamkowitz

A

Thoracolumbar spinal cord is supplied by it

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85
Q

Brainstein evoked potentials start in the ____ and end in the _______

A

Cochlea/auditory cortex

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86
Q

The first step if someone hyperkalemic with ecg changes and mental status change

A

Stabilize myocardium with calcium and give insulin other measures, can’t do dialysis first even though it’s the definitive treatment

Furosemide takes 30 minutes to start working

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87
Q

Thermal neutral zone for new newborn

A

32-35 degrees C

The range of ambient temperature where metabolic rate is at a minimum

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88
Q

Supfhemoglobin and acidosis shift oxyhemoglobin curve to the

A

Right

Methemoglobin shifts it to the left

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89
Q

FRC is described as

A

Volume of air left in the lungs at the end of breathing, during normal tidal volume breathing

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90
Q

Below closing capacity

A

The lungs start to collapse

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91
Q

Musculochtaneous nerve is not within the

A

Axillary sheath

That’s why it often doesn’t get blocked

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92
Q

Peak and plateau pressures both increase from

A
C02 insufflation
Ascites
Obesity
pulmonary edema
Tension pneumothorax
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93
Q

Best opioid for chronic neuropathic pain

A

Methadone

Has nmda activity and serotonin reuptake

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94
Q

Hypophosphatemia

A

Dysfunction of skeletal muscle

Hypophosphatemia decreases 2 3 DPG which causes left shift of oxyhemoglobin curve

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95
Q

Replacing phosphate can lead to what electrolyte abnormality

A

Hypocalcemia

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96
Q

DLCO looks at

A

Diffusion capacity of lung

It is decreased by pulmonary embolism

Higher cardiac output or bigger lung volumes increases it as well such as with exercise will increase dlco and so will asthma

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97
Q

Vasopressin doesn’t directly affect

A

Potassium concentration

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98
Q

What ventricle is continually perfused during cardiac cycle

A

Right Ventricle

Resting coronary blood flow is 250 ml/min

Coronary perfusion pressure is difference between aortic and ventricular pressures

LV is primarily perfused during diastole

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99
Q

Alveolar dead space decreases during pregnancy due to increase in

A

Cardiac output

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100
Q

Spinal anesthesia leads to

A

Decreased hearing, hypothermia due to redistribution of heat from core to periphery,

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101
Q

PVR is highest at

A

Extremes of lung volumes. Lowest at normal tidal volumes

As alveoli close get resistance of blood vessels due to decreased flow

Pulmonary vascular resistance is lowest at FRC*****

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102
Q

Fluid flow pousielle law determined by

A

Viscosity, length of tubing, pressure exerted on tubing

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103
Q

Coffee with creamer and soy milk how long yo fast

A

6 hours

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104
Q

Phase 1 metabolism

A

Oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis

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105
Q

Elimination of drug is proportional to

A

Serum drug concentration

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106
Q

Constant fraction per unit time is lost in

A

First order kinetics

Most drugs are eliminated by zero order kinetics

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107
Q

Aging lung tissue has decreased elasticity and thus increased

A

Compliance

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108
Q

FRC and Closing Capacity _________ in the elderly

A

Increase

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109
Q

Bohr effect describes

A

Hemoglobins affinity for oxygen at varying conditions

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110
Q

Absolute indications one lung ventilation

A

Protective isolation

Uniteral lung lavage

Vats

Relative indications are pneumonectomy, love tiny, thoracic aneurysm

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111
Q

Hepatic artery supplies and Portal vein supplies how much of blood supply to liver

A

20/80

Synthetic function of liver is based off PT

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112
Q

Half life of albumin is

A

20 days

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113
Q

Which clotting factor has the shortest half life

A

7 - half life 3-6 hours

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114
Q

Midesophageal two chamber view shows

A

Anterior and inferior walls of LV

Anterior supplies by LAd and inferior by RCA

Can also see left atrial appendage

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115
Q

Hypercarbia causes

A

Rightward shirt of oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve

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116
Q

Long acting non selective alpha blocker

A

Phenoxybenzamine

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117
Q

Catecholamine resistant vasoplegic shock give

A

Methylene blue which is contraindicated relative to fluoxetine

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118
Q

At rest CMR02 is 3.5ml/100g/min

Brain gets how much cardiac output

A

10-15%

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119
Q

If CBF higher than CMR get

A

Luxury perfusion

If CBF is lower than CMR you get ischemia

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120
Q

Leukocyte reduction means

A

Depleting donor blood products of leukocytes

Leads to decreased Febrile reaction s, decreased CMV transmission, reduced inflammatory mediators

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121
Q

In patients with high anion gap metabolic acidosis the reason bicarbonate is low as due to

A

Binding the excessive H+ ions

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122
Q

Approximately 85% of bicarbonate is reabsorbed in the

A

Proximal tubule

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123
Q

4T to diagnose HIT

A

Thrombocytopenia
Timing of reduced platelets- 5 to 11 days
Presence of thrombosis
Exclusion of other causes of thrombocytopenia- other cause not apparent

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124
Q

Tetanus

A

Inhibiting neurotransmitter release from inhibitory neurons of the CNS
Treat with tetanus immunoglobulin

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125
Q

Botulism

A

Inhibition of acetylcholine release from the nerves at the neuromuscular junction

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126
Q

Inhibition of elongation factor 2

A

Diptheria

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127
Q

Maternal ACEI use is associated with

A

Oligohydraminos not polyhydraminos

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128
Q

Polyhydraminos treatment of choice is

A

Indomethacin

Usually due to fetal structural abnormalities like TEF or duodenal atresia

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129
Q

Method of treatment that could alone worsen thyrotoxicosis

Thyrotoxicosis due to over abundance of thyroid hormone

A

Radioactive iodine- don’t give alone bc can lead to more hyperthyroid the first few days after bc it releases thyroid hormone in the bloodstream

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130
Q

PTU and methimazole act to lower

A

T4

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131
Q

Can’t do radioactive idodine in patients who are

A

Pregnant or breastfeeding

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132
Q

Ace inhibitor causes

A

Decreased cardiomyocyte proliferation

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133
Q

Left ij and carotid artery overlap more on the

A

Left side

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134
Q

Most common complication with central line is

A

Infection

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135
Q

Best and first way to diagnose c dif

A

C dif toxin enzyme immunoassay

First cause is clindamycin and quinolone

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136
Q

Fenoldopam MOA

A

Dopamine 1 agonist

Causes sodium and free water excretion

Renal vasodilator

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137
Q

Non coronary cusp is on the

A

Right on mid esophageal aortic short axis view

RCC is posterior

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138
Q

Causes of needing postop mechanical ventilation in patients with myasthenia gravis

A
Duration of disease>6 years
Presence of pulmonary disease like copd
Vital capacity<2.9L
NIF<20cm H20
Daily pyridostigmine dose>750mg

Many patient with MG have thymoma
Patients with MG are resistant to succinylcholine
Sensitive to NMBlockers because less receptors available

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139
Q

Hypovemia leads to

A

Decreased venous return and cardiac output
Leads to decreased 02 delivery and can lead to postop afib

Occurs commonly after cardiothoracic surgery

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140
Q

Sotalol

A

Beta blocker

Potassium blocker-leads to less potassium

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141
Q

Apgar score

A
Heart rate 
Muscle tone
Skin color
Reflex irratibility- grimace and/or small cry is a 1
Breathing
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142
Q

Code dose epinephrine

A

0.01mg/kg
50-100 mcg iv I typical dose
Give epi 1 mcg/kg after anaphylaxis

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143
Q

If you suspect latex allergy with anaphylaxis

A

Mast cell tryptase should be drawn

Epi
Fluid bolus
Remove latex materials
Cessation of anesthetic agents

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144
Q

Amiodarone can not be

A

Dialyzed

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145
Q

What hemodynamic parameter does not change during pregnancy

A

Central venous pressure

SVR decreases in pregnancy

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146
Q

Cardiac output is highest right after

A

Delivery

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147
Q

Hemodialysis requires large fluid shifts and may not be tolerated in ppl with

A

Aortic stenosis, unstable angina and other cardiac conditions

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148
Q

Hypercalcemia symptoms

A

Polyuria, polydypsia, weakness, psychic disturbance, kidney stone, constipation, shortened qt, prolonged pr, heart block

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149
Q

Neostigmine side effect that isn’t reversed by anti-cholinergics

A

Paradoxical muscle weakness

Neostigmine causes decreased LES tone and can lead to BRONCHOSPASM

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150
Q

Seperation anxiety starts

A

After 6 to 8 months

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151
Q

Spirometers can’t tell u

A

Residual volume

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152
Q

Negative pressure pulmonary edema

A

Hypoxia, pink frothy fluid, and bilateral patchy infiltrates on cxr

Treat with Ppv or cpap

Leads to increased preload and afterload

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153
Q

Trendelenberg does not increase

A

Dead space

Can cause endobronchial intubation/total lung capacity can go down/trendelenberg leads to rise in shunt

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154
Q

ARDS

A

Non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema with hypoxemia

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155
Q

Increase PEEP to help patients with

A

ARDS

High peep lowers cardiac output due to decreased venous return to right heart

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156
Q

Sodium nitroprusside causes

A

Cerebral vasodilation

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157
Q

Spinal cord stimulator affects

A

Dorsal horn of spinal cord

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158
Q

After mi without coronary intervention should wait

A

2 months before elective surgery

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159
Q

Emergency procedure is those defined as needing to take place within

Urgent procedure is described as those needing to take place

A

6 hours

6 to 24 hours

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160
Q

After MI

A

14 days for balloon angioplasty
30 days after BMS
60 days after no intervention
180 days for DES

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161
Q

CAM ICU first look at

A

Inattention to diagnose delirium

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162
Q

Sinusitis is a complication of

A

NG tube feeding for prolonged times

Need CT Max face

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163
Q

Carbohydrates generate more ______ than lipids

A

C02

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164
Q

Headache with focal neurologic symptoms do

A

MRI

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165
Q

Storage of RBCs shifts oxygen dissociation curve to the

A

Left

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166
Q

Fever, nuchal rigidity, and altered mental status =

A

Meningitis

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167
Q

Epidural hematoma

A

Lower extremity neurologic signs, such as decreased motor function

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168
Q

Botulism

A

Blocks intracelluar fusion acetylcholine vesicles to the nerve terminal membrane

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169
Q

Botulism toxin works at the

A

Neuromuscular junction

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170
Q

Amniotic fluid embolus

A

Cardiovascular collapse and then consumptive coagulopathy

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171
Q

Pain in an area that lacks sensation

A

Anesthesia dolorosa

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172
Q

Hypalgisia

A

Decreased response to noxious stimuli

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173
Q

Mannitol May cause cerebral vasodilation

A

If given too quickly. Give over 10 to 15 minutes

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174
Q

Valproic acid doesn’t help In treatment of

A

CRPS type 2

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175
Q

First line for CRPS

A

Physical therapy- cornerstone
TCA
Gabapentin
Sympathetic block

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176
Q

Terbutaline can cause

A

Hyperglycemia

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177
Q

Preterm labor

A

Before 37 weeks

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178
Q

Terbutaline side effects

A

Tachycardia
Hypokalemia
Hyperglycemia

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179
Q

Indomethacin side effect

A

Renal and platelet dysfunction

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180
Q

Fetal fibronectin can be used to screen for

A

Preterm labor

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181
Q

Absolute indicators for TPN

A

Short bowel syndrome
Small bowel obstruction
Active GI bleed
Enteric fistula

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182
Q

Use lower glucose in tpn solution to prevent

A

Hypoglycemia

Leads to less insulin secretion

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183
Q

High dose oxytocin leads to

A

Hyponatremia and hypotension

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184
Q

High dose oxytocin leads to

A

Hyponatremia

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185
Q

Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis lowers

A

SID

Lactate levels stay normal

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186
Q

Elderly patients have increased

A

Resting sympathetic tone and a decrease in parasympathetic tone

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187
Q

TPN metabolic changes

A

Hypercarbia/hyperglycemia/hypophosphatemia

Hepatic steatosis is common with TPN

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188
Q

TPN can lead to

A

Hepatic steatosis- AST/ALT will increase

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189
Q

RQ of 1 =

RQ of 0.7 equals

A

Carbohydrate Oxidation

Lipid oxidation

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190
Q

If patient has been getting any form of heparin for over 5 days

A

Need to check platelet count prior to neuraxial placement or epidural catheter removal

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191
Q

If patient is getting 5000 subq heparin BID or TID

A

Need to wait 6 hours until neuraxial placement

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192
Q

Most sensitive for detecting venous air embolus

A

TEE than precordial Doppler

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193
Q

Nicardipine is extensively metabolized by

A

The Liver

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194
Q

Nicardipine side effect

A

Flushing
Headache
Peripheral Edema

Renal insufficiency has no affect on nicardipine

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195
Q

Diabetes inspidus with.m hypernatremia and seizures first line is

A

Free water slowly and then if needed desmopressin

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196
Q

Acute respiratory acidosis what helps first

A

Plasma protein buffers

Renal retention of bicarbonate happens later

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197
Q

Bladder distention during surgery leads to

A

HTN

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198
Q

Anterior wall of left ventricle =

A

LAD

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199
Q

Drowning

A

Breath holding then laryngospasmtgen involuntary efforts then desat inhalationof water then cardiac arrest

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200
Q

With no leak on icu patient with good respiratory parameters you want to extubate

A

Give methylprednisolone prior to Extubation

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201
Q

Sensory below vocal cords

A

Recurrent laryngeal nerve which is a branch of the vagus

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202
Q

Infants risk for apnea increase with

A

Anemia
General anesthesia
Regional anesthesia with IV sedation

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203
Q

Volatile anesthetics above 1 MAC

A

Increase CBF and decrease CMR02

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204
Q

CMR02 decreases with

A

Hypothermia and sleep

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205
Q

Nitrous oxide increases

A

CMR02 and CBF

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206
Q

IV anesthetics all

A

Lower CBF and CMR02

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207
Q

Adult poly cystic kidney disease

Before doing surgery need to get

A

CT angiogram of head to check for cerebral aneurysm

Specifically Berry/Saccular aneurysms

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208
Q

Steep trendelenberg

A

Less blood to legs, reduced cardiac output, more central blood volume

Steep trendelenberg increases risk of rupture
Increased ICP and IOP

Reduced FRC/vital capacity

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209
Q

Mar fans

A

Mutation in fibrillin1

Get echo and CT angiogram prior bc they have high risk for aneurysm and heart issues

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210
Q

Loop and thiazides cause a

A

Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis

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211
Q

Volatile anesthetics increase CBF only at

A

1.5-2.0 MAC

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212
Q

Pressure within alveolus =

A

2T/R

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213
Q

Surfactant concentration increases when

A

Alveoli become smaller

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214
Q

In pregnancy minute ventilation is

FRC below closing capacity leads to

A

Increased

Atelectasis

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215
Q

Urticaria angioedema dyspnea after blood transfusion usually due to

A

IgA deficiency

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216
Q

Continued use of opioids even after adverse consequences =

A

Addiction

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217
Q

Delay in latent phase of labor mainly due to

A

Unripe cervix

20 hours for first
14 if multigravida

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218
Q

Gradient between pac02 and Etc02 =

A

Dead Space

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219
Q

Stellate ganglion block complications

A
Vasovagal reaction
Ptosis 
Miosis 
Spinal injection 
Horners syndrome
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220
Q

Duration of action of neuromuscular blockers in elderly is

A

Less

Thus can give less

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221
Q

If patients intrinsic HR is above pacemaker HR and on asynchronous mode(DOO) can lead to

A

R on T phenomenon leading to V Tach or V fib

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222
Q

Can change to DOO

A

Periop to prevent electromagnetic interference

Need DDD for complete heart block

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223
Q

Don’t give propofol to patients suspected of having

A

Pancreatitis

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224
Q

PRISyndrome

A

Metabolic acidosis, rhabdomyolysis, CHF, bradycardia and affects mitochondrial and fatty acid metabolism

Related to high dose propofol infusions

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225
Q

In awake patient, first line medication to cause uterine relaxation is

A

Nitroglycerin-usually happens during cases of retained placenta

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226
Q

Glycine toxicity causes

A

Hyper ammonia and can cause transient blindness

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227
Q

Number one risk factor for placenta accreta

A

Former C section

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228
Q

If leak pressure of uncuffed endotracheal tube is high replace with

A

SMALLER endotracheal tube

Too much pressure can lead to tracheal ischemia

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229
Q

Optimal cuff pressure is

A

20 cm H20

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230
Q

Opioid addiction is more likely in

A

Non cancer pain

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231
Q

Highest risk for AKI

A

Aortic aneurysms

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232
Q

Total hepatic blood flow preservation is least with

A

Halothane

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233
Q

Moderate to severe cancer pain can use

A

Morphine

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234
Q

Morphine 6 glucoronide also provides

A

Analgesic effect

Morphine 3 glucoronide provides adverse affects

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235
Q

PONV

A

Female
Non smoker
Previous PONV
Use of postop opioids

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236
Q

Ambulatory surgery shouldn’t require

A

Overnight stay

Main reason for delay in discharge is pain or PONV

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237
Q

Type 1HRS

A

Happens fast. Usually due to some problem with spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

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238
Q

First fluid for severe dehydration in Peds patient

A

20 mg/kg of isotonic fluid like NS

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239
Q

Risk factors for placenta accreta

A
Multiparity
Smoking
Advanced maternal age
Placenta previa
Prior uterine surgery
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240
Q

Fibrinogen half life is

A

4 days

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241
Q

Only drugs that must be continued are

A

Beta blockers and statins

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242
Q

Nicardipine

A

Arteriolar vasodilator and decreases left ventricular afterload with minimal affect on preload

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243
Q

Fenoldopam

A

Vasodilator that causes reductions in preload and afterload

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244
Q

Nitroglycerin

A

Vasodilator via cGMP. Reduces preload and causes greater venous dilation

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245
Q

Neseritide

A

Vasodilation, naturesis, diuresis

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246
Q

A delta are the

A

Fastest conducting nociceptive fibers

Immediate transmission of painful stimuli and are myelinated

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247
Q

Small unmyelinated fibers

A

C fibers

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248
Q

A alpha fibers

A

Proprioceptive and motor

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249
Q

Reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine

A

Tramadol

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250
Q

Herpes zoster treat with

A

Antiepileptics
TCA
SNRIs
Tramadol

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251
Q

Phantom limb pain is a type of

A

Neuropathic pain

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252
Q

Hypoplastic left heart is associated with

A

ASDs

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253
Q

Hyoplastic left heart

A

Systemic blood flow is dependent on retrograde flow from PDA

Severe stenosis of mitral or aortic valves

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254
Q

The greatest metabolism of anesthetivs gases

A

Sevoflurane>isoflurane>desflurane

Desflurane is least metabolized

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255
Q

Celiac plexus block most common complication

A

Orthostatic hypotension and diarrhea

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256
Q

Infragluteal sciatic nerve block anatomical landmarks

A

Greater trochanter of the femur
Ischial tuberosity
Sciatic groove

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257
Q

Any form of carotid sinus manipulation such as carotid stent deployment stimulates carotid baroceptors and leads to

A

Bradycardia!

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258
Q

Chemoceptors

A

Ventilation in response to hypoxia

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259
Q

Intense vasoconstriction during

A

Autonomic hyperreflexia(causes skin pallor not flushing below level of lesion

You get vasodilaton above lesion

Nitroprusside nicardipine for treatment

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260
Q

Glucagon causes

A

Increased hepatic artery blood flow

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261
Q

Major disadvantage of paracervical nerve block is

A

Fetal bradycardia

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262
Q

Diabetes insipidus

A

Hyponatremia and hypovolemia

Give fluids to pending organ donor to maintain intravascular volume

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263
Q

Oral midazolam is better than parental prescence to prevent

A

Preop anxiety

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264
Q

Early onset adult ventilator pneumonia associated with

A

MSSA
Strep pneumoniae
H influenzae

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265
Q

Mannitol is not a good treatment for

A

Carcinogenic pulmonary edema

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266
Q

PEEP helps oxygenation by

A

Increasing FRC and decreasing airway resistance and increasing lung compliance

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267
Q

High Fa/Fi =

A

Lower solubility

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268
Q

Lower extremity CRPS is treated with

A

Serial lumbar plexus sympathetic blocks

Can mess up ejaculation

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269
Q

Memantine is an

A

NMDA antagonist which can be used for CRPS

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270
Q

Elevated ICP is an absolute contraindication to

A

Neuraxial anesthesia

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271
Q

Permanent pacemaker

A

Should be checked prior to surgery

No need to convert a pacemaker to asynchronous mode if not pacemaker dependent

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272
Q

Alfentanyl acts faster than fentanyl because of its low

A

PkA

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273
Q

Going too deep on intrascalene block leads to

A

Intrathecal placement

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274
Q

Most specific sign of fat embolus is

A

Petechial rash on body

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275
Q

Fenoldopam causes a decrease in

A

Arterial blood pressure

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276
Q

Triiodothyronine is higher with

A

Graves’ disease

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277
Q

Thyrotoxic heart failure

A

Decreased SVR and increased PVR

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278
Q

Precedex effect

A

Hypotension
Bradycardia
Sedation
Analgesia

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279
Q

What step starts coagulation cascade

A

Tissue factor converts factor 7 to factor 7a

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280
Q

Intraoperative anaphylaxis most likely cause

A

NMBDs

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281
Q

Carotid bodies respond to

A

PA02

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282
Q

Central chemoceptors in medulla respond to

A

pH

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283
Q

Which nerve travels posterior to lateral malleolus

A

Sural

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284
Q

What innervates toes

A

Deep perineal
Sural
Superficial peroneal

Saphenous does medial ankle and median foot but not the toes

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285
Q

Femoral nerve terminates to form the

A

Saphenous nerve

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286
Q

Paravertebral space is continuous with

A

Epidural and intercostal space

Not intrapleural

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287
Q

Thyroid storm start treatment with

A

IV propranolol

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288
Q

GA decreases FRC by

A

5-10%

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289
Q

What drugs are metabolized the fastest

A

High clearance

Low volume of distribution

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290
Q

Vasopressin doesn’t affect pulmonary hypertension bc

A

It has no alpha affect

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291
Q

Unfractionated heparin best monitored by

Unfractionated heparin binds

LMWH binds factor

A

PTT

AT3

10a

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292
Q

Reversal of LMWH is not as predictable and good as it is with

A

Unfractionated heparin

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293
Q

HIT shows up at

A

5-10 days

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294
Q

HIT2 is mediated by

A

IgG antibodies binding to heparin pf 4 complex on surface of platelets

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295
Q

Argatroban is metabolized by the liver

Drug affect of direct thrombin inhibitors is via

A

PTT or ACT

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296
Q

Dabigatran

A

Renally excreted
Stop 24 hr before minor surgery
Stop 48 hours before major surgery

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297
Q

Trans ex’s mic acid

A

Inhibits binding site of plasminogen so cant break down fibrin so cant anti colt

TXA is renally excreted

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298
Q

PCC

A

Has a faster correction than FFP

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299
Q

Fondaparinux acts on

A

Factor 10a

Can be used for prophylaxis and treatment of DVT

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300
Q

Aspirin is a non competitive inhibitor of

A

COX1 and COX2

COX2 is responsible for pain and inflammation

Can only fix its affects with platelet transfusion

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301
Q

If at high risk for cardiac events continue

A

Aspirin perioperatively

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302
Q

Plavix

A

Inhibition of GP 2b/3a

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303
Q

Integrillin is an inhibitor of

A

G2b/3a

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304
Q

Intraoperative salvage

A

Withdraw blood from field with suction and goes through machine to anti-coagulate and then will centrifuge and wash before giving red cells back to patient

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305
Q

Problem with autologous blood transfusion

A

Dilutional coagulopathy

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306
Q

Use periop blood salvage if expected blood loss is

A

> 1000 mL

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307
Q

EPOs levels to start release are if hematocrit falls below

A

30%

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308
Q

Neuraxial anesthesia platelet threshold

A

> 50000

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309
Q

PRBC store at

A

1-6 degrees

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310
Q

Blood donors in the US need a minimum hemoglobin of

A

12.5

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311
Q

FFP contains all the factors for

A

Hemostasis

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312
Q

Cryopreciptate has more ________ than fibrinogen

A

Fibrinogen

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313
Q

Delayed hemolytic reactions occur at day

A

3-10

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314
Q

Acute hemolytic reaction need to do a

A

Direct Coombs test

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315
Q

Best way to avoid IgA transfusion reaction is to use

A

Washed cells

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316
Q

Prevent graft vs host disease by doing what to blood

A

Irradiate

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317
Q

Anaphylactoid reactions are commonly seen in

A

IgA deficient patients

Hypotension
Bronchospasm
Hemodynamic instability

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318
Q

Citrate chelates

A

Calcium

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319
Q

Most likely blood component to get passed is

A

CMV and thenHepatitis B

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320
Q

Platelet transfusion has

A

Highest rate of infection

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321
Q

Septic shock

A

Need vasopressor to maintain MAP>65

Lactate>2

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322
Q

Temporary reversal of magnesium toxicity with hypotension is to give

A

Calcium gluconate

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323
Q

Magnesium affects

A

Normal is 1.4-2.1

Acts at NMDA receptor so has analgesic properties

Acts at nicotinic Ach receptor and thus prolongs neuromuscular blockade

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324
Q

Methanol affects

A

Anion gap metabolic acidosis

Hemodialysis
Iv ethanol
Sodium bicarbonate
for treatment

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325
Q

After HBV exposure give

A

Hep B immunoglobulin and offer Hep B vaccine

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326
Q

Lusitropy is

A

Myocardial relaxation

Inodilator therapy increases lusitropy and inotropy

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327
Q

Infant breathing work is much higher than adults bc their lungs are

A

More compliant. Thus it isn’t supported by the ribs or surrounding structures and the airway closes easily

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328
Q

Pousielle law

A

8nl/pi x r to the fourth

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329
Q

What is not affected by aging

A

Ejection fraction

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330
Q

Efferent branch of laryngospasm

A

Recurrent laryngeal nerve

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331
Q

Adduction of vocal cords

A

Lateral cricoarytenoid

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332
Q

Afferent Limb of laryngospasm

A

Superior laryngeal nerve

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333
Q

Pulmonary hypertension worsened by

A

Acidosis
Hypoxia
Hypercarbia

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334
Q

First step in total spinal in infant is

A

Intubation due to apnea

First sign is usually dyspnea for high spinal

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335
Q

T1-T4are cardiac accelerator fibers if blocked lead to

A

Bradycardia

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336
Q

Tumuscent lidocaine Max dosage

A

55 mg/kg

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337
Q

Conns syndrome

A

Too much aldosterone

Hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis

Plasma renin is reduced secondary to feedback by aldosterone

Treat with spirnolactone and potassium supplementation

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338
Q

Hypokalemic periodic paralysis due to

A

Calcium channel defect

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339
Q

One benefit of MLT tube over standard tube is

A

Increased length

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340
Q

MLT tube is not safe for use with

A

Lasers

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341
Q

Airway obstruction 24 hours post thyroidectomy can be due to

A

Hypocalcemia

Hematoma will show up within first 24 hours of thyroidectomy!

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342
Q

Acute mountain sickness prophylaxis is with

A

Acetazolamide

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343
Q

High altitude decreases partial pressures of both

Activates

A

P02 and PC02

Peripheral chemoceptors to stimulate increased respiration

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344
Q

Acute epiglottis is

A

Extrathoracic obstruction

Just do inhalational induction with Sevoflurane. No nitrous

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345
Q

Carotid bodies respond to

A

Arterial partial pressure of oxygen

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346
Q

Causes of post cardiac renal failure

A

Preop creatinine grater than 1.2
Combined valve and bypass procedure
Preop intraaortic balloon pump
Emergency procedures

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347
Q

Full E cylinder of oxygen

A

2200 psig 660L

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348
Q

Nitrous oxide

A

1590 L

745 psig

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349
Q

With nitrous oxide the psig stays at 750 until

A

Less than 400L

25% is left

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350
Q

Only inhalational agent that doesn’t cause uterine relaxation is

A

Nitrous oxide

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351
Q

Exocytosis of AcH does not occur in patients with

A

Botulism

Treatment is equine serum antitoxin

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352
Q

Hypercarbia can lead to

A

Arrhythmia like atrial fibrillation post op

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353
Q

Systolic function doesn’t change in normal

A

Healthy heart

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354
Q

Carob Prost better known as prostaglandin F 2 alpha can’t be used on patients with

A

Asthma

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355
Q

MAC vs moderate sedation

A

MAC requires a qualified anesthesia provider able to convert to GA

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356
Q

Elevated hemidiaphragm on ipisateral side

A

Ruptured diaphragm

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357
Q

If ruptured diaphragm not fixed it leads to

A

Bowel ischemia as all the abdominal organs shift up

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358
Q

Loos ECG

A

Leads to wandering baselines

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359
Q

Left leg and right arm

A

Lead 2

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360
Q

Alternating current on ECG

A

Will make it go up and down multiple times a second

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361
Q

Exanatide

A

GLP1 analogue

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362
Q

After giving iodine therapy for thyroid elevation can get first

A

More hyperthyroid symptoms bc the mediators go out into bloodstream

Treat first with ptu or methimazole

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363
Q

Octreotide MOA

A

Inhibit release of GH and IGF-1

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364
Q

Bromocriptine

A

Dopamine agonist

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365
Q

Neurohypophysis = posterior pituitary

A

Release ADH and oxytocin

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366
Q

Treatment of SIADH may include

A

Demeocycline

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367
Q

SIADH type of hyponatremia

A

Euvolemic

For chronic hyponatremia from SIADH treatment of choice is fluid restriction

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368
Q

Microadenomas

A

Tend to present as hypersecretion syndromes such as galactorrhea from prolactin excess, Cushing disease from ACTH excess

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369
Q

Prolactinoma

A

Amenorrhea, impotence

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370
Q

Sub clinical hypothyroidism

A

High TSH and normal free T4

Should still treat if TSH too high

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371
Q

Secondary hypothyroidism

A

Both TSH and T4 are low

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372
Q

Thyroid storm mortality is greater than

A

20%

Criteria for thyroid storm

Hyperthermia
Tachycardia
Cerebral dysfunction

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373
Q

What is most likely to be seen in hypothyroidism patient under GA

A

Bradycardia

Thyroid doesn’t affect neuromuscular blockade

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374
Q

Post thyroid hypocalcemia shows up after

A

24-48 hours

Can manifest as stridor or laryngospasm

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375
Q

Graves’ disease

A

Radioactive iodine studies show diffusely increased uptake,

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376
Q

PTH

A

Activates osteoclasts to promote bone resorption
PTH increases renal calcium reabsorption
PTH increases 1alpha hydroxylase which makes vitamin D active
PTH increases excretion of phosphate, bicarbonate, potassium, sodium

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377
Q

Calcitonin MOA

A

Excreted by parafollicular cells

Inhibits osteoclast activity to lower calcium levels

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378
Q

Hypercalcemia

A

NS is first choice

Use calcitonin if tachyphylaxis

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379
Q

Plasma calcium levels are higher in states of

A

Hypoalbuminemia

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380
Q

Phenoxybenzomaine half life

Main side effect

A

12 hr

Orthostatic hypotension

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381
Q

Which corticosteroid lacks mineralocorticoid activity

A

Dexamethasone

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382
Q

Give stress dose steroids to

A

Patients at risk for HPA axis suppression bc of chronic steroid administration
Should be done if getting greater than 20mg of prednisone for more then 3 weeks

Patients undergoing more than superficial procedures

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383
Q

Glucocorticoids increase

A

Protein catabolism
Explaining muscle wearing seen during Cushings
Decrease eosinophils and basophils

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384
Q

Nonketotic hyperosmolar coma

A

Type 2 diabetics
Profound hyperglycemia
Dehydration
Symptoms of hyperosmolarity

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385
Q

Long term diabetes type 1 is an indicator of

A

Difficult airway

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386
Q

Surgery affects on sympathetic tone and glucose

A

Leads to more sympathetic tone and hyperglycemia via glucagon, ACTH and GH

Alpha receptors inhibit insulin release
Beta receptors stimulate insulin release and thus lower glucose

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387
Q

Metformin inhibits

A

Hepatic gluconeogenesis andglycogenolysis

Metfirmin can be taken the night before surgery but not on the day of surgery

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388
Q

What is shown to decrease MI risk in diabetics

A

Aspirin

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389
Q

Calcium activates

A

Pyruvate dehydrogenase and accelerates the Krebs cycle

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390
Q

Final acceptor of electrons in electron transport chain

A

Oxygen

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391
Q

Gluconeogenesis mainly occurs in the

A

Liver

To a lesser extent the kidneys and small intestine

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392
Q

Lipids can not be absorbed

CCK

A

Directly

Slows gastric emptying

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393
Q

Pancreatic exocrine insufficiency are at risk for

A

Fat soluble vitamin deficiencies such as A, D, E, or K

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394
Q

Glucagon activates

A

Beta oxidation of fatty acids

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395
Q

In times of starvation without glucose

A

Most tissues in human body can use fatty acids for energy except for the brain which uses ketone bodies

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396
Q

Liver converts cholesterol into

A

Bile salts

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397
Q

Ezetimibe

A

Inhibits intestinal absorption of TAGs

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398
Q

Gemfibrozil

A

Stimulate beta oxidation of fatty acids in peroxisomes and mitochondria

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399
Q

cGMP activates

A

cGMP protein kinase G to produce vascular relaxation

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400
Q

PDE5 inhibitors act by

A

Increasing levels of cGMP leading to vasodilation which is therapeutic to patients with pulmonary hypertension

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401
Q

Activating beta 1 receptor

A

Activates Adenylate Cyclase converting ATP to cAMP

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402
Q

As you get older closing capacity

A

increases thus collapse of small airways occurs even after normal tidal volume exhalation

Aging increases RV, CC, FRC and loss of lung elasticity

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403
Q

Proper positioning of thoracic aortic aneurysm stent

When to take care of elective aneurysm

A

hypotension helps, transient asystole,

If greater increase than 1 cm in one day
Or greater than 5.5 cm

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404
Q

Be careful using adenosine in asthma patients bc it can cause

A

Bronchoconstriction

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405
Q

Cricothyroid muscle innervated by

A

External laryngeal of superior laryngeal nerve

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406
Q

Succinylcholine is dosed off

A

Total body weight

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407
Q

Fentanyl
Remifentanyl
Propofol dose by

A

Lean body weight

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408
Q

Before doing elective surgery on infant, you must have

A

6 month period without apnea or bradycardia

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409
Q

Need endocarditis prophylaxis for these procedures

A

Dental procedures messing with gingival tissue
Respiratory tract procedures such as a bronchoscopy
Patients with infected skin

Don’t need prophylaxis for GI or GU procedures

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410
Q

Buprenorphine

A

U receptor partial agonist

Most effective at helping with opioid withdrawal

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411
Q

Clonidine is good for symptomatic treatment with

A

Opiate withdrawal

Does not directly agonize u receptors

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412
Q

Sunglottic stenosis

A

Heliox can help with gas delivery to lungs

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413
Q

Manual in line stabilization of cervical spine

A

Operator 1 stabilizes head and neck in neutral position

Operator 2 stabilizes the shoulders

No sniffing position in suspected spinal injury as this can hurt the neck

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414
Q

Hypoalbumin will increase free fraction of

A

Benzodiazepines

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415
Q

During burns get a proliferation of acetylcholine receptors and

A

Neuromuscular blockade resistance

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416
Q

Aspirin irreversibly blocks platelet function by blocking

A

Thromboxane A2

Only get about 10% of platelets back each day

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417
Q

Apixaban =

A

Elaquis and blocks factor 10a levels

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418
Q

JG apparatus in glomeruli senses hypotension

A

And increases angiotensin 2 levels in roughly 20 minutes

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419
Q

Plasma concentrations increase most

A

8-10 hours after infusion of tumescent lidocaine

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420
Q

Tumescent lidocaine complications if using

A

More than 5L
Doing other procedures at same time
Giving sedation as well - usually doesn’t require sedation to be given

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421
Q

Cerebral salt wasting

A

Hyponatremia and hypovolemia due to low intravascular volume

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422
Q

Conns syndrome definitive treatment

A

Excision of adrenal adenoma tumor

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423
Q

Spirnolactone

A

Competitive aldosterone receptor antagonist and potassium sparing diuretic

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424
Q

Midodrine

A

Alpha 1 receptor agonist

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425
Q

Treat acromegaly with

A

Octreotide

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426
Q

Permanent nerve injury usually due to

A

Improper positioning

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427
Q

Critical temperature

A

Temperature above which a gas can’t be converted to liquid with increasing pressure alone

At standard temp and pressure nitrous oxide is a gas

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428
Q

Laryngeal papillomatosis can do

A

jet ventilation

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429
Q

Patients with long QT and history of cardiac arrest require

A

AICD

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430
Q

Mainstay of treatment with long QT

A

Beta blockers and possible pacing

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431
Q

Alpha stat

A

Add c02 to oxygenation and leads to embolus phenomenon

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432
Q

Volatile anesthetics increase duration of NMBDs

A

Volatile anesthetics decrease sensitivity of the postjunctional skeletal muscle cell membrane to depolarization

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433
Q

ARDS

A

Tidal volume of 6 ml/kg

Plateau pressure<30 cm H20

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434
Q

Coronary artery disease and cerebrovascular disease are need for

A

Preop ECG

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435
Q

Loose filler cap most common source of

A

Vaporizer leak

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436
Q

Will have overdose of volatile anesthetic if sevoflurame vaporizer is filled with

A

Isoflurane due to its higher vapor pressure and higher potency

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437
Q

If you tip a vaporizer

A

Clinically don’t use for 20 to 30 minutes and set fresh gas flow high rate with high volatile concentration to fix

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438
Q

Children with stribasmis 4 times more likely to get what when given succinylcholine

A

Massager muscle rigidity

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439
Q

Strabismus surgery commonly leads to

A

Bradycardia and PONV in pediatric population

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440
Q

Reason succinylcholine isn’t given to Peds patients

A

Hyperkalemic response with undiagnosed myopathies

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441
Q

If you fail initial SBT

A

Good strategy is to continue SBTs with pressure support

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442
Q

Down syndrome

A

Atlantoaxial insyability
Hypothyroidism
Macroglossia
OSA

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443
Q

Full term baby in first minute if cyanotic and HR<100

A

Positive pressure ventilation

Do PPV before chest compressions

3 compressions to 1 ventilation

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444
Q

FHR normal values

A

110-160

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445
Q

Acceleration is defined as

A

Higher than 15 bpm for at least 15 seconds

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446
Q

Decrease in RBF leads to decrease in GFR which causes decrease in chloride concentration and JGA is activated

A

Causes efferent arteriole constriction

JGA senses the decrease in chloride concentration

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447
Q

Decrease in GFR leads to

A

Afferent after dilation and efferent arteriole constriction

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448
Q

Epinephrine added to local anesthetic does not affect the

A

Onset time

Local anesthetics are weak bases

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449
Q

Local anesthetic

A

Lipid soluble is faster
Higher concentration is faster
Lower pKa and higher environment pH is faster

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450
Q

Clevidipine

A

Short acting calcium channel blocker leading to arteriolar vasodilation

Broken down by plasma esterases

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451
Q

Ester local anesthetics, succinylcholine, mivacurium breakdown is by

A

Psuedocholinesterase

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452
Q

Renal medulla

A

Has a high O2 extraction ratio

Compared to renal cortex which does not

Kidney gets 20% of cardiac output

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453
Q

Need to have good blood flow

A

To renal medulla

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454
Q

Diarrhea

A

Metabolic acidosis

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455
Q

CHF

A

Cold extremities
Poor urine output
Delirium

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456
Q

Contraindications to epidural

A

Increased ICP
Patient refusal
Uncorrected hypovolemia

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457
Q

Etomidate inhibits

A

11 beta hydroxylase and 17 alpha hydroxylase in a reversal dose dependent fashion

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458
Q

Secondary adrenal insuffiency

A

ACTH is down

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459
Q

Adults without adrenal insufficiency secrete

A

20 mg cortisol and 0.1mg aldosterone daily

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460
Q

Acute adrenal insufficiency management

Hydrocortisone 25mg should be given as stress dose in surgery

A

Hydrocortisone 100mg bolus IV and then q6

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461
Q

Weakness with adduction of the thumb

A

Ulnar nerve

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462
Q

Reduce risk of ulnar neuropathy by

A

Keeping hands supinated

Proper padding of all pressure points

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463
Q

During mass causality situation

A

Need a system to implement to identify patient injuries

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464
Q

Lethal triad

A

Coagulopathy acidosis hypothermia

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465
Q

Can have tracheal deviation with

A

Tension pneumo
Mediastinal Mass- see widened mediastinum

Difficult to lay supine

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466
Q

If data are not normally distributed best measure of central tendency is the

A

Median

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467
Q

Mean is best to use for central tendency if data is

A

Normally distributed

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468
Q

Peripheral TPN is most associated with

A

Infection and thrombophlebitis

Give TPN for

Short bowel
Bowel obstruction
Active GI bleeding

Give TPN through central catheter if possible

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469
Q

Meperidine

A

Can reduce oxygen demand in hypothermic patients
Goal temp is 32-36 for 12-24 hours and then you do rewarming

Most patients die during the rewarming phase

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470
Q

Shorter QT and widening of QRS seen with

A

Hyperkalemia

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471
Q

Lithium toxicity

A

Hypermagnesium

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472
Q

Potassium sparing

A

Spirnolactone triamterene amiloride

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473
Q

Opioids are best dosed by

A

Lean body weight

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474
Q

OSA is a risk factor for

A

Postop hypoxemia

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475
Q

Chronic hypoxemia can cause

A

Polycythemia and this increase in total blood volume

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476
Q

Hypercarbia

A

Decreases the alveolar partial pressure of oxygen

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477
Q

Cystic fibrosis

A

Autosomal recessive

Chronic pulmonary infections
Hepatobiliary tract disease
Diabetes
Pancreatic insuffiency

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478
Q

When defibrillating use electrode pads size

A

8-12 cm

You can apply electrode gel and biphasic defibrillator is preferred

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479
Q

After placing endobronchial left sided double lumen tube

When you inflate both tracheal and bronchial cuffs

A

You will only get breath sounds on the right hand side

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480
Q

Bronchial cuff is herniated at carina

A

If you have resistance ventilating the side your trying to ventilate

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481
Q

Tobacco use causes carbon monoxide levels to increase thus

A

Shift of oxyhemoglobin curve to the left

Cyanide increases so less mitochondrial oxidation and you get acidosis

Causes vasoconstriction

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482
Q

Carbon monoxide from c02 absorbent is increased with

A

Low fresh gas flow
Dessicated absorbent
Increased temperature

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483
Q

What absorbent are the best

A

Calcium hydroxide
Soda lime

Worse is barium hydroxide

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484
Q

Hypocalcemia leads to

A

Prolonged QT

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485
Q

Critical temp above room temp

A

Why nitrous oxide is both liquid and gas at room temp

Critical temp is temp where a gas can’t be turned into liquid no matter how much pressure is applied

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486
Q

Epidural 2 chloroprocaine has an onset of action of

A

6-12 minutes as a result of the high concentration used

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487
Q

Chloroprocaine duration of action

A

45-60 minutes plain

60-90 minutes when used with epi

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488
Q

MG, Lambert Eaton and chronic renal failure

A

Do not upregulate the number of AcH receptors

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489
Q

Scopolamine somnolence can be counteracted with

A

Physostigmine

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490
Q

Stimulation of central nicotinic Ach receptors can lead to

A

Seizures

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491
Q

For main stem obstruction in child

A

Prefer inhalational induction because PPV can potentially move the object down further

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492
Q

Increased intensity of motor block seen when adding epi to

A

Epidural local anesthetic

Epi also increases onset time and duration by vasoconstricting the blood vessels in the epidural space that take up the local anesthetic

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493
Q

Morphine given through epidural space causes pruritis best treatment is with

A

Nalbuphine

Give in small dose of 3 mg

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494
Q

Ketamine is best induction medication for

A

Cardiac tamponade

Want quick heart rate, maximize preload, and forward(avoid cardiac depressants)

Ketamine also helps maintain spontaneous ventilation

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495
Q

Pulses paradoxus

A

During inspiration, drop in systolic of 10 or more

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496
Q

Botulism

A

Prevent vesicular release of Ach at the neuromuscular junction

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497
Q

C Tetani

A

Travels through retrograde transport up the motor neurin

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498
Q

Upward shift in frank starling curve due to an increase in

A

Contractility

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499
Q

Ratio of potency intrathecal, epidural, iv fentanyl

A

0.01, 0.1, 1

Thus intrathecal is the most potent

Same ratios with morphine

Iv morphine is more potent than oral morphine by a ratio of 3:1

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500
Q

Three anesthesia time units are equal to

A

45 minutes

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501
Q

Pudendal nerve

A

S2-S4

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502
Q

Single shot spinal lasts 1 to 2 hours so great to give right when close to

A

Delivery

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503
Q

SA node

A

Increase sympathetic activation increases the slope of phase 4 of the action potential

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504
Q

Factors that increase the SA node firing rate include

A

Sympathetic stimulation, muscarinic receptor antagonism, beta receptor agonism, catecholamines, hypokalemia

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505
Q

Multifocal atrial tachycardia is associated with

A

Severe lung disease
COPD exacerbation is most common cause

Sinus tachycardia with 3 different morphologies of the P waves

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506
Q

In settings of poor oxygen extraction like methemoglobinemia

A

Mixed venous will be normal or elevated

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507
Q

Normal Sv02 is

A

75%

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508
Q

Higher mixed venous means you

A

Extract less oxygen

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509
Q

Klippfel feil syndrome associated with

A

Fusion of cervical spine

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510
Q

Larger extra cellular volume seen in

A

Infants than adults

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511
Q

How much of lean body mass is total body water

A

55-60%

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512
Q

TBW =

A

Extracellular plus intracellular volume

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513
Q

Amiodarone class 3 antiarrhythmic that blocks

A

Potassium channels

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514
Q

Myasthenic syndrome is also known as

A

Lambert-Eaton syndrome

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515
Q

Landmark for lateral femoral cutaneous nerve block

A

ASIS

Femoral nerve L2-L4

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516
Q

Best sites to measure core temperature

A

Pulmonary artery
Distal esophagus
Nasopharynx
Tympanic membrane

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517
Q

Goal level of neuraxial block for C Section is

A

T4-S4 is what should be covered

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518
Q

Acetazolamide can lead to

A

Metabolic acidosis

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519
Q

Psuedotumor cerebri high ICP treat with

A

LP

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520
Q

For precurarization

A

Use 10% of the ED95

Stops muscle fasiculations which can increase intraabdominal pressure leading to aspiration

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521
Q

ED95

A

Median effective dose in 95% of population

Dose that causes 95% twitch suppression in 50% of population.

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522
Q

Metochlopromide affect on LES tone

A

Increases LES tone

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523
Q

Most anesthetics such as propofol, anticholinergics and fentanyl affect on LES tone

A

Decrease

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524
Q

CPAP

A

Keeps airways and alveoli option
Decreases depletion of surfactant
Increases FRC
Increases minute ventilation

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525
Q

What is an absolute contraindication to shock wave lithotripsy

A

Pregnancy

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526
Q

Hypoxia and hypercarbia are found during

A

Pulmonary embolus

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527
Q

Which patients won’t tolerate awake crani

A

Children, psych patients, claustrophobic

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528
Q

Corneal reflex afferent and motor reflex

A

Trigeminal, facial

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529
Q

Airway exchange catheters better than bougie

A

Can do jetventilation

Monitor ETC02

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530
Q

Prefer for elective surgery to commence hemoglobinA1C should be under

A

8%

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531
Q

Give 2/3 insulin the night before

A

And 1/2 the day of

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532
Q

Most evaporative heat loss is via

A

Tissue exposure from the surgical incision

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533
Q

What is responsible for most heat loss in OR

A

Radiation

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534
Q

Pre warm heat blanket to blunt

A

Affect of redistribution on temperature

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535
Q

Citrate can be metabolized to

A

Sodium bicarbonate leading to metabolic alkalosis

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536
Q

What coagulation factors decrease in pregnancy

A

13, 9, antithrombin 3 and tPA

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537
Q

Dose of oral midazolam for Peds patients

A

0.5 mg/kg

Onset of action is 15-30 minutes

IV form is 0.05-0.1 mg/kg

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538
Q

Hyperparathyroidism

A

Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis

With hyperchloremia

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539
Q

Most the claims in the ASA closed claims database are

A

Non respiratory events

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540
Q

If mother comes in for elective C Section and she and baby are fine. You induce with prop and succ and have three difficult intubation attempts and mom and baby are good and you can bag mask what should you do?

A

Since it is elective you should wake the mother up. Baby is also ok so more reason to do so

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541
Q

Don’t try to intubate any more after how many unsuccessful attempts

A

3

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542
Q

cDH

A

More common on left side

Do not bag mask! Leads to more insufflation and possible contralatral pneumothorax

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543
Q

ASA 4 is a severe illness

Unstable angina falls in this

A

Which is a constant threat to life

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544
Q

ASA looks at

A

Not to predict operative risk

Used to look at patients commorbisitues and overall physical state

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545
Q

ASA 2

A

Smoker
Pregnant
Controlled diabetes

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546
Q

ASA 3

A

Morbid obesity

Regular dialysis

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547
Q

ASA 5

A

Won’t survive without the operation

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548
Q

Angiotensin 2 will

A

Construct efferent arteriole and increase GFR

Also increases intravascular volume through sodium

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549
Q

MAC of nitrous oxide =

A

105%

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550
Q

Side effect of terbutaline is

A

Hypokalemia
Hyperglycemia
Hypotension
Pulmonary edema

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551
Q

Platelets can lead to

A

RH sensitization

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552
Q

Infants usually require larger doses of succinylcholine due to their

A

Higher volumes of distribution

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553
Q

In Peds succinylcholine first dose can cause

A

Sinus arrest

Bradycardia

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554
Q

Premature closure of cranial sutures is seen In

A

Crouzon syndrome

Due to mutation in fibroblast growth factor

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555
Q

Donepezil

A

Increases Ach levels thus making you more resistant to NMDBs and sensitive to succinylcholine

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556
Q

MH vs thyroid storm

A

Muscle rigidity
Higher rate of temp rise
Higher ETC02 rise

Hyperkalemia
Elevated CK
Lactic Acidosis

All these are seen mainly in MH

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557
Q

Drug you shouldn’t give to children after tonsillectomy

A

Codeine

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558
Q

Acetaminophen dose if under 12

75 mg/kg

A

Based on ideal body weight

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559
Q

Above 10L 02 pt is breathing

A

Cold dry oxygen leading to discomfort for the patient

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560
Q

High flow NC

A

Contributes PEEP
Can get rid of co2
Provides oxygen

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561
Q

NO

A

Dilates pulmonary vasculature when administered by inhalation

Half life of 15-30 sec

Too much NO leads to NO2 which can lead to pulmonary edema/alveolar hemorrhage

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562
Q

Cannon A waves are seen with

A

Complete heart block

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563
Q

Wedge pressure reflects

A

Left atrial pressure

Best time to look at it is at end of diastole when blood goes from atrium to ventricles

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564
Q

CVP c wave

A

Isovolumetric contraction of right ventricle

A wave is first rise building up blood in ventricle
C wave is small rise
Then descent during systole

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565
Q

X descent

A

Blood into atria

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566
Q

Papillary muscle rupture leads to

A

Mitral regurgitation and large v waves

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567
Q

MAP

A

The cuff pressure where the highest pulse amplitude is detected

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568
Q

Square wave test

A

Pull flush valve

If 1 or 2 oscillations your good

3 or more is dampened

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569
Q

In children slower heat loss from core to periphery

A

Due to greater proportion of body mass in core

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570
Q

Thermogenesis in infant occurs by metabolism of

A

Brown fat

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571
Q

Hypothermia

A

Reduces the MAC of an agent and can lead to anesthetic overdose

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572
Q

Hypothermia leads to

A

Norepinephrine release

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573
Q

Shivering increases

A

Oxygen consumption

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574
Q

Don’t give succ or volatile anesthetic to patient with pseudohypertrophic muscular dystrophy

A

Risk of rhabdomyolysis and hyperkalemia

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575
Q

Mixed venous

A

Percentage of oxygen bound to hgb in blood returning to right side of heart

It’s what’s left after body extracts what it needs

Increased Fi02 or hgb will increase mixed venous

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576
Q

Hypothermia affect on mixed venous

A

Increases even with increased shivering

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577
Q

Neostigmine crosses placenta leading to bradycardia

A

Use atropine to reverse

Glycopyrolate does not cross placenta

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578
Q

Muscarinic receptors are found at the

A

SA node

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579
Q

Neostigmine dose for reversal is

A

0.07 mg/kg

Giving too much leads to prolonged weakness. Leads to presynaptic nicotinic receptor desensitization

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580
Q

Cardiogenic shock

A

Systolic<90
Pcwp>18
Cardiac index<2.2

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581
Q

Spinal cord injury is a type of

A

Distributive shock

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582
Q

Desflurane can augment neuromuscular blockade by as much as

A

60%

Relax skeletal muscle and act indirectly at NMJ

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583
Q

Sodium bicarbonate deficit to treat pH

A

0.2 x patient weight kg x base excess =

MeQ of sodium bicarbonate needed to correct acidosis

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584
Q

Acidosis causes

A

Reduced cardiac contractility, decreased SVR and QT abnormalities

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585
Q

Only give sodium bicarbonate if

A

Patient is ventilated bc if not can lead to respiratory depression

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586
Q

Norepinephrine does not cause

A

Significant bronchodilation

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587
Q

M3 receptor stimulation leads to

A

Bronchial constriction

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588
Q

Rightward shift of hemoglobin P50 shifts

A

Immediately when you stop smoking

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589
Q

Normal P50 of hemoglobin is

A

27 mmHg

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590
Q

Hypophosphatemia shifts hemoglobin dissociation curve to the

A

Left

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591
Q

A pneumothorax will double in size when breathing 75% nitrous oxide In

A

10 minutes

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592
Q

Arterial pressure variation is an accurate measure for

A

SVV>13% will be responsive to fluids

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593
Q

Chronic dantrolene therapy

A

Need to check LFTs

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594
Q

Malignant hyperthermia

A

Autosomal dominant with variable penetrance

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595
Q

TIVA costs

A

10 to 100 times more than inhaled anesthetic

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596
Q

End point of root cause analysis does not involve knowing

A

Who is causing the event

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597
Q

Increased latency or decreased amplitude on SSEPs can indicate

A

Cortex ischemia

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598
Q

Rapidly giving sodium bicarbonate

A

Increases affinity of C02 for oxygen shifting curve to left

Can actually worsen hypoxia and increase lactate
Increases preload
Decreased contractility
Increases cerebral hemorrhage

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599
Q

Treatment for organophosphate poisoning

A

Pralidoxime and atropine
Take off all clothes
Don’t use succ

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600
Q

Tylenol overdose

A

N-Acetylcysteine

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601
Q

Placental abruption

A

Painful vaginal bleeding
Uterine tenderness

Risk factors
Maternal HTN
Maternal cocaine
Tobacco use
Trauma
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602
Q

Caution should be taken before giving vasopressin to a patient with

A

Coronary artery disease. Can lead to vasoconstriction and ischemia

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603
Q

Desmopressin is preferred over vasopressin bc it doesn’t cause

A

HTN

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604
Q

Vasopressin increases

A

VwF and factor 8

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605
Q

One anterior and two posterior spinal arteries

A

Supply spinal cord

Anterior spinal cord provides 75%

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606
Q

If nuclear explosion give

A

Sodium iodine

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607
Q

Large R wave in lead V1 due to

A
Right ventricular hypertrophy 
Posterior wall MI
WPW syndrome
Muscular dystrophy
Right atrial enlargement
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608
Q

Subnormal corticosteroid production is called

A

Functional adrenal insuffiency

Most common adrenal insufficiency in the ICU

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609
Q

Mineralocorticoid is produced by

A

Zona glomerulosa

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610
Q

Increased flow rate =

A

Turbulent flow

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611
Q

Decrease radius

A

Increases laminar flow

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612
Q

Severe sepsis

A

30 ml/kg iv crystalloud in first 3 hours

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613
Q

Hydroxyethyk starch don’t give with

A

Sepsis

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614
Q

High Stenotic lesion along the PDA leads to

A

AV Nodal Blockade

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615
Q

Valsalva Maneuver

A

Increased intrathoracic pressire by forced expiration against closed glottis. Increased intrathoracic pressure will force blood out the heart, to the svc to the IJ

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616
Q

Improvement of how much with bronchodilator therapy in FEV1 is an indication for chronic bronchodilator therapy

A

15%

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617
Q

PRIS

A
Heart failure
Metabolic acidosis
4 mg/kg/hr is max dose of propofol
Rhabdomyolysis
Lactic acidosis 

Does not lead to pulmonary edema

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618
Q

Alfentanil acts quick

A

Low pKA leads to high unionized fraction

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619
Q

Given small dose of neuromuscular blocker before succ does not decrease the rise In

A

IOP

Myalgia

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620
Q

Giving pre roc dose 3-5 minutes before succ

A

To prevent fasiculations
Rise in intragastric pressure
Rise in ICP can also be blunted

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621
Q

In patient with unknown status of hiv and needlestick injury

A

No postexposure prophylaxis is necessary

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622
Q

If someone had HIV with viral load and symptomatic need to give

A

Triple drug therapy

Give two drug if HIV unknown but high risk of infection

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623
Q

Head down position

A

More likely endobronchial intubation
Increases cardiac index increases venous return back to heart
Decreases FRC
Decrease TLC

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624
Q

If a nerve in a paralyzed extremity is tested, the TOF will be

A

Higher

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625
Q

Premature closure of PDA

A

Associated with maternal NSAID usage

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626
Q

Acidosis can lead to reversion to

A

Fetal circulation as well as hypoxemia and hypothermia

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627
Q

Preventing post op nausea or vomiting best medication in peds

A

Ondansetron

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628
Q

Causes of nausea vomiting Peds

A

Age>3
Procedure>30 min
Type of procedure
Family history of PONV

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629
Q

First stage in correction of pulmonary atresia

A

Blalock Taussing shunt is first stage. It moves subclavian to pulmonary artery blood flow

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630
Q

Hypermagnesium

A

Theophylline does not help

Can cause bradycardia and hypotension

Loop diuretics with D5 help remove magnesium

Prolongs local anesthetics and NMDBs and succ

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631
Q

Gastroschsis

A

Has no enclosing membrane

More heat loss, dehydration, and infection

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632
Q

Patients with normal body mass index have higher rate of tourniquet than those who are

A

Obese

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633
Q

Upper extremity nerve injuries are more common with tourniquet than

A

Lower

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634
Q

Metochlpramide

A

Increases LES tone

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635
Q

Iv metochlopramide

A

acts within 1-3 minutes

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636
Q

Preterm infants have problems with

A

Decreased surfactant

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637
Q

Respiratory distress syndrome in infants mainly due to

A

Surfactant deficiency

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638
Q

Fetal lung maturity with L/S ratio

A

> 2

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639
Q

Increases A-a gradient with

A

Atelectasis

V/q mismatch or diffusion problem, shunting or dead space with increased A-a gradient

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640
Q

Pediatric endotracheal tube size

A

(Age/4) + 4

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641
Q

Hal Dane effect

A

Increased ability for hemoglobin to carry carbon dioxide from tissues to lungs for exhalation

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642
Q

Bohr effect relates to

A

H+

High H+ lower affinity of hemoglobin for O2

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643
Q

Alpha stat management

A

Leftward shift of oxyhemoglobin

PaC02 is maintained on 40

C02 is not added so it stays down and get a left shift

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644
Q

Multi drug resistant organisms

A

More than 5 days in hospital
Prior abx
Recent hospitalization

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645
Q

Ventilator associated or hospital acquired pneumonia treatment

A

Lineziolid/vancomycin
And floroquinolone/aminoglycoside
And zosyn/cefepine/cephalosporins

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646
Q

High blood solubility from high cardiac output mainly affects

A

Isoflurane bc more is taken up by the blood

Reduce cardiac output makes isoflurane much faster

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647
Q

Intrinsic INR of FFP is

A

1.6-1.8

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648
Q

Reverse Coumadin with

A

Vitamin K

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649
Q

If can wait 24 hours reverse Coumadin with

A

Vitamin K

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650
Q

Mannitol can have deleterious effects on patient with

A

CHF bc it increases intravascular volume

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651
Q

ICP management

A

Keep ICP 20-25

CPP > 60

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652
Q

Guillan barre drug contraindicated

Ascending motor paralysis w/wo sensory

A

Succinylcholine

It is autoimmune demyelination treat with plasmapharesis or ivig

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653
Q

Adductor similar analgesia

A

To femoral nerve for knee surgery

Adductor has a lower risk of falls

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654
Q

Saphenous nerve is purely

A

Sensory

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655
Q

Cross clamping of aorta hemodynamic changes

A
CVP higher
More catecolamines
Decrease in oxygen extraction 
Increased coronary artery blood flow
Decreased arterial pressure below clamp
Decreased cardiac output
Decreased in renal blood flow
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656
Q

First thing to do if malfunctioning inspiratory valve

A

Increase fresh gas flow will help decrease exhaled gas going retrograde

Inspiratory valve opens letting fresh gas go into patient

If it doesn’t close fully some of the exhaled gas will go into it

Increased plateau on capnography and more slope on downstroke

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657
Q

Causes of preop anxiety

A
Higher cognitive
Multiple personnel 
Anxious mothers 
Shy children
Younger children
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658
Q

LMWH better than UFH

A

Bc better at blocking factor 10a

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659
Q

Acute normovolemic hemodilution

A

Good for ppl who can’t get allogenic blood, or if they have rare antibodies

Can’t do it if active infection, cardiac disease, preop anemia

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660
Q

What ion contributes most to serum osmolality

A

Sodium

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661
Q

Hyponatremia

A

Check extracellular free water level
Plasma osmolality
Urine sodium

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662
Q

PDPH definitive therapy

A

Epidural blood patch

Usually use autologous blood

If they are a cancer patient or have bad active infection use allogenic blood

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663
Q

Celiac plexus

A
Pancreas 
Liver 
Spleen
Gall bladder
Biliary tract
Ascending and transverse colon
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664
Q

Celiac plexus block most common complication

A

Orthostatic hypotension

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665
Q

Pheno is

A

Painless on injection

Used for neurolytic block

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666
Q

Step 2 of pain ladder

A

Weak opioid including

Codeine, oxycodone, tramadol hydrocodone

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667
Q

WHO ladder

A

Should give oral administration whenever it’s possible

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668
Q

In type 2 CRPS

A

Clear preceding nerve injury

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669
Q

Greatest risk factor for development of posthrrpetic neuralgia

A

Older age

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670
Q

Phantom limb pain

Risk factors

A

Pain before amputation
Proximal amputation
Psychological problems

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671
Q

Facet joint pain, spinal stenosis pain is

A

Radiating

Usually t ipsilateral posteroir thigh

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672
Q

Facet joint innervation

A

Medial branch of the dorsal ramus of spinal nerves

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673
Q

Pain that radiates into ipsilateral buttocks

A

SI joint pain

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674
Q

Numbness of anterolateral thigh

A

Meralgia parenthetica

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675
Q

Piroformis and sciatic nerve

A

Whole sciatic nerve passes below the piriformis muscle

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676
Q

Trigeminal neuralgia

A

V2 and V3 distribution

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677
Q

Spinal anesthesia failure most common cause

A

Displacement of the top of the needle

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678
Q

Pudendal nerve

A

S2-S4

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679
Q

Superficial cervical plexus contains nerves that arise from

A

C1-C4

Causes 100% chance of ipsilateral diaphragmatic palsy

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680
Q

TENS

A

Has not been shown to help with chronic pain

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681
Q

Impact of warming IV fluids in neonate on thermal homeostasis is

A

Minimal

Fix radiant heat loss by heating the room

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682
Q

Midazolam rapid onset

A

Due to ability to convert to lipophilic form at high pH

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683
Q

Midazolam

A

Younger children need a higher dose. Highest bioavailability is when given rectal

Time to peak concentration after giving is 50 minutes orally

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684
Q

Mapleleson circuit

A

Type A has the fresh gas flow inlet at the end of the resevior tubing distal from t piece that connects to patients mask or endotracheal tube

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685
Q

Mapleson D has distal pop off valve

A

Allows for excess expired gas to be released during expiration prevent revreathing

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686
Q

Desflurane isn’t given too children

A

Leads to airway irritability

Don’t give for mask induction as can lead to laryngospasm

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687
Q

Ketamine IM dose for induction

A

2-4 mg/kg

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688
Q

Formula NPO time =

A

6 hours

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689
Q

Rapid sequence succ in children

A

2 mg/kg bc children have higher volume of distribution

Intramuscular succ dose is 4 mg/kg

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690
Q

Preschool age 3-5 best blade is

A

MAC-2

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691
Q

Age/4 plus 4 =

A

Pediatric endotracheal tube uncuffed

Lower by .5 to get cuffed tube size

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692
Q

Sevoflurane in Peds leads to

A

Emergence delirium

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693
Q

What helps with emergence delirium

A

Propofol
Precedex
Fentanyl

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694
Q

For each 1 degree decrease in body temp

A

MAC decreases 5%

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695
Q

I Mac of isoflurane in adults

A
  1. 2% end tidal isoflurane

1. 6% in Peds

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696
Q

Which group of population requires highest level of NMDB

A

Children require the most

Next is adults

Finally neonates

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697
Q

Full term neonate EBV

A

80-90 ml/kg

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698
Q

Leukoreduction

A

Useful to prevent CMV, HLA, non hemolytic febrile transfusion

Doesn’t help with graft vs host

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699
Q

Cefepime causes hypotension by

A

Lipopolysacharide release

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700
Q

Vancomycin release leads to hypotension via

A

Histamine release

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701
Q

Stellate ganglion is between

A

C6-C7

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702
Q

Cerebral auto regulation of blood flow is

A

Maintained in elderly

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703
Q

SIRS leads to more

A

Cortisol and thus hyperglycemia

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704
Q

Ischemic optic neuropathy

A

Painless vision loss

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705
Q

Dual chamber pacemakers

A

Right atrial and ventricular septum

P wave followed by left bundle branch

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706
Q

Persistent vegetative state

A

Can open eyes unconsciously

It is seen in comas

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707
Q

CO x svr

A

MAP

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708
Q

Hypokalemia leads to

A

ST and T wave depression

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709
Q

Terbutaline leads to

A

Hypokalemia

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710
Q

RCA supplies

A

Inferior wall of left ventricle

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711
Q

LAd

A

Supplies apex of right ventricle

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712
Q

Increase CK and myoglobinuria

A

Rhabdomyolysis

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713
Q

On intubated patients in regard to feeds

A

Continue enteral and parenteral

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714
Q

Neonates need to evaluated overnight until

A

60 weeks

Risk of apnea and bradycardia

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715
Q

Succ is safe in ppl with

A

Myasthenia gravis
Lambert Eaton
Renal failure with normal potassium

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716
Q

Don’t use succ on patients immobilized for longer than

A

24 hrs

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717
Q

Full tank of N20

A

1590 L O2

745 psig

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718
Q

MAP =

A

2/3 diastolic plus 1/3 systolic

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719
Q

Coiling cables is

A

Bad in MRI

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720
Q

IV calcium chloride is needed when giving lots of

A

Blood

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721
Q

Citrate toxicity electrolyte problems

A

Hypocalcemia

Hypomagnesium

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722
Q

Femoral nerve block with parenthesia in sartorius

A

Deeper and more lateral

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723
Q

Plasma elimination half time of flumazinil is the shortest of all benzos at about

A

1 hr

Plasma elimination half life of midazolam is 2 hrs

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724
Q

Absolute contraindication to ECT

A

Intracranial mass lesion
Pheo
Recent MI

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725
Q

Bow ditch reflex

A

Increase in HR by increase in myocardial tension

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726
Q

Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis

A

Excessive fluid
SID down
Decreased bicarbonate

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727
Q

ACE inhibitors will increase

A

Bradykinin leading to vasodilation

Decreases effefent arteriole contriction leading to lower GFR

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728
Q

Treat neuraxial nausea with

A

Atropine

Next choice is glycopyrolate

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729
Q

Aspiration suspected what to do

A

Place in head down or left lateral

Do bronch if possible to suction out as much aspirate as possible

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730
Q

Tocolytic agents like beta 2 agents like midodrine

A

Relax uterine contractions
Increase uterine blood flow

Uterine vasoconstriction with severe hypocapnea

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731
Q

Early post partum hemorrhage

A

Uterine stony

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732
Q

NG tubes can lead

A

To more sinusitis and otitis media

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733
Q

Lidocaine decreases

A

Seizure duration do not good to use if getting ECT

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734
Q

First sign of good normalization for surgery

A

Cl- coming close to normal

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735
Q

Pyloric stenosis

A

Hypokalemic, hypochloremic, metabolic alkalosis

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736
Q

AV node supplied by the

A

RCA

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737
Q

Anterior 2/3 of septum supplied by the

A

LAD

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738
Q

Phase 2 block with succinylcholine apnea best way to reverse is with

A

0.03 mg/kg

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739
Q

First compensatory state in anemia

A

Rightward shift of oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve

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740
Q

ERAS protocol

A

Start orals an soon as possible

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741
Q

Giving ritodrune to mother

A

Increases her glucose levels

Causes hypoglycemia in infant as more insulin is released

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742
Q

MH

A

High end tidal co2
Tachycardia
Acidosis

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743
Q

At high altitude you get

A

Increased minute ventilation as a result of hypoxia stimulation of peripheral chemoceptors

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744
Q

At high altitude

A

Lower partial pressure of 02 so you increase respiratory rate
Increased hemoglobin

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745
Q

Give 20-40 ml/kg of lactated ringers

A

For replacement in surgery for infants

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746
Q

Which drug is Sch 3

A

Ketamine

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747
Q

Cochin morphine oxycodone

A

Sch 2

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748
Q

Salicylate toxicity- aspirin

A

Mixed respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis

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749
Q

Carbohydrate load increases chance for

A

Hypokalemic periodic paralysis

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750
Q

Keep neurosurgical patients euvolemic or hypervolemic to maintain

A

Cerebral perfusion pressure

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751
Q

Discovery

A

Exchanging documents

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752
Q

Depositions

A

Statements made under oath about the case

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753
Q

Sunmons

A

Beginning of case notify the defendant there is a law suit against him

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754
Q

First step after aspiration

A

Suction endotracheal tube

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755
Q

Gram negative and anaerobic coverage should start if aspiration of

A

Fecal material

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756
Q

Hypercalcemia

A

Iv fluids and lasix

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757
Q

Hypetcalcemia

A

Stones bones abdominal pain psych issues

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758
Q

Excessive diresis

A

Don’t get respiratory alkalosis

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759
Q

Metabolic constriction alkalosis

A

When giving lasix

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760
Q

Garlic neuraxial anesthesia

A

Can just do it without more tests

Same with factor 10a inhibitors

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761
Q

For warfarin pts and neuraxial anesthesia

A

Wait 4-5 days and check inr prior to doing it to make sure it’s normalized

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762
Q

Myotonic dystrophy

A

Avoid neostigmine, succinylcholine, potassium

Myopathy leads to you being in hyperkalemic state
Neostigmine leads to more Ach leading to more contractions of muscles which isn’t what u want

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763
Q

Cryoanalgesia

A

Nerve regeneration in 1-3 months
Takes about 90 sec to do
Intercostal nerve analgesia post thoracotomy

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764
Q

In esld what do you look for

A

Factor 8 is great to look for coagulation disorder bc it is high
Factor 8 is low in DIC

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765
Q

Down syndrome goes with

A

Pyloric stenosis

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766
Q

Infants pulling knees to chest and currant jelly stool

A

Intussception

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767
Q

Duodenal atresia

A

Double bubble sign

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768
Q

In down syndrome on inhalational induction the common response is

A

Bradycardia

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769
Q

Infants desaturate faster than adults due to

A

Their lower FRC

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770
Q

Low FRC means

A

The lungs really collapse due to force of chest wall so harder to reopen

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771
Q

Incidence of PONV is related to

A

Age

Lower age has lower risk of PONV

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772
Q

Epiglottis induction

A

Inhalational direct laryngoscopy with rigid bronch, surgical personnel present

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773
Q

Coarctatuon repair use pulse of on

A

RUE

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774
Q

Central core disease at risk for

A

Malignant hyperthermia

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775
Q

Morphine dose for pediatric patient

A

.05-.2 mg/kg

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776
Q

Connie medularris at infants lies at

A

L3

End of spinal cord

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777
Q

Caudal block landmark

A

At the corpus of the sacral hiatus

Where the crease of buttocks begins

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778
Q

In cardiac transplant

A

HR generation is dependent on donor atrium
Frank starling stays intact
Less HR variability

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779
Q

First step in treating dka

A

Iv hydration

Need hourly glucose

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780
Q

Don’t use CPAP of non ventilated lung in

A

VATS case bc leads to less surgical exposure

Instead add be to the dependent(ventilated lung)

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781
Q

Carotid duplex us

A

Easy in ppl with lots of commorbidities

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782
Q

Retrobulbar block

A

Posterior glove rupture

Ocular pain wo increase in IOP

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783
Q

Leading cause of periop morbidity I’m obese patients

A

DVT

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784
Q

Obturator nerve block

A

Weakness of thigh adductor muscles

Combined sensory/motor block

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785
Q

Persistent headache after 20 weeks gestation goes with

A

Preeclampsia

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786
Q

No spinal anesthesia on someone with

A

Neural tube defect

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787
Q

Jehovah’s Witness won’t get

A

Allogenic autolougois platelets

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788
Q

Epidural anesthesia is safe in patient with

A

MS

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789
Q

Hyperthermia leads to

A

MS exacerbation

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790
Q

Local anesthetic absorption

A

Intercostal then causal then epidural

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791
Q

Patients with mild of severe PFTs show the

A

Least response to bronchodilator therapy

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792
Q

If PFTs show pneumonectomy might not be tolerated next test is

A

Split function tests

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793
Q

When placing Caudal block you pass which ligament before epidural space

A

Sacrococcygeal ligament

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794
Q

Adenosine blocks the

A

AV node

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795
Q

Adenosine doesn’t help with tachycardia in

A

Atrial glitter bc AV node is not involved

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796
Q

Acetazolamide inhibitor of

A

Carbonic anhydrase

Waste sodium in bicarbonate in proximal tubule leading to

Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis

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797
Q

Meds not ok with history of malignant hyperthermia

A

Succinylcholine

Inhalational anesthetics like Sevoflurane

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798
Q

Pituitary does not have an affect on

A

Parathyroid hormone and hypercalcemia

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799
Q

GH secreting tumor

A

Consider patient a difficult airway

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800
Q

What has shown to help pre-delivery

A

Corticosteroids either betametgasone or dexamethasone

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801
Q

Frank starling curve

A

Y axis - cardiac output

X axis- end diastolic volume

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802
Q

Loop diuretics

A

Lower filling pressures but don’t help with iontropy or cardiac output

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803
Q

Furosemide acts at

A

Ascending limb of loop of Henle

Increases venous capacitance and increases venous volume

Decreased stroke volume leadin to increase in contractility

Lowers diastolic blood volume and pressure

Reduces svr and increases venous capacitance to allow fluid to move

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804
Q

What drug is not associated with pain on injection

A

Ketamine

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805
Q

ASA criteria for discharge home from pacu

A

Take care of

Nausea
Return to baseline consciousness
Pain control
Stable bp and hr

Voiding is not a part of the criteria

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806
Q

Beckeith-weidsman

A

Macrosomia, perinatal hypoglycemia, omphalocele

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807
Q

Hurler syndrkme

A

Most difficult airway management

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808
Q

ARDS of newborn if born early

A

Diffuse ground glass opacities and reduced lung volumes

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809
Q

Dose of ketorolac in children

A

0.5 mg/kg

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810
Q

Adult hemoglobin p50

Infant hemoglobin p50

A

27

Infant is 20

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811
Q

Oxygenated blood from placenta travels from the umbilical vein to the

A

IVC - this is where oxygenated blood is highest in the fetus. Everywhere else the blood is mixed

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812
Q

Give blood to children even if the family are

A

Jehovahs witnesses

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813
Q

Propofol clearance rates are similar to

A

Adults

But children have higher Vd
Child have higher redistribution from vessel rich organs

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814
Q

Precedex loading dose can lead to

A

Bradycardia

Don’t use precedex for induction in children

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815
Q

Moderate sedation

A

Airway patent

Children respond to verbal or touch

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816
Q

Which parameter increases with pregnancy

A

LVEDV

CVP and pulmonary artery diastolic pressure don’t change

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817
Q

Supine hypotensive syndrome of pregnancy due to

A

Compression of IVC

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818
Q

Pregnant women have more neural sensitivity to local andsthetics

A

Faster onset and prolonged duration in pregnant vs non pregnant patients

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819
Q

In pregnancy

A

Decreased FRC and decreased MAC

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820
Q

Pregnancy you see increase in

A

Tidal volume

Pac02 degrees to about 30 at 12 weeks gestation

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821
Q

Renal changes in pregnancy

A
GFR increase
RBF increase
Creating clearance increase
More protein excretion 
Bicarb excretion increase to compensate for respiratory alkalosis
Glucose excretion increases
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822
Q

Pregnancy leads to

A

Biliary stasis and changes in bile composition

Estrogen increases cholesterol production

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823
Q

Pregnancy

A

Decreased LES tone
Same fasting guidelines in pregnant patients
Intestinal transit and pariestalsis are slowed
Fibrinolytic activity is increased
WBC don’t work as well in pregnancy leading to more infections
Platelet consumption is higher in pregnancy

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824
Q

Oxytocin can lead to

A

Hyponatremia

Misoprostol is commonly associated with fever

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825
Q

CVS and amniocentesis

A

Look at fetal karyotype

CVS is safer if performed 9-14 weeks

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826
Q

Oligohydramonos

A

Most common cause is fetal anomalies

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827
Q

Hydros fetalis

A

Fluid in two or more compartments

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828
Q

Elective C Section May be warranted if

A

> 4500 g in diabetic or 5000 g in non diabetic

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829
Q

Can do neuraxial anesthesia for

A

Preeclampsia

Placenta previa

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830
Q

My second stage of labor oxygen consumption has increased

A

70%

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831
Q

Tidal volume in pregnancy

A

Increase

So does minute ventilation but respiratory rate stays the same

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832
Q

Best way to help patient with atrial fibrillation increase cardiac output

A

Convert to normal sinus rhythm

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833
Q

PPV increases intrathoracic pressure and thus IVC pressure which can lead to

A

Decreased renal perfusion and oliguria

Oliguria= <0.5 ml/kg/hr

Causes decreased preload and increased afterload

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834
Q

Midazolam bioavailability

A

IV>intramuscular>intrascalar>rectal>oral

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835
Q

RA is not sssociated with

A

Bronchospastic disease

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836
Q

RA most commonly leads to

A

Pleural effusions

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837
Q

Detecting pericardial fluid is best with

A

TEE

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838
Q

Eclampsia is a preeclampsia patient with

A

Grand mal seizures

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839
Q

Increased cardiac output

A

Decreases speed of inhalational induction

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840
Q

At above what level does autonomic dusteflexia start

A

T6

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841
Q

Best way to treat intraoperative hypothermia in Peds patient

A

Forced air blanket

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842
Q

Obese patients have

A

Higher lean body weight

Higher cardiac output

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843
Q

Lithium increases blockafage of

A

Neuromuscular and depolarizing agents

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844
Q

Fastest way to restore cerebral perfusion pressure

A

Drain CSF from evd

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845
Q

Hypertonic

A

Draws fluid from intracellular space as osmotic

Head up increases venous drainage and is helpful

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846
Q

Lusitropy is different from preload how?

A

In preload volume goes up but pressure stays the same

In lusitropy volume goes up and pressure goes down

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847
Q

ASA physical status classification was originally used for

A

Anesthetic data comparison

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848
Q

Intravesical pressure =

A

Bladder pressure

If high can signify compartment syndrome correlated with increase in ICP

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849
Q

Mild dehydration of newborn

A

< 2 ml/kg/hr urine output

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850
Q

Prolonged second stage of anesthesia

A

2 hours without neuraxial in first pregnancy and 3 hours if neuraxial

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851
Q

Prior c section with pfannenstiel incision. Can have a

A

TOLAC attempted the next time

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852
Q

In multiple sclerosis patients

A

Epidural and spinal anesthesia are safe

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853
Q

Best method to look for ectopic pregnancy

A

Transvaginal US

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854
Q

VwF normally aids in

A

Platelet binding

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855
Q

Most common valvular disease in pregnancy

A

Mitral valve stenosis

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856
Q

Diagnosis of umbilical cord prolapse

A

Deliver fetus as soon as possible

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857
Q

Zofran does not help against

A

Aspiration pneumonia

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858
Q

Nitroglycerin can help take out

A

Retained placenta

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859
Q

For breech delivery

A

C section preferred
Anesthesia helps with a version
Give nitroglycerin for fetal head entrapment during Vaginal delivery of breech infant

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860
Q

Umbilical artery pH less than 7.0 associates with

A

Neonatal morbidity

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861
Q

Hemodynamic instability is a contraindication to

A

NIPPV as is recent vomiting or copious secretions

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862
Q

After intubation in COPD patients especially can get auto-peep

A

First step is to disconnect from ambu bag

HR will go down as will BP

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863
Q

In ARDS want plateau pressure below

A

30

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864
Q

Ability to follow commands is not required for

A

Extubation

Want

RSBI<100
Cuff leak
Minimal secretions
Successful SBT at inspiratory pressure of 5

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865
Q

RSBI =

A

RR/tidal volume

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866
Q

PPV

A

Decreases preload and LV afterload

Increases RV afterload

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867
Q

Increasing inspiratory flows helps in COPD patients bc it

A

Allows a longer time for expiration

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868
Q

In volume control ventilation tidal volume is determined by

A

Set inspiratory flow

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869
Q

Ventilator associated pneumonia

A

Best way to prevent vap is reduce duration of mechanical ventilation

Use NIPPV
Daily sbt
Chlorhrxjdjbd
Head of bed up

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870
Q

Catheter related blood stream infection

A

Diagnosis- positive blood culture from catheter site and another site

Don’t routinely replace CVC
Avoid femoral line placement
Avoid subclavian in renal disease patients
Chlorhrxidine is best

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871
Q

Use guidewire on cvc if

A

Lack of blood return

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872
Q

According to the CDC reasons for indwelling urinary catheter includes

A

Acute urinary retention
Close monitoring of urine output in Ill patient
Comfort care

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873
Q

Fick equation calculates

A

Oxygen consumption

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874
Q

Metochlopramide affect on les tone

A

Increases

Increases gastric ph
Dopamine receptor antagonist
Antiemetic

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875
Q

Nonshivering theogenesis In adults

A

Brown fat/skeletal muscle

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876
Q

Imminent acute renal failure is best seen with

A

Creatinine clearance

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877
Q

FenA checks for the cause of

A

Renal failure

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878
Q

Pregnancy

A

Unchanged vital capacity

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879
Q

Biggest predictor of difficult intubation in morbidly obese

A

Neck circumference

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880
Q

Neuraxial anesthesia causes

A

Vasodilation and decrease in core temp

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881
Q

Ventilation and perfusion are lower in

A

Apical alveoli

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882
Q

In adults and elderly what stays the same

A

Total lung capacity

Closing capacity is higher in elderly

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883
Q

Gold standard for pain

A

Continuous labor epidural

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884
Q

Treatment of choice for lung abscess

A

Broad spectrum abx

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885
Q

Formation of atelectasis does not increase with

A

Increasing age

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886
Q

Causes of atelectasis

A

High Fi02
Obesity
General anesthesia

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887
Q

Oral H2 blockers have an onset time of

A

One hour

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888
Q

Strongest predictor of perioperative outcome in patient on TPN

A

Albumin

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889
Q

Fetal academia

A

pH 7.2 or lower

Lactate greater than 4.8

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890
Q

Claims made insurance policy

A

Covers claims made that calendar year

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891
Q

Vertebral arteries originate from

A

Subclavian arteries

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892
Q

Oropharynx

A

Soft palate to epiglottis =

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893
Q

Epiglottis to crocoid cartlidge

A

Larynx

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894
Q

TCD ultrasound monitoring

A

Measures blood flow velocity in large arteries in head

Detects number of atherosclerotic plaques in the vessels

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895
Q

Active humidificatijn vs passive humidification

A

Active is more effective at humidification of gases

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896
Q

ARDS you want vcv bc

A

Can set tidal volume perfectly

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897
Q

Tidal volume in vcv determined by

A

Inspiratory flow

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898
Q

Do not replace indwelling catheters regularly only take them out when

A

No longer needed

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899
Q

C diff is transmitted by

A

Spores

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900
Q

If you suspect c diff

A

Only chlorine containing products such as bleach should be used for cleaning

Give oral vancomycin for severe cases

PPIs are associated with c diff

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901
Q

Endotracheal intubation/bronchoscopy

A

Need face shield to protect for mucous membranes

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902
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosus

A

Transmitted through respiratory droplets
Start airborne precautions
Start 4drug regimen if you think they have it

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903
Q

If needlestick injury to patient with hepatitis B

A

Get anti HBs titers

If low give HBV vaccine and immunoglobulin

If normal give nothing

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904
Q

CA pneumonia

A

Ceftriaxone is great for pneumococcal
Macrolide or flouroquinolone for atypical

Vancomycin plus cefepime for HA pneumonia

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905
Q

Parasternal short axis

A

RV on top

LV to the right

Left third to fifth intercostal and facing left shoulder

Distributive shock underfilled ventricles and hyper dynamic

In PE RV dilated and almost same size as LV

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906
Q

Contraindications to systemic fibrinolysis

A

Active bleeding
Intracranial lesion
Recent ischemic cva

These ppl need embolectomy

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907
Q

Subcostal view

A

Can show pericardial effusion
Elevated SVR, HR, CVP

If tamponade post CABG

Need redo sternotomy if tamponade post CABG to figure out source of bleeding

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908
Q

Lactate is a marker for

A

Organ hypoperfusion

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909
Q

Dobutsmine has beta1 and beta2 and is preferred in

A

Cardiogenic shock- inotrope and chronotrope

Can cause decrease in svr and hypotension

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910
Q

PAC can be used to get

A

Stroke volume
SV02
SVR
Oxygen consumption

Not ejection fraction

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911
Q

Look out for urosepsis

A

After taking out stones

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912
Q

Sepsis is considered a

A

Medical emergency

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913
Q

Septic shock

A

Lactate greater than 2 and hypotension despite fluid resuscitation

Next step is start norepinephrine

Start with 30 cc/kg

Straight leg test and look at IVC

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914
Q

Spinal cord injury below C4 still have diaphragm but

A

Lose accessory muscles which are crucial for adequate cough and deep breathing

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915
Q

If high risk for DVT

A

Use LMWH instead of subq heparin

High risk is spinal cord injury, major trauma, leg trauma

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916
Q

ASPEN guidelines

A

Early enteral feeding in ICU 24-48 hours of admission advocated

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917
Q

Elevate head of bed to reduce

A

Aspiration risk

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918
Q

Brain death

A

Abscence of spontaneous respiration’s at pac02 of 60 or greater

Absent brainstem reflexes
Normotension
Etiology of coma

Complete absence of motor function not needed

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919
Q

Gold standard ancillary test for brain death

A

Abscence of cerebral vessel filling on cerebral angiography

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920
Q

Brain death is defined as

A

Irreversible loss of brain function and need 2 brain death exams 6 hours apart

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921
Q

First step I hyponatremia

A

Check serum osmolality

Mannitol draws water into extracellular fluid leading to hyponatremia

Normal serum osmolality 280-290

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922
Q

SIADH treatment remove sources of excess free water

A

Fluid restrict!

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923
Q

Pleautaeud expiratory flow

A

Mediastinal mass

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924
Q

Jet ventilator

A

Maximum of 35 psi
Seldinger technique 12 to 16 gauge catheter
Minimum pressure to ventilate patient is 15 psi

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925
Q

Thoracic epidural allows for deep breathing

A

Without pain

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926
Q

Ethosuximide

A

Blockage of T type calcium channels

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927
Q

Air in the sample syringe for blood gas artificially increases the

A

Pa02

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928
Q

20 minute delay of reading blood gas sample leads to

A

Lowering of Pa02

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929
Q

Communication between doctor and lawyer is always

A

Privledged information

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930
Q

AcH binds to

A

Alpha 1 subunit of the postjunctional nicotinic receptor at the nmj

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931
Q

Airway resistance affects the

A

Ppeak

Endotracheal tube obstruction, bronghosoasn ashthma attack

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932
Q

Pulmonary edema, ARDS affects

A

Pleateau pressure

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933
Q

Chronic high flow AVM getting embolized

A

Cerebral dysautoregulation post avm can lead to profound cerebral edema often requiring decompressive craniotomy

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934
Q

Hypothermia decreases

A

CMR02 and ICP

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935
Q

QT prolongation

A

Erythromycin

Hypocalcemia

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936
Q

In refeeding treatment includes

A

Stop tube feeds and replace electrolytes

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937
Q

In drowning patient

A

Don’t do the heimlich as can lead to pulmonary aspiration

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938
Q

Hypothermic drowning patients tend to do better

A

Reduced cerebral oxygen consumption

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939
Q

Antidotes

A

Methanol/ethylene glycol poisoning - fomepizole

Organophosphate- glycopyrolate/atropine

Diltiazem- insulin

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940
Q

Cyanide poisoning and carbon monoxide poisoning is seen in

A

Burn victims

Can see lactic acidosis

Hydroxycobalamin is first line against cyanide poisoning. Also administer 100% oxygen

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941
Q

Sarin gas =

A

Organophosphate poisoning

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942
Q

Intimal flap in aorta

A

Descending aortic dissection

Type B dissections are distal to subclavian

Type A involve ascending aorta with or without descending

Need to increase preload, decrease afterload,

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943
Q

Midesopageal short axis

A

Aorta Mercedes Benz sign

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944
Q

AI

A

Increase preload
Decrease afterload to maximize forward stroke volume
High normal HR
Maintain sinus rhythm

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945
Q

Bicuspid aortic valve see

A

Aortic root dilation

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946
Q

Aortic stenosis hemodynamics

A

Preload- full

Afterload- don’t decrease. Maintain it to sustain coronary perfusion

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947
Q

Electromagnetic interference to pacemakers

A

Inhibition of pacemaker
Loss of capture
Inappropriate icd firing
Myocardial burns

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948
Q

Pacemaker code

A

Position 1 designates chamber being paced
Position 2 chamber being sensed
Position 3 is response to sensing

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949
Q

Atrial fibrillation initiates in

A

Pulmonary vein

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950
Q

Phrenic nerve injury

A

Elevated hemidiaphragm

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951
Q

RICI score to assesss

A

Periop major cardiac events

If emergency procedure like perforated bowel just go to or!

U use this for intermediate procedures with multiple risk factors

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952
Q

3 RICI risk factors

A

Recommend starting a beta blocker prior to procedure

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953
Q

Intraoperative MI is seen best with which lead

A

V5

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954
Q

Type 2 MI due to

A

Increased myocardial demand or decrease oxygen supply

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955
Q

VAD device

A

Close to stomach so leads to delayed gastric emptying thus do rapid sequences

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956
Q

CBP vs ECMO

A

CBP uses lower flow rates thus requires more anti coagulation

A line will lack pulsatility

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957
Q

Prior exposure to Protamine

A

Puts you at greater risk for anaphylaxis when you get protamine again

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958
Q

Fixed upper obstruction

A

Foreign body
Tracheal stenosis
Large airway tumor

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959
Q

Extra thoracic airway obstruction

A

Goiter

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960
Q

Lumbar nerve roots exit

A

Below the numbered Pedicle

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961
Q

Benzos and opioids may cause marked

A

Synergistic vasodilation

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962
Q

Pons injury

A

Respiratory dysfunction

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963
Q

NIF > -20 such as -15 is associated with a

A

Difficult wean

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964
Q

BUN with uremia

A

Give lower dose of versed

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965
Q

Cyp 2D6

A

Coeidine

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966
Q

Lactate ringers is made up of sodium and lactate and has a little glucose

A

The lactate is converted to bicarbonate leading to an alkalosis

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967
Q

Chi square doesn’t work for

A

Continuous variables

Works well for categorical variables

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968
Q

Best for DVT prophylaxis and prevention of post-op bleeding

A

LMWH

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969
Q

Do not give midazolam to

A

Pregnant patient

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970
Q

Dexamethasone anti-emetic site

A

Nucleus tractus solatarii

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971
Q

Increased epinephrine

A

Increased blood glucose levels

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972
Q

Serum osmolality is high in HHS but low in

A

DKA

<320 in dka and above 350 with HHS

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973
Q

Give IV ketamine if worried about patients

A

Respiratory status

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974
Q

100% of intrascalene blocks get

A

Phrenic nerve blockade

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975
Q

Ketamine can induce

A

Seizures

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976
Q

Rigid laryngoscopy/bronchoscopy

A

Foreign body

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977
Q

Don’t give glucose containing fluid to

A

Burn patients

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978
Q

Hypocalcemia
Hypokalemic
Hypo magnesium all cause

A

Prolonged QT

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979
Q

During fasting on liver it

A

Increases glycogenolysis and does gluconeogenesis

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980
Q

Which anti muscarinic increases HR the most

A

Atropine

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981
Q

Zone fasiculata makes

A

Glucocorticoids

Glucocorticoids are made in adrenal cortex

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982
Q

Water moves freely acriiss

A

BBB

Lipophilic substances move freely as well

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983
Q

Pa02 above 100 can have

A

Deleterious affects on patients

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984
Q

Prolonged exposure to high levels of oxygen can lead to

A

Tracheobronchitis/pulmonary edema/eventual respiratory failure

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985
Q

Volatile anesthetics

A

Increase RR

Decreased TV

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986
Q

Fa/Fi increases most with higher minute ventilation

A

In highly soluble agents like isoflurane

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987
Q

Which evoked potential is mode sensitive to volatile anesthetics

A

Visual evoked. Brainstem auditory most resistant

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988
Q

Left ventricular diastolic dysfunction goes with

A

LV hypertrophy

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989
Q

Patients with diastolic dysfunction and normal ejection fraction

A

Have normal volume but high diastolic pressures

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990
Q

Myofascial pain

A

Multiple taut bands with radiating pain

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991
Q

Esophageal monometry

A

It is used to calculate transpleural pressure gradient

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992
Q

1 mg of protamine per

A

1 mg of heparin(100 units)

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993
Q

What is made in liver?

A

Angiotensinogen

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994
Q

BNP is released from heart

A

Response to myocardial stretch receptors

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995
Q

Vascular rings are due to failure of

A

Embryonic structures to regress

Occur with right sided aortic arches

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996
Q

Video laryngoscopy helps with

A

Glottis visualization

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997
Q

Where do you sample to get mixed venous saturation

A

Proximal pulmonary artery

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998
Q

Keeping OR humidity 50-55% helps with

A

Mitigating increased risk of static discharge

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999
Q

Cryotherapy delays

A

Nerve conduction

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1000
Q

Neostigmine causes

A

Fetal bradycardia

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1001
Q

Increasing gain increases

A

Black white and gray on screen

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1002
Q

Addiction

A

Significant physical or emotional dependence on drug and craving despite negative or even harmful consequences

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1003
Q

Chylothorax

A

Left IJ you can injure thoracic duct

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1004
Q

Phospholipoprotein surfactant made by

A

Type 2 alveolar cells

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1005
Q

Pulmonary surfactant is also called

A

Phospholipoprotein

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1006
Q

Posterior pituitary also called

A

Neurohypophysis

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1007
Q

Beta stimulation and pain or emotional stress increase

A

ADH secretion

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1008
Q

In SIADH

A

Urine must be inappropriately concentrated plasma osmolality <280 and urine osmolality >100

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1009
Q

Primary therapy for SIADH is

A

Fluid restriction.

Chronic SIADH may require demeocycline

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1010
Q

Severe risk for acid aspiration give

A

Metochlopramide/ranitidine- better than cimetidine with fewer side effects

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1011
Q

IABP is out

A

Put into descending aorta

Should end up above renal arteries and 2cm distal to origin of left subclavian artery

IABP increases DBP and coronary perfusion

During systole increase output and decrease afterload

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1012
Q

Hyperkalemic periodic paralysis patient

A

Potassium free dextrose solutions help

More glucose leads to more insulin formed to decrease potassium level

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1013
Q

Diffusion hypoxia

A

Due to high amounts of nitrous oxide coming out on emergence displaces 02 and c02

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1014
Q

Cyp2D6

A

Converts codeine to morphine

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1015
Q

Waste gas scavenging

A

Vaccum rate must exceed the rate of waste gas flow

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1016
Q

Airway procedures such as blank are at higher risk for adverse events with pediatric sedation

A

Bronchoscopy

Also ASA 3 or greater and obesity

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1017
Q

Etomidate

A

Enhance affinity of GABA binding to Gabaa receptor

Does not directly activate GABA

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1018
Q

Biggest adverse risk with midazolam is

A

Respiratory depression

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1019
Q

Alanine is a substrate for

A

Glucose synthesis

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1020
Q

Max amplitude on TEG is low give

A

Platelets

Want R time 6 minutes
Alpha angle 60 degrees
Max amplitude 6 mm

Prolongation of R value requires FFP

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1021
Q

CBP with bypass flow of how much replicates normal cardiac output

A

4.5 L/min

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1022
Q

Physician have the highest blank of any profession

A

Suicide

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1023
Q

First leading cause of death in residents

A

Cancer second is suicide

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1024
Q

Hypotonia of neonate can be caused by administration of what to the mother

A

Magnesium

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1025
Q

Diltiazem good for

A

Hemodynamically stable A fib

Non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker

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1026
Q

Labetalol

A

Alpha1/beta1 antagonist don’t use beta blockers for a fib if patient has bad COPD

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1027
Q

When a patient is anemic

A

Blood viscosity is deceased helping improve blood flow aiding in oxygen delivery

Blood flow goes more to vital organs and not to kidneys skin and muscle

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1028
Q

Propofol decreases amplitude of

A

SSEPs

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1029
Q

Coagulatiopathy happens in 1/3 of bleeding patients

A

J

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1030
Q

Burst suppression helps mortality in patients with

A

Status epilepticus

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1031
Q

Help prevent medication errors with

A

Prefilled syringes

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1032
Q

TR will affect

A

Thermodilution

Check temp in pulmonary artery to get cardiac output

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1033
Q

Postop myalgia after succinylcholine

A

Do not correlate with fasiculations

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1034
Q

LY30 elevates is a sign of

A

Coagulopathy

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1035
Q

Protamine MOA

A

Direct binding of large negatively charged molecules in serum. Heparin is negatively charged

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1036
Q

Gabapentin blocks

A

Calcium channels

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1037
Q

Change in portal venous flow will result in

A

Compensatory flow changes in hepatic artery

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1038
Q

Adenosine produces

A

Hepatic arterial dilation

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1039
Q

Inhalational induction is most slower by

A

Right to left shunt

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1040
Q

What muscle contracts during forced exhalation.

A

External obliques and internal obliques

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1041
Q

Diaphragm and external intercostal swirl during

A

Inspiration

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1042
Q

Acute anemia lowers

A

SV02

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1043
Q

Dexamethasone

A

Is the most potent glucocorticoid

Can lead to adrenal suppression

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1044
Q

Fludocortsone

A

Potent mineralocorticoid

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1045
Q

Dermatome spread if local anesthetic injection is based on

A

Baricity of medication

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1046
Q

Propofol acts through

A

Posysynaptic GabaA receptors increasing chloride conductance

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1047
Q

APRV can lead to

A

Hypercarbia In paralyzed patients due to inverse 2:1 I to E ratio

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1048
Q

Polyvinyl chloride endotracheal tube most likely to undergo

A

Ignition when exposed to c02 laser

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1049
Q

Concentration calibrated bypass vaporizer uses blank to achieve desired percentage of volatile anesthetic

A

Splitting ratio

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1050
Q

Cornual placenta predisposes to

A

Breech delivery

As well as multiple gestation and macrosomia

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1051
Q

Opioid with highest side effects in epidural space

A

Morphine
Very hydrophilic and produces longer duration of action

Cephalad movement of opioids in CSF principally depends on lipid solubility

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1052
Q

In MRI suite after starting

A

CPR

Remove patient from scanner immediately

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1053
Q

DBS electrodes for refractory Parkinson’s avoid

A

Midazolam

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1054
Q

Need to stop on day of surgery

A

Diuretics

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1055
Q

Selective beta 2 agonist

A

Terbutaline

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1056
Q

Treacherous Collins

A

About 50% have hearing loss

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1057
Q

Hyperparathyroidism leads to

A

Skeletal muscle weakness

And hypophosphatemia

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1058
Q

If looking at facial nerve can’t use

A

Neuromuscular blocking agents

NMBD work at postsynaptic receptors

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1059
Q

Mediastinal mass

A

Don’t use nmbd can lead to tracheal collapse

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1060
Q

Acetylcholine synthesis is catalyze by choline acetyltransferase at

A

Presynaptic neuron

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1061
Q

Psuedochilineeease is found in

A

Plasma- not the neuromuscular junction

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1062
Q

For Ach release

A

Need ca2+ influx

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1063
Q

Feverfew has additive effect with

A

Warfarin

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1064
Q

DIC is associated with

A

Elevated PT time

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1065
Q

Alvimopan

A

U receptor antagonist which does not cross BBB.

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1066
Q

BAEP

A

Most resistant evoked potentials to volatile anesthetics

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1067
Q

Only need meds for malignant hyperthermia if

A

Triggering agents are used - succ or inhalational agents

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1068
Q

Fade on train of four is associated with

A

Progressively decreased Ach release on successive twitches

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1069
Q

Beta agonist leads to increased

A

cAMP

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1070
Q

Hydralaxine mainly dilates arteriole

A

Duration of action 1-4 hrs

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1071
Q

Inability to extend neck and create sternomental distance >12.5 leads to

A

Difficult intubation

Mallampati 3 or 4
Interincisor distance < 3 cm
Thyromental distance < 6.5 cm

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1072
Q

Febrile Rxn to platelets caused by

A

Cytokines released by donor leukocytes

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1073
Q

Third and fourth generation cephalosporins have very little cross reactivity with

A

Penicillins

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1074
Q

Secondary Adrenal Insuffiency

A

Direct result of inadequate ACTH production by the anterior pituitary

CRH from hypothalamus is first

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1075
Q

Sanz electrode for

A

PH
Clark for P02
Severinghouse for C02

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1076
Q

Median aperture drains CSF into

A

Cisterna magma

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1077
Q

Epinephrine leads to

A

Vasodilation

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1078
Q

Transpulmonary pressures are high in patients with

A

Restrictive lung disease

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1079
Q

Distal to subclavian descending thoracic aortic aneurysms treat with

A

Endovascular repair

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1080
Q

More magnesium leads to decreased calcium leading to less Ach release which results in

A

Muscle weakness

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1081
Q

Endotracheal cuff pressures based on

A

Boyle’s law

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1082
Q

Bedside percutaneous tracheostomy what type of tracheostomy tube

A

Cuffed low pressure tracheostomy tube

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1083
Q

Gum elastic boogie vs airway exchange catheter

A

Anterior angulation at distal end

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1084
Q

Nitroglycerin calcium channel blocks can cause

A

Direct cerebral vasodilation

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1085
Q

Infants and patients with sickle cell do poorly when getting blood

A

With defective hemoglobins

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1086
Q

Surgical manipulation of carotid sinus may lead to

A

Sudden Bradycardia and hypotension

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1087
Q

Atropine crosses the

A

BBB

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1088
Q

High volume low pressure

A

ETT cuff is the standard

Polyurethane cuffs are used which are ultra thin

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1089
Q

Desmopressin leads to rease of

A

VwF from endothelial cells

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1090
Q

In VWF patients check

A

VwF legend, factor 8 levels, VwF ristocetin cofactors

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1091
Q

Three phases of liver transplant

A

Dissection anhepatuc repercussion

Anhepatic clamp portal vein/hepatic artery remove liver and anastomosis to IVC and portal vein

Reperfusion
Anastomosis hepatic artery and biliary systems

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1092
Q

Regional is better than neuraxial in

A

Bad liver patients

General is the worst messes up hepatic blood flow

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1093
Q

Neuraxial anesthesia

A

Reduces rate of perioperative vte

Decrease stress response as well as improves venous blood flow

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1094
Q

Post op after retroperitoneal carcinoma resection continue LMWH for

A

28 days

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1095
Q

PE

A

Increased dead space

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1096
Q

Most common acid base disturbance in acute PE is

A

Respiratory alkalosis

Most sensitive ECG change is sinus tachycardia

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1097
Q

Most common cause of HTN is

A

Essential HTN

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1098
Q

AceI and Arbs block

A

RAS which releases vasopressin. Cause vasopressin depleted state but treat with vasopressin

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1099
Q

CSF drainage is recommended as spinal cord protective strategy in

A

Open and endivascular thoracic aortic repair

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1100
Q

Aortic cross clamp release

A

Venous return decreases as blood goes to distal tissues

Cardiac output is thus decreased

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1101
Q

Clopidogrel should be held how long for epidural

A

7 days

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1102
Q

Acute lung injury is a risk in patients

A

With acute alcohol intoxication

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1103
Q

Preop spirometry for delineating risk in thoracic surgery

A

FEV1<800
FEV1<30% of normal
RV/TLC>50% are all associated with increased postop risk for lung resection procedures

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1104
Q

Theophylline toxicity

A

Low therapeutic window and used in COPD patients

Can lead to tachyarhythmias

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1105
Q

V02 max greater than 20 ml/kg/min has

A

Low risk of postop complications

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1106
Q

Surgery on which lung is more likely to lead to desaturation

A

Right

Significant lunch parenchyma disease is evident with a low Pa02/fi02!ratio

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1107
Q

25 vs 5% albumin

A

25% has much higher osmotic pressure so moves fluid into intravascular space better

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1108
Q

Hydroxyetgyl starch is

A

Renally excreted

Increases PTT

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1109
Q

Normal serum osmolality

A

285-305

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1110
Q

Diltiazem is unique why?

A

Can act on both smooth muscle and cardiac muscle

Vasodilator and cardiac depressant thus dilating corinarues and decreaseing PVR

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1111
Q

Dihydroperidines end in dine

A

Amlodipine

Acts as vasodilator but has no cardiac depressant effect

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1112
Q

Best way to avoid upper extremity injury during spine case

A

Use somatosensory evoked potentials

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1113
Q

Can’t measure oxygen level with

A

Infrared absorption spectrophotometer

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1114
Q

Treat high spinal quickly with

A

Epinephrine

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1115
Q

Pacemaker leads go through subclavian axillary veins to svc ra rv or both . The end of the lead is placed in the

A

Endocardium

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1116
Q

Ventricular arrhythmias are common as you float PAC into

A

Right ventricle

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1117
Q

Awake fiber optic is best for

A

Clinically stable pt

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1118
Q

In general the higher the pH of solution the more will exist in

A

Unionized form

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1119
Q

Atrial fibrillation

A

Loss of A wave

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1120
Q

Serotonin syndrome

A

Clonus
Tachycardia
Hyperpyrexia
Diaphoresis

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1121
Q

As gas flow through rotamer increases so does

A

Cross sectional area of orifice

Density and viscosity of gases aren’t affected by flow

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1122
Q

Periodic recruitment maneuvers are known as

A

Sighs

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1123
Q

Flail chest

A

Conservative treatment is standard of care. Not surgical.

Thoracic epidural not intubation unless required

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1124
Q

CPAp provides continuous pressure throughout inspiration and expiration and is analogous to

A

PEEP

Prevents collapse of airways

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1125
Q

Bipap adds pressure support to

A

Cpap

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1126
Q

Don’t do Bipap if

A

Severe agitation

Vomiting

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1127
Q

Gold standard analysis of platelet function is

A

Optical aggregometry

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1128
Q

First step in work up of anemia

A

Peripheral smear and reticulocyte

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1129
Q

Hexamethonium

A

Neuronal type nicotinic antagonist

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1130
Q

Blood transfusion from first degree relative can lead to

A

Graft vs host disease

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1131
Q

Intrinsic peep goes down with

A

Lower minute ventilation and longer expiratory time

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1132
Q

Myofascial pain best treated by trigger point injection and

A

TENS

Myofascial pain is at a particular point in the muscle

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1133
Q

Lateral cricoarytenoid and transverse arytenoid result in

A

Adduction of vocal cords

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1134
Q

Increase bradykinin with ace inhibitor use can lead to

A

Facial edema

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1135
Q

Pipeline pressure of oxygen nitrous and air ranges at

A

50 psig

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1136
Q

Mapleson D is the most

A

Efficient and requires the least gas flow

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1137
Q

General contraindication to MRI include

A

Pacemaker or CID

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1138
Q

Bronchiectasis is an

A

Obstructive pulmonary disease

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1139
Q

FEV1/FVC is down in

A

Obstructive lung disease

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1140
Q

Pneumonia and ARDS are

A

Restrictive lung disease

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1141
Q

Gray rami carry postganglionic sympathetic fibers

A

From the sympathetic ganglia to the spinal nerves

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1142
Q

White rami carry

A

Preganglionic sympathetic fibers from spinal nerves to paravertebral ganglia

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1143
Q

Hunt Hess 1

A

No blood detected

Hunt Hess 2 diffuse thin layer of blood < 1 mm

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1144
Q

Risk of airway fire is higher in MAC cases bc they are never intubated and thus don’t have a secure airway

A

In Mac must be ready to convert to general.

Purposeful to painful stimuli and usually maintain cardiac function

Biggest risk is respirator depression

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1145
Q

Thoracic duct drains into

A

Subclavian vein

You should suspect injury if unilateral pleural effusion or ipsilateral supraclavicular swelling

Pneumothorax presents as sudden onset chest pain and immediate dyspnea

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1146
Q

Temperature regulation by

A

Hypothalamic nuclei

This is where most of it occurs centrally

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1147
Q

For airways with limited neck extension should use

A

Flexible laryngoscopy

Video Laryngoscopy requires some neck flexibility

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1148
Q

With three twitches in TOF approximate blockade of

A

75% of receptors

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1149
Q

Gold standard TOF ratio is

A

0.9 for reversal

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1150
Q

1 twitch on TOF

A

90% of nicotinic Ach receptors are blocked

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1151
Q

Inhibits breakdown of midazolam

A

Fluoxetine

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1152
Q

When performing a circuit leak test the APL valve should be

A

Closed

Closed means 30-70 cm H20

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1153
Q

If you leave APL closed on spontaneous ventilation can lead to

A

Barotrauma

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1154
Q

Epinephrine and dopamine both

A

Decrease renal blood flow

Angiotensin 2 effects efferent vasculature thius increasing renal blood flow

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1155
Q

Morphine 3 glucoronide contains

A

No analgesic activity in humans

May cause hyperalgesia

M6G more likely to cause nausea/pruritis/respiratory depression

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1156
Q

The larynx is located at the

A

C3-4 interspace

In adult it’s at C4-C5

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1157
Q

What reflex stays intact after inducing general anesthesia

A

Pupillary response to light

Corneal reflex/gag reflex/

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1158
Q

Gel warming mattresses are

A

Ideal for transport and don’t need a power supply

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1159
Q

Hypernatremia increases

A

MAC

Delay elective cases if serum sodium > 150

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1160
Q

Lower potassium

A

Beta agonists
Insulin
Alkalosis

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1161
Q

Barbiturate coma

A

Construction of cerebral vasculature leading to decreased ICP

Duration of action dependent on redistribution to peripheral compartments

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1162
Q

Skin surface warning before induction of anesthesia

A

Increase body heat content

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1163
Q

Parasympathetic pre and post ganglionic receptors are both

A

Ach

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1164
Q

Single most important risk factor for developing postoperative cognitive dysfunction is

A

Increasing age

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1165
Q

In trauma give

A

1:1:1 prbc, FFP, plts to maintain coagulation pathways

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1166
Q

Increasing abdominal distention from small bowel obstruction can lead to

A

Ischemia or perforation

Smart to put NG tube if lots of vomiting to decompress prior to starting case

Certain drugs such as nitrous oxide and metochlopramide can lead to higher risk of bowel perforation so don’t use

Metochlopramide is a promotility agent and causes increases gastric emptying

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1167
Q

Warfarin half life

A

38 hours

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1168
Q

Precedex is highly selective for

A

Alpha2

Much more than clonidine

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1169
Q

Naloxone has greatest affinity for which receptor

A

Mu

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1170
Q

Hydromorphone and morphine intrathecal can lead to formation of

A

Granulomas intrathecally

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1171
Q

All Duran sinuses drain into the

A

Internal jugular vein.

The veins of the brain drain into the Dural venous sinuses

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1172
Q

Invasive arterial blood pressure monitoring involves

A

Electromechanical pressure transducer

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1173
Q

When can you do an SBT

A

GCS>13
Pa02 150-200 on fi02 50% or less peep of 8 or less
No sepsis or electrolyte issues
HR<140 beats per minute

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1174
Q

Post op in Peds for fluid replacement use the

A

2-1-.5 rule

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1175
Q

Propofol is Safe to use in patients high risk for

A

Hepatic encephalopathy

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1176
Q

Precedex is mainly based on

A

Liver metabolism

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1177
Q

Succinylcholine increases

A

Tracheal tone

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1178
Q

Which nerve most attenuated hypoxia ventilatory drive

A

Peripheral response to acute hypoxia

Glossopharyngeal nerve

Carotid and aortic bodies detect decrease in arterial partial pressures of oxygen

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1179
Q

Large left atrium will show as bigger RA on CXR

A

RA at bottom of heart on cxr can’t see RV

Can see LV at bottom

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1180
Q

Nicotinic Ach receptors increase in

A

Skeletal muscle with Guilin barre and burns

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1181
Q

Severe metabolic acidosis in hypovolemia can lead to

A

Severe hyperkalemia due to GI tract - not skeletal muscle

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1182
Q

Warfarin has

A

Narrow therapeutic window

Tylenol can make you supratheraputic

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1183
Q

Termination of local anesthetic drug effect when used in neuraxial anesthesia

A

Vascular absorption and redistribution is primarily responsible for termination of effect

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1184
Q

No local anesthetic

A

Gets metabolized in CSF

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1185
Q

Dobutamine acts on

A

Beta1 receptor

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1186
Q

Hyperkalemia with potassium above 6 should be corrected before

A

Elective cases

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1187
Q

Sodium bicarbonate insulin beta agonists can lower

A

Potassium

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1188
Q

Body excretion of potassium takes time

A

Diuretics kayexelate dialysis

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1189
Q

95% of mag is

A

Renally absorbed

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1190
Q

High normal saline leads to

A

Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis

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1191
Q

Platelets are stored at highest temp with highest risk for

A

Bacterial infection of all blood components

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1192
Q

Febrile rxn to blood due to

A

Leukocyte antibodies

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1193
Q

Trali

A

Non cardiogenic pulmonary edema

Hypoxia SOB fever

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1194
Q

Urticaria rxn to blood

A

Don’t stop transfusion!

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1195
Q

TRALI criteria

A

Within 2 to 6 hours of transfusion
PA occlusion pressure low
Bilateral infiltrates
No acute lung injury prior to transfusion

Diuretics and steroids are contraindicated in Trali

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1196
Q

AB universal for giving

A

Plasma bc they have no antibodies

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1197
Q

In cross match a small amount of donors blood is mixed to see if

A

Compatible

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1198
Q

Type and screen

A

Add blood from donor to specially made red cells with all the antigens to see what antibodies are on the donor blood

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1199
Q

Hypothermia increases blood loss by

A

20%

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1200
Q

First step in blood transfusion rxn

A

Stop the transfusion

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1201
Q

Coagulation cascade always involves

A

Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin

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1202
Q

When clot is formed

A

Plasminogen is concerted to plasmin by tPa to break down clot

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1203
Q

Spontaneous bleeding occurs at plt count less than

A

20,000

Minimum recommended plt count before surgery is 75,000

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1204
Q

Thrombocytopenia

A

Dilution after massive transfusion

Uremia cirrhosis and aspirin can also cause it

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1205
Q

ASA stops platelet aggregation by inhibiting platelet

A

Cyclooxygenase

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1206
Q

Factor with shortest half life

A

Factor 7

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1207
Q

Warfarin competes with vitamin K for binding sites on the

A

Hepatocyte

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1208
Q

Heparin activates

A

Antithrombin 3

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1209
Q

Normal PTT

A

40-100 seconds

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1210
Q

Normal PT time

A

10-12 seconds

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1211
Q

Cryoprecipitate is thawed

A

FFP

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1212
Q

Less thick TEG

A

Severe plt dysfunction

R time increase in coagulation factor deficiency

Hypercoagulable state will be more thick

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1213
Q

Glossopharyngeal nerve

A

Provides sensory innervation to base of tounge and vallecula

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1214
Q

Jet ventilation

A

Can’t expire and can lead to barotrauma or decrease in cardiac output

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1215
Q

Negative inspiratory force should exceed blank for Extubation

A
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1216
Q

Risk of pressure injury is higher with

A

Mask ventilation

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1217
Q

LMA can affect the lingual

A

Nerve

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1218
Q

Prolonged heparin use leads to

A

Hypoaldosteronism

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1219
Q

Warfarin

A

Vitamin K antagonist

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1220
Q

Near infrared uses

A

Longer wavelengths than visible light spectroscopy

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1221
Q

IgA deficiency

A

Recurrent infections of respiratory and GI tract

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1222
Q

Lvads can be

A

Long term

RVADs and bivad can not

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1223
Q

Bupivicaine induced cardiac arrest

A

T wave amplitude increases

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1224
Q

Onset of action of IV fentanyl

A

3 to 5 minutes

Onset of action with hydromorphone is 8 minutes

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1225
Q

Midazolam benzos will Lower

A

Seizure duration so don’t use in ECT

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1226
Q

Most resistance to gas flow

A

Occurs in large airways including the upper bronchi

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1227
Q

Adrenergic agonists like

A

Norepinephrine
Phenylephrine
Dopamine

Can’t cross BBB

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1228
Q

Adolescents are more likely to get opioid

A

Addiction

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1229
Q

Recombinant hemoglobins does not require

A

Typing or crossmatch

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1230
Q

C tetani

A

Exotoxin binds peripheral nerves

Blocks GABA leading to spasticity

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1231
Q

Isoproterenol

A

Beta agonist

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1232
Q

During labor most common causes of fever are

A

Chorionionitis and epidural catheter placement

Chorio you get foul smelling amniotic fluid

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1233
Q

Stellate ganglion

A

Increased blood flow to arm you place it on

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1234
Q

Alcohol leads to

A

Afonso demyelination

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1235
Q

Medial branch innervates

A

Multifidus, facet joint, interspinous

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1236
Q

Before injection of epidural steroid injection hold xarelto for

A

Three days

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1237
Q

C6 nerve exits from

A

C5-C6 foramen

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1238
Q

Tension headache

A

First line are NSAIDs

If NSAIDs don’t work can do anti-depressants

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1239
Q

Stellate ganglion block occurs at level of

A

C6

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1240
Q

Spinal cord stimulator should be placed at

A

Posterior epidural space

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1241
Q

Opioid withdrawal

A

Diarrhea

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1242
Q

Central chemoceptors detect

A

PH and pac02

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1243
Q

Renal blood flow is controlllrd by

A

Endotheliin 1 and nitric oxide

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1244
Q

PPV greater than

A

15% means you will be responsive to fluid bolus

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1245
Q

Increased aortic clamp times(ischemic time) leads to

A

Renal injury

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1246
Q

Hemodilution promotes

A

Anemia

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1247
Q

Muddy brown casts go with diagnosis of

A

ATN

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1248
Q

Liver transplant pts do poorly with

A

Hyponatremia

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1249
Q

Sodium hypochlorite for disinfecting

A

C diff

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1250
Q

Meperidine

A

Synthetic opioid agonist

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1251
Q

If aspiration want head

A

Lateral and down

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1252
Q

No change in RR during

A

Pregnancy

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1253
Q

Etomidate is associated with

A

General myoclonus

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1254
Q

Congenital diaphragmatic hernia can lead to

A

Pulmonary HTN

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1255
Q

Decreased total lung capacity in

A

Obese patients- makes them restricted

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1256
Q

Dexmetodimine

A

Total body weight

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1257
Q

Heparin stops conversion of

A

Prothrombin to thrombin

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1258
Q

In utero Pa02 of fetus is

A

20 mm Hg

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1259
Q

Haldol

A

D2 receptor antagonist

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1260
Q

FEV1 greater than 12% increase is good response to

A

Bronchodilator

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1261
Q

Emphysema doesn’t get better after

A

Bronchodilator therapy

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1262
Q

Abscence of breath sounds and high peak pressures post intubation think

A

Bronchospasm

Give 5-10 mcg epinephrine

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1263
Q

Which nerve supplies trachea

A

Vagus

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1264
Q

In hypoxia respiratory failure you usually use

A

Venovenous ECMO

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1265
Q

Hypoxia and hypocarbia are classic for

A

Pulmonary embolus

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1266
Q

Spinal stenosis

A

Relief when bending forward

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1267
Q

Fibrinogen and vwf are normal inpatients with

A

Liver disease

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1268
Q

Acidosis messes up

A

Clotting factors from working correctly

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1269
Q

Longer storage of blood leads to more co2 and

A

Metabolic acidosis

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1270
Q

Look at calcium on blood gas by looking at

A

Ionized calcium

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1271
Q

Enlarged cardiac sillhoute on patients with

A

Hypothyroidism

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1272
Q

Vasogrnic edema messes up BBB by

A

Moving fluid from intravascular to extravascular compartment

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1273
Q

Canulas of LVAD placement

A

Left ventricular apex for inflow

Outflow to ascending aorta

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1274
Q

PTU acts on thyroperoxidsse

A

Thus inhibiting new thyroid hormone from forming

Also stops conversion of T4 to T3

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1275
Q

In ARDS

A

Tital volume is based on ideal body weight

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1276
Q

Barotrauma

A

Overdistension of alveoli

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1277
Q

Side effects of PEEP

A

Barotrauma
Cardiac output decrease
Increase in ICP and fluid retention

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1278
Q

Red on pulse of

Infrared

A

660

940 nm

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1279
Q

Methemoglobin converts oxygen dissociation ratio to the

A

Left

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1280
Q

Co oximeter blood gas analysis is test to look for

A

Methemoglobin

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1281
Q

Pulse of only tells you about

A

Oxygenation not ventilation

Thus might be hypocapnic but pulse ox is fine

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1282
Q

Et c02 less than

A

10 after 20 minutes cpr is 100% sign of death

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1283
Q

Causes of rebreathinh

A
Exhausted C02 absorber 
Incompetent expiratory or inspiratory valve
Accidental administration of c02
Giving bicarbonate 
Tourniquet release 
Inadequate fresh gas flow
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1284
Q

Sudden loss of capnographic waveform

A
Esophageal intubation
Ventilator disconnect
Capnigeaph doscinnect 
Obstructed ETT
Cardiac arrest
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1285
Q

Cause of increased ETC02

A
Hypoventilation
Increased body temp
Airway obstruction
Revreatginh 
Bronchial intubationi adequate fresh gas flow
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1286
Q

Don’t give what during thyroid storm

A

Aspirin

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1287
Q

Compensation for metabolic acidosis in humans that acts quickly

A

Hyperventilation

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1288
Q

Dilation of ascending aorta seen in patients with

A

Bicuspid aortic valve

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1289
Q

Decelerating flow is seen in

A

Pressure control ventilation

This is why it’s better than volume in morbidly obese undergoing laparoscopic surgery

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1290
Q

Brain death leads to decrease in

A

Temperature

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1291
Q

Brain dead patients still have spinal reflexes so need to give

A

Muscle relaxant

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1292
Q

Pa02>200 is needed before doing

A

Apnea test

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1293
Q

Vagal blockade during glossopharyngeal nerve block leads to

A

Tachycardia

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1294
Q

Acute chest syndrome

A

New pulmonary infiltrate involving at least one lung segment not due to atelectasis

Treat with exchange transfusion

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1295
Q

In VSD give

A

Preload up

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1296
Q

CPP=

A

MAp-ICP

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1297
Q

Complete heart block is known complication of

A

TAVR

Below level of aortic annulus caused by the prosthesis

Treat complete heart block with transvenous pacing

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1298
Q

Tizanidine

A

Alpha 2 agonist

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1299
Q

Primary metabolite of oxycodone is

A

Oxymorphone

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1300
Q

Bivalirudin

A

Thrombin inhibitor that blocks thrombin mediated cleavage of fibrinogen to fibrin

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1301
Q

Steroids cause

A

Decreased wound healing

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1302
Q

Best way to see if facets are cause of back pain is

A

Medial branch block

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1303
Q

Postop period following craniotomy patients who have a seizure should be investigated with

A

Head CT

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1304
Q

1 amp 50% dextrose solution first line for hypoglycemia in

A

Teen patient

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1305
Q

Tranexamic acid

A

Decreases risk of bleeding or blood transfusions

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1306
Q

PO to IV hydromorphone conversion is

A

5:1

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1307
Q

Meconium inactivated surfactant making

A

Ventilation perfusion mismatch

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1308
Q

Head to body ratio of infants is higher so need to raise

A

Shoulders to get into sniffing position

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1309
Q

Lingual nerve is a branch of the

A

Trigeminal

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1310
Q

Laryngeal manipulation can lead to

A

Bradycardia

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1311
Q

For jet ventilation

A

Avoid breath stacking
Hard to measure exact Fi02 so pulse ox important
TIVA is required
Pressure monitoring distal tip of jet ventilation catheter

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1312
Q

During microlaryngoscopy patient need to be

A

Immobile

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1313
Q

Increased airway pressure
Wheezing
Hypotension

A

Anaphylaxis

Give epinephrine 50-100 ug

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1314
Q

Begin low dose epinephrine infusion

A

For anaphylaxis if refractory to medication and blood pressures stay decreased

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1315
Q

Tryptase is a marker for

A

Mast cell activation and degranulation

Need to keep anaphylactic patient in icu for minimum 24 hrs

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1316
Q

Thumbprint sign shows

A

Epiglottis

Mostly associated with h influenza

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1317
Q

For aspiration in child

A

Want to keep patient spontaneous as long as possible flexible bronchoscope is placed

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1318
Q

Can pass a flexible bronchoscope through an

A

LMA

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1319
Q

Malpositioned trach

A

If trach falls out within first 24 hours there is a risk for false passage so don’t just stick it back in

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1320
Q

Sign of difficult intubation

A

Inability to bring mandibular incisors anterior to maxillary incisors

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1321
Q

Class 3 mallampati

A

Soft palate only season

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1322
Q

Lambert Eaton gets better with

A

Exercise

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1323
Q

Mechanical pump to circulate blood from machine to patient either

A

Centrifugal or roller pump

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1324
Q

Diffusion constant of a gas is proportional to

A

Solubility and inversely proportional to the square root of the molecular weight

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1325
Q

PEEP

A

Decreases afterload

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1326
Q

Anterior wall on rigt side of

A

Left ventricle

Inferior wall on further left side

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1327
Q

Complete heart block due to

A

Inferior wall

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1328
Q

Difference between end diastolic and end systolic =

A

Stroke volume

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1329
Q

Don’t give positive pressure to side of lung with

A

Bronchopleural fistula

Can lead to pneumothorax

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1330
Q

Alk phos is increased in

A

Pregnancy

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1331
Q

If blood is found in subarachnoid lumbar catheter

A

Stop draining CSF

Need to look for spinal hematoma or intracerebral hemorrhage

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1332
Q

Leading cause of death worldwide is

A

Maternal hemorrhage

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1333
Q

Increased FRC when placed in

A

Reverse trendelenberg vs supine

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1334
Q

Decrease SVR to compensate for

A

Anemia

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1335
Q

Gastric pH increases in

A

Pregnancy

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1336
Q

HR no change BP will increase when giving phenylephrine

A

To pt s/p heart transplant

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1337
Q

Tranexamic acid

A

Inhibits activation of plasmin

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1338
Q

Desired magnesium range is

A

4-8

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1339
Q

Hypermagnesium

A

More sensitive to depolarizing/nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers

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1340
Q

In acute tubular necrosis FenA >

A

3%

BUN:Creatinine<15

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1341
Q

Prosthetic valve and cardiac transplant pts should get

A

Endocarditis prophylaxis

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1342
Q

Least sensitive evoked potential

A

Brainstem auditory evoked potentials

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1343
Q

Deep peroneal
Superficial peroneal
Sural

A

Innervate foot

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1344
Q

Nitroglycerin not good with aortic stenosis

A

Leads to decrease in BP and increase in HR thus increasing myocardial oxygen demand

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1345
Q

18% for front of torso

A

18% for back of torso

9% for each leg

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1346
Q

Homozygous atypical dibucaine 20

A

Bad in psuedocholinesterase deficiency

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1347
Q

Fa/Fi ratio most important factor is

A

Blood gas partition coefficient

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1348
Q

T10-L1 visceral sympathetic

A

Pain transmission for first stage of labor

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1349
Q

Thoracic epidural

A

Lower FEV1
Lower FVC
V/Q ratio doesn’t change

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1350
Q

SAH ecg

A

QT prolongation

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1351
Q

70 ml/kg for

A

Children blood volume

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1352
Q

Phenelzine

Tranylcypromine

A

Are MAOi inhibitors along with selegeline

Be careful giving to patients with meperidine

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1353
Q

SOMA

A

Highly addictive

1354
Q

Email between medical record must be

A

Encrypted

1355
Q

PaO2 is higher and PaC02 is lower without

A

Air bubble

1356
Q

Retrobulbar block biggest complication

A

Hematoma

1357
Q

Least cerebral vasodilation is seen when giving

A

Sevoflurane

1358
Q

Medullary thyroid cancer comes from

A

Parafollicular cells

Best to check preop for pheochromocytoma because part of the MEN family of syndromes

1359
Q

Bronchospasm leads to decreased breath sounds

A

Bilaterally

1360
Q

Induction of ECT use

A

Methohexital

1361
Q

Anterior ischemic optic neuropathy

A

Optic disk edema

1362
Q

Stroke volume decrease in

A

Aortic stenosis due to increase afterload

1363
Q

Mapleson circuit has less

A

Airway resistance than circle system

1364
Q

PKa

A

Where 50% are unionized

1365
Q

Right laryngeal nerve off of

A

Right subclavian

Left laryngeal comes off aortic arch

1366
Q

Total thyroidectomy respiratory distress in day 1 mainly due to

A

Hypocalcemia

1367
Q

Prolonged oxytocin can lead to

A

Hyponatremia

1368
Q

5% albumin has as much sodium as

A

Normal saline

1369
Q

Decrease in

A

Protein S with pregnancy

Become resistant to protein C

1370
Q

Biggest limitation to using peripheral iv for giving TPN is

A

Can’t give high osmolality

Thus have to give a lot of volume that can’t be tolerated by critically ill patients

1371
Q

PRESS

A

MRI findings vasogenic edema localized to posterior cerebral hemispheres

Reversible

If pre eclamptic do delivery

1372
Q

C02 crosses

A

BBB. It affects pH by combining with bicarbonate

1373
Q

CBF changes 5-7% per 1 degreee change in

A

Temperature

1374
Q

Biggest maximal depression in CMR with

A

Isoflurane

1375
Q

Most vasodilator increase

A

ICP

Use labetalol or esmolol

1376
Q

Compromise blood flow increases

A

Latency of SSEPs

1377
Q

Precedex activates

A

EEG

1378
Q

Awake crani

A

Must be able to rapidly control ventilation and general anesthesia

LMA is good option

1379
Q

Precedex for placement of

A

Deep brain stimulator placement

1380
Q

Cerebral vasospasm after ansurysmal SAH

A

3-14 days

1381
Q

Hunt Hess grade

A

0 is best

1382
Q

Grade 1 fisher scale for SAH

A

No SAH blood
Grade 2 thin SAH

Grade 4 is intraventricular

1383
Q

Nimodipine

A

For ruptured aneurysm BP management

1384
Q

SAH hypertensive due to

A

Catecholamine release

Can cause cardiomyopathy

1385
Q

Decreased MAP reduces

A

Transmural pressure on aneurysm

1386
Q

Treat ruptured SAH

A

And treat BP

Give nimodipine as soon as aneurysmal SAH diagnosis made

1387
Q

DI

A

Urine specific gravity < 1.005 is confirmatory

Don’t do elective if above 150

1388
Q

Neurogenic pulmonary edema

A

CNS injury occurring usually after a few hours to days after injury

1389
Q

Draining CSF

A

Quickest way to decrease ICP

Better than phenobarbital coma, hypothermia, nimbex

1390
Q

Siting position crani

A

A line for cardiac issues, closely monitor SBP and CPP, repeated gases

CVL for better venous access to remove air

1391
Q

Right side better to

A

Aspirate venous air

Right subclavian best so don’t need to put head down even though risk for pneumothorax

1392
Q

Increased PaC02 and decreased EtC02 with

A

Thrombotic pulmonary embolus

1393
Q

IABP

A

Increase

Ejection fraction
Cardiac output
MAP
Coronary blood flow

Decrease
Aortic systolic pressure
Heart rate
Left atrial pressure

1394
Q

Mitral valve stenosis

A

Beta blockade helps

1395
Q

Codeine is inactive and must undergo O demethylation CYP2D6 to create

A

Morphine

Ultra rapid metabolized are at increased risk to develop respiratory depression

1396
Q

Ascending bellow ventilator is

A

Safer

Fail safe valve can reduce risk of delivery of hypoxia gas mixture to patient

1397
Q

Low pressure curcuit includes

A

Flow control tubes and vaporizers

1398
Q

Minimize anticholinergic drugs in ppl with

A

Alzheimer’s

All opioids except remifentanyl gave anticholinergic properties

1399
Q

Transdermal buprenorphine for

A

Moderate to severe chronic pain in adults

Very high u opioid receptor binding affinity

Partial agonist

1400
Q

Histamine antagonists decrease gastric acid secretion but do not altar gastric emptying

A

Dopamine D2 antagonists increase gastric emptying

1401
Q

Dopamine antagonists like metochlopramide increase

A

Gastric emptying

1402
Q

Cyclosporine toxicity affects

A

The kidneys

1403
Q

Incretins

A

Delay gastric emptying

1404
Q

Bier block

A

Lidocaine causes more toxicity than prilocaine

1405
Q

Use manual pads for

A

Newborn defibrillation

1406
Q

Beta 2 agonists like ritodrine

A

Hypokakemia

Hyperglycemia

1407
Q

Milrinone PDE3 inhibitor that

A

Increases cAMP and decreases SVR

1408
Q

Way to treat TET spell

A

More preload
Increase SVR

Shift blood from left to right

1409
Q

Opioids tramadol gabapentin for

A

Phantom limb pain

1410
Q

Hypersensitivity to contrast dye due to

A

Complement activity

1411
Q

Lusitropy

A

Ability of myocardium to relax

1412
Q

Myotonic dystrophy need to look for

A

Cardiac conduction abnormalities

1413
Q

RA on bottom of

A

Modesophageal bicabal view

LA is above

SVCcomes into right atrium from the left

1414
Q

Collecting duct

A

Produces ammonia

1415
Q

With hypoxia

A

Immediate increase in ventilation within 5 minutes

Hypoxia detected in carotid bodies

1416
Q

Hepatic extraction ratio

A

Hepatic clearance/hepatic blood flow

1417
Q

Therapeutic hypothermia for ppl who have experienced

A

V fib or v tach cardiac arrest

Intracranial hemorrhage pregnancy refractory hypotension are reasons not to do therapeutic hypothermia

1418
Q

Verapamil is a negative inotrope and not good for patients with

A

Heart failure

1419
Q

Hypotension due to

A

Air trapping and breath stacking with asthma exacerbation

1420
Q

4-5 days of Coumadin for

A

Epidural catheter

1421
Q

T test in normally distributed populations to look at the

A

Mean

1422
Q

Permeability of dura mater increased in

A

Elderly

1423
Q

Laryngeal edema common after

A

Surgery of the neck

1424
Q

Unilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve transectionyou get

A

Hoarseness but not stridor

Hypocalcemia hypoxia seen after 24 hrs

1425
Q

Fascia iliaca does not block

A

Obturator nerve

1426
Q

5HT 1 and 2 inhibition by

A

Cyproheptadine

1427
Q

Succinylcholine binds to

A

Nicotinic Ach receptors at neuromuscular junction

1428
Q

Post carotid endarterectomy headache give

A

Labetalol to lower BP

1429
Q

QRS length increased

A

In bundle branch blocks

1430
Q

Transplanted heart

A

Isoproterenol dobutamine epinephrine still act the same

No tone so don’t get reflex tachy

1431
Q

Almost all of the carbamino carriage of c02 is my

A

Hemoglobin

1432
Q

Zero order kinetics

A

Fixed amount of drug eliminated per unit time not percentage
Decreases linearly
Occurs when all the pathways for drug elimination are saturated

1433
Q

Vapor pressure decreases proportional to

A

Temperature

1434
Q

Meconium stained amniotic fluid

A

Higher with maternal cocaine usage
Iugr
Chorio

1435
Q

Elimination half life of neostigmine is

A

77 min

1436
Q

Magnesium

A

Potentiates NMDBs

1437
Q

Intravascular injection signs

A

HR>10
SBP>15
Bradycardia
T wave amplitude

Not ventricular ectopy

1438
Q

More likely uterine rupture if

A

Classical incision
Age>30 yes
1 previous c section
History of chorio with prior c section

1439
Q

Musculaocutaneous my injecting local into

A

Coracobrachialis muscle

1440
Q

Alveolar gas equation to get alveolar oxygen pressure

A

PA02 = 760 x fi02 - PaC02/.8

1441
Q

E size and smaller cylinders have

A

PISS

1442
Q

Most common side effect of intrathecal opioids is

A

Pruritis

Both epidural and spinal decrease gastric motility

1443
Q

Methadone

A

NMDA antagonist

Inhibits serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake

1444
Q

Ultrasound guided stellate ganglioni block

A

You see longus colli muscle

1445
Q

70% of innervation to shoulder joint is from

A

Suprascapular nerve

1446
Q

Dorsal foot and toes innervated by

A

Superficial peroneal

1447
Q

Predicted postop FEV1 and postop diffusing capacity of lung for carbon Dioxide

A

Postop respiratory complications after lung resection best tests

1448
Q

Within 24 hours of acetaminophen toxicity you get

A

Nausea/vomiting, abdominal pain, anorexia

Pallor/fatigue

1449
Q

Oil gas partition coefficient

A

Most closely associated with MAC of local Anesthetic

Inverse to MAC

1450
Q

Bronchiectasis

A

Hemoptysis
Decreased FEV1
Dilated bronchi

1451
Q

Which gas shortest period of time followining injection to vitreous

A

Air

1452
Q

Sulfhemoglobin

A

Right shift in curve
Measure by gas chromatography
Remains until red blood cell until destroyed
Doesn’t respond to methylene blue

1453
Q

Vasopressin better for severe AS then dobutamine or milrinone

A

Bc doesn’t decrease SVR and doesn’t affect PVR

1454
Q

Hypertrophy

A

Increase wall stress and higher myocardial oxygen demand

1455
Q

Refeeding

A

Hypophosphatemia

Hyperglycemia

1456
Q

Etomidate

A

Increases epileptiform activitybinduced by ECT
Enhanced amplitude of SSEPs
Maintains CPP

1457
Q

Prednisone doesn’t cause

A

Renal dysfunction

Cyclosporine does

1458
Q

Treat brain dead with

A

Steroids
NMDBs
Volatile anesthetics

No benzos

1459
Q

In ascites you compensate with increase in

A

Respiratory rate

Due to restrictive lung disease

DLCO decreases in ascites

1460
Q

Cross reactivity of penicillin allergy is highest with

A

First generation cephalosporins

1461
Q

SSEP latency increase with

A

Hypotension
Decrease cardiac output
Hypothermia
Hypoxemia decrease amplitude increases in latency

1462
Q

Dexamethasone increases metabolism of codeine to its

A

Active form

1463
Q

Remifentanyl won’t change with

A

Lower dibucaine number

1464
Q

Gentamicin

A

Increases neuromuscular blockade

1465
Q

Profound bradycardia and hypotension with

A

Manipulation carotid sinus

1466
Q

Prior to neuraxial block if plt count less than 100000 get

A

Coagulation studies

1467
Q

Desflurane leads to transient increase in

A

HR and BP

1468
Q

N20 leads to transient increase in

A

Cardiac output

1469
Q

Isoflurane maintains

A

Cardiac output

1470
Q

Use expired concentrations when calculating for

A

MAC

1471
Q

Brain
Heart
Kidney

Are part of

A

Vessel rich group

Lungs are not

1472
Q

Recovery from inhaled anesthesia from

A

Blood/gas solubility

1473
Q

After long N20 you cancause

A

Anemia seen in bone marrow

1474
Q

Oxygen and nitrous

A

Nitrous will cause oxygen to be taken up by second gas effect

1475
Q

Halothane

A

Only gas that has a preservative

1476
Q

Isoflurane has solubility in

A

Rubber and plastic

1477
Q

Sevoflurane forms

A

Compound A

1478
Q

Sevoflurane undergoes 2% metabolism

A

Which is the most of the gases

1479
Q

Washing of circuit equals priming circuit includes

A

Anesthesia bag
Hoses
Absorbent component

1480
Q

Prolonged PT can be helped by

A

Vitamin K
Cryoprecipitate
FFP

1481
Q

For platelets only need

A

RH matching

Platelets don’t contain RBCs

1482
Q

VwD

A

Most inherited coagulopathy

1483
Q

Can store erythrocytes for

A

Ten years frozen

1484
Q

Leukocyte reduction doesn’t help with

A

TRALI

Occurs within 6 hrs
Non cardiogenic pulmonary edema

1485
Q

TRALI more likely with

A

Female donor
Longer blood cells more than 14 days
Pooled plts

1486
Q

Infant blood volume

A

80 ml/kg

1487
Q

Hep B

A

Most common infection

1488
Q

Hemophilia A

A

X linked recesssive

1489
Q

Hematocrit

A

40%

Plasma volume 60%

1490
Q

During stress of surgery ADH

A

Increases

Causes decrease in urine output

1491
Q

Plts are most stored at

A

Higher temps to optimize function

1492
Q

Citrate toxicity

A

Decrease in ionized calcium

Leads to prolonged QT arterial hypotension

1493
Q

Calculate dose of sodium needed to raise by

A

Body weight kg x 0.6 x desired Na - Current Na

1494
Q

Intravascular half life of crystallography is

A

20 to 30 minutes

Colloid is 3-6 hrs

1495
Q

Abrupt discontinuation can lead to bad

A

Hypoglycemia which can show up as severe tachycardia

1496
Q

Heyastarch agfects

A

Factor 8 and vWf

1497
Q

Leftward shift due to less 2 3 DPG in

A

Stored blood

Stored blood hyperkalemia acidosis

1498
Q

Liver does not produce

A

Factor 8

Liver produces protein c s and antithrombin 3

1499
Q

LMWH acts on factor 10a best monitored by factor 10 assay

Unfractionated heparin activates antithrombin best seen with

A

PTT

1500
Q

Reduction of leukocytes prevents

A

CMV

1501
Q

Regular insulin

A

Peak effect 2 to 3 hours after subq administration and lasts 8 hrs

Cholpropramide is a sulfonurea that lasts 3 days

1502
Q

Normal Pv02 in mixed venous is

A

40

If higher due to increase in cardiac output etc

1503
Q

25 to 30

A

Normal tracheal capillary pressure

1504
Q

Coedine must be metabolized to morphine in order to

A

Work via the CYP2D6 enzyme

1505
Q

Balloon angioplasty without a stent

A

2 wks

1506
Q

Retinal artery thrombosis higher in

A

Glaucoma patients because already have high ICP

1507
Q

Naloxone

A

Competitive inhibitor at all opioid u receptors acts for 1 hour

Naltrexone is long acting only oral and lasts half life 8-12 hrs

1508
Q

Airway problems from hypocalcemia show at

A

24-72 hours post op

1509
Q

Bronchiectasis

A

Main cause is air pollution

Permanently dilated bronchi that often contain secretions

1510
Q

Extravasation of drugs in anyecubital fossa affects

A

Median nerve

1511
Q

Delirium tremens shows up

A

2 to 4 days since last drink

1512
Q

Relative contraindication to tracheal surgery if

A

Post op mechanical ventilation needed bc can lead to wound dehiscence

1513
Q

Green eye drops

A

Miosis

1514
Q

CBF reserve is substantial

A

First signs of cerebral ischemia aren’t seen until cbf has fallen to 22 ml/100g/min

1515
Q

Closest to Mac value

A

Oil/gas partition coefficient

1516
Q

High oil/gas=

A

Low MAC

1517
Q

Central diabetes insipidus will

A

Pee a lot

1518
Q

Anticholinesterases used to reverse neuromuscular blockade also act on

A

Psuedocholinesterase thus if you give succ after reversing it will last longer

1519
Q

Trendelenberg causes pooling of

A

Fluid in dome of bladder

1520
Q

Decrease in blood volume =

A

Decrease in DLCO

1521
Q

Increased end expiratory C02 one of the first signs in

A

MH

1522
Q

If you don’t get MH it is still likely you can get it the

A

Next time you get an anesthetic

1523
Q

Trismus

A

Rigidity of jaw muscles

Indicates MH in less than 50% of patients

1524
Q

Prevent pulmonary fibrosis from bleomycin by using lower

A

Fi02 levels

1525
Q

Can use N20 10 days after

A

Intravtreal injection of air and SF6

1526
Q

Volume overload can be seen with

A

TURP procedure

1527
Q

Trigeminal does muscles of mastication including

A

Clenching the teeth

1528
Q

02 carrying capacity goes up when you give

A

Hemoglobin

1529
Q

Huntington chorea

A

Decreased psuedocholinesterase

1530
Q

PaC02 going up out of normal range will increase

A

IOP

1531
Q

Apnea hypopnea index

A

AHI greater than 30 is severe osa

Shows number of incidences in 1 hr

1532
Q

Bad pulmonary function tests

A

Residual volume/TLC > 50%

1533
Q

Pa02 is actually lower than abg

A

I’d pt is cold

1534
Q

Supfhemoglobin and methemoglobin both cause low Sa02 with good Pa02

A

Sulfasalazine can cause sulfhemoglobin

1535
Q

LMWH

A

Only partially reversed by protamine

Longer half life than unfractionated heparin

1536
Q

Scopolamine

A

Anticholinergic so can lead to mydriasis

1537
Q

NMS and MH both causes

A

Hyperthermia
Generalized muscular rigidity
Effectively treated with dantrolene

1538
Q

Most common reason outpatient gets admitted post surgery is due to

A

Nausea vomiting

1539
Q

Don’t give tramadol to

A

Depressed/suicidal patients

High nausea/vomiting

1540
Q

Urine sodium less than 20=

A

Prerenal disease

1541
Q

N20 MAC

A

104%

1542
Q

Fenoldopam can be used besides

A

Nitroprusside

1543
Q

Prolonged insulin in pts with

A

Renal disease

1544
Q

Gabapentin is similar to

A

Carbamazepine

1545
Q

Stuck inspiratory valve will lead to

A

Old gases and C02 coming through inspiratory valve leading to increased inspired C02

1546
Q

After transphenoidal hypophysectomy

A

CPAP is contraindicated

1547
Q

Malignant hyperthermia

A

Mixed venous is low

1548
Q

Most hemodynamic instability in liver transplant during

A

Reperfusion phase

Need epi atropine calcium and sodium bicarbonate

1549
Q

Female is the strongest predictor of

A

PONV

1550
Q

Ketorolac has affects on

A

Bone healing

1551
Q

X syndrome

A

Insulin resistance

1552
Q

Pulses are last to go in

A

Compartment syndrome

1553
Q

Anterior spinal artery syndrome affects

A

Motor but not SSEPs

1554
Q

Botulism prevents release of

A

AcH

1555
Q

Most common injury with lithotomy

A

Common peroneal

1556
Q

Fetal hemoglobin for first

A

6 mo

1557
Q

Glottis of feel newborn is at

A

C4

1558
Q

Water content 75% in

A

Term newborns

1559
Q

ROP In fetus not affected by giving mother

A

Oxygen

1560
Q

Much less unlikely to get ROP in

A

Term infant

1561
Q

Spontaneous breathing easier in

A

Uncuffed tube bc it’s bigger

Usually cuffed tubes are a little smaller

1562
Q

Want a leak at 15 to 25 cm h20

A

Allows for adequate ventilation and reduces incidence of postintubation croup

1563
Q

Age/2 plus 12

A

Tube length inserted in cm

Or tube length x 3

1564
Q

Normal saline

A

Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis

Best maintenance fluid in Peds is LR

1565
Q

High Vd in children means

A

You need more of drugs

1566
Q

Less than 60 wks gestational age watch patient overnight looking for

A

Apnea

1567
Q

Spinal cord of infant ends at

A

L2-L3

1568
Q

Wait 4-6 weeks if child

A

Has cough and sore throat

1569
Q

Healthy full term neonate blood volume

A

80-90 ml/kg

1570
Q

Parkland formula for first 24 hrs

A

4 x weight kg x percent burned

1571
Q

Epiglottis induction

A

Transfer to or inhalation induction tracheal intubation

1572
Q

Rapid sequence can be done in infants

A

With GERD

1573
Q

First expand fluids in child

A

With dehydration

1574
Q

Infants younger than 3 months produce heat by

A

Metabolism of brown fat

1575
Q

Normal RR for 6 mo old

A

Is 25-35

1576
Q

Don’t use loss of air in child bc of risk of

A

Air embolus

1577
Q

Anemia nephropathy hemolytic anemia in child

A

Hemolytic uremic syndrome

1578
Q

Terbutaline does not cause

A

HTN

1579
Q

Organogenesis at

A

3-8 weeks

1580
Q

Pregnancy

A

Minute ventilation

Tidal volume increase

1581
Q

Placing central pine give IV abx prior to

A

Immunosuppressed patients or neonates

1582
Q

Moderate sedation

A

Check verbal response each 5 minutes

Need pulse ox and bp every 5 minutes

Don’t need ecg unless cardiovascular risks

Capnography is preferred

1583
Q

Reynolds number for turbulent flow

A

Velocity x radius x density/ viscosity

1584
Q

SEM =

A

SD/square of sample size

1585
Q

Paired t test

A

Same subjects

1586
Q

Selectivity bias

A

Who responds to survey

1587
Q

P value

A

Probability of obtaining certain data set if the NULl hypothesis is true and correct

Not alternative hypothesis

1588
Q

Type 1

A

Accepting alternative when null is true

Alpha value

1589
Q

Power =

A

1-beta

Ability of study to detect a true difference

1590
Q

Incidence

A

Number of new events in period of time/number at risk

1591
Q

Relative risk

A

Indidence In exposed/incidence in unexposed

1 = no difference

1592
Q

Difficult mask ventilation

A

Age>65
Edebturloss
Mallalptaei 3 4
Beard

Obesity
I’m

1593
Q

Difficult airway

A

Mallampati 3-4
Thyromenral distance small
Inter incisor distance < 3cm

1594
Q

Supine position

A

Decreases FRC

1595
Q

PaC02 drops in

A

Pregnant patient

1596
Q

In pregnant

A

EF increases, CVP pcwp unchanged

1597
Q

Need

A

Left uterine displacement in pregnancy

1598
Q

Hypercoaguable In

A

Pregnancy

More plasminogen leads to enhanced fibrinolysis

Most coagulation factors go up including fibrinogen

1599
Q

Pregnancy

A

WBC Count goes up mainly postpartum

Risk of infection actually higher bc less ability of neutrophils to function

1600
Q

Npo except

A

Clears during labor

1601
Q

Creatinine clearance increases

A

Pregnancy

1602
Q

Pregnancy decrease

A

MAC

1603
Q

Psuedocholinesterase

A

Decrease in pregnancy

More sensitive to roc and vecuronium

1604
Q

Neuraxial

A

Further decreases in FRC

1605
Q

UBF increase

A

100 to 700-900 ml min at term

Uteroplacental low resistance circuit based on pressure and can auto regulate

1606
Q

Fetal hemoglobin

A

Lower Pa02

1607
Q

Insulin requirement

A

Decreases postpartum

1608
Q

Depomedrol contains

A

Methylpresnisolone

1609
Q

Cannabidiol for

A

Pediatric seizures

1610
Q

Warm sensation from

A

C fibers

1611
Q

Neostigmine causes

A

PONV

1612
Q

PONV

A

0 risk just zofran
1 risk zofran dexamethasone
2 is zofran dexamethasone and prop infusion

3 or more get scopolamine patch as well

APFEL score
Female
History PONV
No smoker
Post op opioids
1613
Q

Dexamethasone mainly

A

Glucocorticoid activity

Minimal mineralocorticoid

1614
Q

Promethazine

A

Dopamine antagonist as is metochlopramide(increase LES fine and gut motility, don’t give to patient with bowel obstruction)

1615
Q

Droperidol black box warning against

A

QT interval prolongation

1616
Q

Aprepitabt

A

Nk1 antagonist

Ephedrine is also an antiemetic

1617
Q

BMI

A

Kg/meters squared

1618
Q

PONV

A

Avoid hypervolemia

1619
Q

Median nerve is

A

Above axillary artery

1620
Q

Naloxone start with 0.04 and can give every

A

2 minutes

1621
Q

Flumazinil start with

A

0.2mg

1622
Q

What nerve mediates laryngospasm

A

Superior laryngeal

1623
Q

Laryngospasm

A

Just thrustbhead lift

Oral/nasal airway succ more prop

1624
Q

Failsafe prevents

A

Hypoxia mixture

1625
Q

Stop nitrous if ppm<30

A

02

1626
Q

Sodium binds

A

Alpha intracellular receptors

1627
Q

Lower pKa of local anesthetic =

A

Unionized

1628
Q

The ionized form! It changes once it goes in the membrane is what binds

A

Sodium channel

1629
Q

In infected environment pH of environment is lowered so

A

More ionized and slower onset

1630
Q

Lidocaine pKa

A

7.9

1631
Q

Local anesthetic decrease MAC requirement by

A

40%

Inhibit inflammation

1632
Q

Max dose of bupi

A

2.5 mg/kg

1633
Q

Local anesthetic systemic absorption

A

Iv>tracheal>intercostal etc

1634
Q

Systemic absorption depends on the

A

Dose of local anesthetic
It’s pharmacokinetic propertied
Addition of vasoactive agent like epi

1635
Q

Local anesthetics regularly cross

A

BBB

1636
Q

Malignant hyperthermia

A

Autosomal dominant with variable penetrate and expression

1637
Q

C02 production and metabolic acidosis =

A

Malignant hyperthermia

1638
Q

Malignant hyperthermia not cause by

A

Nitrous

Masseter muscle rigidity trismus due to increased calcium

1639
Q

Increase o2 consumption with

A

Malignant hyperthermia

See rhabdomyolysis

Usually first sign is hypercarbia

1640
Q

Immediate actions MH

A

Call for help my cart
Stop anesthetics
Call MH hotline
Get ABG Ck coags

Give 2.5 mg/kg dantrolene

1641
Q

Dantrolene has

A

Mannitol in it

1642
Q

MH leads to

A

Hyperkalemia due to acidosis

Watch patient for 24 hours look for DIC ortenal failure

1643
Q

Gold standard to rule out MH

A

Caffeine halothane contracture test

1644
Q

Give abx within

A

60 minutes prior to surgical excision

All the antibiotic should be in before tourniquet is inflated!

1645
Q

Give cipro

A

Slowly over 60 minutes

1646
Q

History of anaphylactic to penicillins is absolute contraindication to giving

A

Cephalosporins

1647
Q

Anaphylactoid reaction Is

A

Dose dependent

Anaphylactic reaction is not

1648
Q

HOCM/MVP does need

A

Bacterial endocarditis prophylaxis

1649
Q

Radial nerve below

Median nerve above!

A

Axillary artery

1650
Q

Curare cleft

A

Muscle strength coming back

1651
Q

Large molecules like albumin or prealbumin don’t get

A

Hemolysis

1652
Q

St segment depression

A

Subendocardial ischemia

1653
Q

Acute normovolemuc hemodilution

A

Compensate with higher cardiac output and lower PVR

Blood viscosity goes down

1654
Q

PSV only on

A

Spontaneously breathing pt

1655
Q

Brachial artery cannulatoo big complication is

A

Thrombosis

1656
Q

Lose first stage regulator could

A

Depleted oxygen tank

1657
Q

Cardiac output is

A

Maintained with desflurane usage

1658
Q

Mivacurium broken down by

A

Psuedocholinesterase

1659
Q

Psuedocholinesterase levels are lower in

A

Burn patients

1660
Q

Metochlopramide contraindicated in patients with

A

Bowel obstruction

1661
Q

Antibodies formed against donor

A

Leukocytes after massive transfusion

Cause febrile reaction

To Hla leukocytes

1662
Q

Palatoglossal fold

A

Glossopharyngeal nerve

1663
Q

Fully compensated means the pH is in

A

Normal range

1664
Q

A delta most sensitive to local

A

Anesthetics

C fibers least sensitive

1665
Q

Atropine works best with

A

Edrophonium

1666
Q

Insulin causes

A

Active transport of glucose and potassium into the cell

1667
Q

Citrate intoxication leads to

A

Hypomagnesium

1668
Q

Separation anxiety starts at

A

6 months

1669
Q

Worsening hypoxemia whole standing with

A

Hepatopulmknary syndrome

PVR is lower in this syndrome

Standing up blood goes lower into areas of no ventilation

1670
Q

mean PAP above 50 is

A

Absolute contraindication to liver transplant

1671
Q

Sodium potassium pumps require

A

ATP so fucked up during ischemia

1672
Q

Zofran main side effect

A

Headache

1673
Q

Preeclampsia

A

Intravascular volume depletion
High SVR
Decreased uterine or placental blood flow

1674
Q

Greater Cornu of hyoid bone gets

A

Internal branch of superior laryngeal

1675
Q

Don’t give hydrocortisone if septic shock is responsive to fluid or

A

Vasopressors

1676
Q

Prerenal oliguria

A

Urine to plasma osmolar ratio >1.5

1677
Q

Non shivering thermogenesis trigger in infants

A

Norepinephrine thyroxine

1678
Q

PDPH gold standard

A

EEG

1679
Q

MAOi use

A

Increase MAC

1680
Q

Carboprost

A

Uterine contraction not relaxation

Don’t use it pulmknary HTN or reactive airway disease

1681
Q

Logistic regression analysis use

A

Adjusted odds ratio

1682
Q

Cohort use

A

Relative risk

1683
Q

Warfarin

A

Teratogenic

Use heparin first to get inr within range bc it is usually thrombotic

1684
Q

HBOxygen for

A

Air embolism
CO poisoning
Chronic ischemic ulcers

1685
Q

Excessive growth hormone patients have

A

Normal lung volumes

IGF1 looks for acromegaly

1686
Q

Most cardiac myxomas are found in

A

Left atrium

1687
Q

Infant blood volume

A

70-80 ml/kg

1688
Q

Closing of mitral valve occurs at

A

R wave of QRS

1689
Q

Ectothiphate blocks

A

Psuedocholinesterase

1690
Q

Posteromedial papillary muscle is supplied by the

A

RCA

1691
Q

Polyhydraminos risk factor for

A

Placenta accreta

1692
Q

Discoverable info includes

A

Conversations with friends, charting about patient, emails

1693
Q

L5 =

A

Big toe

1694
Q

Lambert Eaton

A

More sensitive to NMDB and succ

1695
Q

Lambert Eaton

A

More sensitive to NMDB and succ

1696
Q

MS exacerbation likely

A

Post partum

Most common is relapsing remitting

Beta interferon treatment

1697
Q

Mid humerus

A

Radial nerve damage

1698
Q

Extension of elbow

A

Median nerve injury

1699
Q

Synchronize shocks in ecg during shock wave lithotripsy to

A

R waves

1700
Q

Vasospasm most likely at

A

2-14 days

1701
Q

MCA and ICA tested in

A

Transcranial doppler

1702
Q

<1mm of blood in

A

Hunt Hess for SAH

1703
Q

Hematoma absorption or lots of blood given

A

Increase bilirubin

Not hepatic enzymes

1704
Q

Coracobrachialis

A

Musculocutaneois nerve

1705
Q

Increase FRC

A

Increased age increase height

1706
Q

Pangos=

A

Low FRC

1707
Q

Coma
A scene of brain stem reflexes
Apnea in

A

Brain death

1708
Q

Don’t give what med intramuscular

A

Norepinephrine

Can lead to tissue necrosis

1709
Q

Normal dibucaine number =

A

80

1710
Q

Phenotoyin increases

A

Neuromuscular blockade

1711
Q

OSA hypoxemia can lead to

A

Polycythemia

Preop anemia is independent risk factor for morbidity/mortality

1712
Q

Septic shock

A

Decrease end tidal c02

Cortisol release leads to hyperglycemia

1713
Q

Uterine relaxation doesn’t happen with

A

Neuraxial blockade

1714
Q

Uterine rupture

A

Fetal bradycardia

1715
Q

AST is not a good indicator of just

A

Liver disease

1716
Q

Diaphragm moves more

A

Cephalad in pregnant patient leading to reduced FRC

1717
Q

Down syndrome

A

Cervical instability

45% have CV deficits-endocardial cushion deficits most common

1718
Q

PVR is highest at

A

Extremes of lung volumes

1719
Q

Familial hypocalcemic hypocalciuria

A

Autosomal dominant

1720
Q

PDPH is

A

Positional

1721
Q

Fever nuchal rigidity altered mental status

A

Meningitis

1722
Q

Ace inhibitor use

A

Maternal oligohydraminos

1723
Q

Acidosis

A

Decrease SVR increase PVR

1724
Q

Botulism moa

A

Inhibition of intracellular fusion Ach containing vesicles

1725
Q

Fena

A

Plasma creatinine x urine sodium/urine creatinine x plasma sodium

1726
Q

Continue dantrolene for

A

24 hour after acute mh resolved

Initial dose 2.5 mg/kg

1727
Q

Paresthesia/cant void think

A

Cauda equina

1728
Q

More renin

A

Cirrhotic pts

1729
Q

Spread of local anesthetic in epidural space mainly effected by

A

Volume of anesthetic

1730
Q

DLCO is higher in

A

Asthma exercise left to right shunt(more blood to lungs)

1731
Q

Chi square

A

Acts on one discrete variable

T test is one continuous variable like BP

1732
Q

Central diabetes insipidus start with

A

Free water

1733
Q

Periop hyperglycemia associated with

A

Sympathy adrenergic activity and not bradycardia

1734
Q

Hyperglycemia

A
More immunosuppressive
Infections 
Sympatho adrenergic activity 
Increase catabolism 
Delayed gastric emptying
1735
Q

Need endocarditis prophylaxis

A

Hearty transplant with cardiac valvular disease

1736
Q

Only beta blocker metabolized by kidneys

A

Atenolol

1737
Q

Peritoneal dialysis has less hemodynamic changes than

A

Hemodialysis

1738
Q

Duration of action of nmdb and onset is delayed in

A

Elderly

1739
Q

Want a leak of

A

20-30 cm

1740
Q

4-6 hrs before epidural with

A

Subq heparin

1741
Q

Desflurane

A

Prolongs neuromuscular blockade the most

1742
Q

If patients intrinsic hr higher than pacemaker on asynchronous can lead to

A

R on T

1743
Q

Inferior wall on transgastric short acix on top

A

Anterior wall on bottom

1744
Q

NMDA receptor

A

Increases serum calcium

1745
Q

Organophosphate poisoning

A

Atropine

Pralidoxime

1746
Q

Dobutamine best for cardiogenic shock if BP good

A

Increase CI / decrease afterload

1747
Q

CBF changes with

A

C02

1748
Q

Separation anxiety starts at

A

6-8 mo in age

1749
Q

Don’t give potassium or dextrose in infant solutions

A

Until initial bolus given

1750
Q

Glucagon released from

A

Alpha cells and increases hepatic artery blood flow

1751
Q

Trigeminal neuralgia

A

Anesthesia dolorosa

1752
Q

Hypalgisua

A

Decreased response to noxious stimulus

1753
Q

Neostigmine for reversal than giving succ

A

Increases phase 1 block

1754
Q

If pacemaker dependent convert to

A

Asynchronous

1755
Q

Unripe and false labor

A

Delay in latent stage of labor

1756
Q

Increase CBF only after

A

1.5 MAC

1757
Q

Etc02 doesn’t change with

A

Tourniquet release

1758
Q

Metochlopramide inhibits

A

Plasma cholinesterase

1759
Q

Hepatic steatosis common with

A

TPN

1760
Q

Type 1 hepatirebal syndrome

A

Acute onset

Type 2 is gradual

1761
Q

Aminoester allergy think

A

PABA

Aminoamide think methylparaben

1762
Q

Bronchospasm

Kinked tube think

A

High peak pressure

1763
Q

Abdominal insufflation and obesity

A

Increased plateau and peak

1764
Q

A alpha divers

A

Propioception

1765
Q

Decreased SID =

A

Decreased pH

1766
Q

Norepinephrine broken down in

A

Lungs

1767
Q

Milrinone

A

Pde3 inhibitor

1768
Q

Higher length of tubing

A

Underdampening

1769
Q

Beta blocker affects the numbers on the

A

BIS

1770
Q

Transducer on us

A

Goes through bone the most

1771
Q

Increase in temp to platelets due to

A

Cytokines

1772
Q

Inhalational anesthetics act at

A

Amphilic cavities of proteins

1773
Q

Quinolone sulfa can lead to

A

G6PD hemolysis

1774
Q

Non shivering thermogenesis in adults

A

Skeletal muscle

Infants at brown fat

1775
Q

Boiling point of desflurane

A

Lower than Sevoflurane so needs a heated vaporizer to keep at constant temp so stays as liquid so you have predictable concentration

1776
Q

Precedex and opioids lower

A

BIS

1777
Q

Give first blood taken

A

Last

Has the most RBCs

1778
Q

Moonlight clinical activity at home patient educational activity

A

Counts as part of 80 hr workweek

1779
Q

Catecholamines are higher at rest and during stress in

A

Elderly

This is why they can’t mount a good response

1780
Q

Hypoplastic left heart

A

ASDs associated

Left ventricle is nonfunctional

1781
Q

Muscarinic activation

A

Decreased cAMP which opposes sympathetic activation

1782
Q

Ketamine

A

NMDA receptor antagonist

Also increases myocardial oxygen demand therefore not indicated with ischemic heart disease

1783
Q

Botulism treat with

A

Antitoxin

1784
Q

Airway reflexes and respiratory drive is preserved with

A

Ketamine

1785
Q

St. John’s wart promotes

A

Cytyrome p450

Stop 5 days before surgery and don’t continue it

1786
Q

Autonomic hyperreflexis

A

Vasoconstriction below

Vasodilation above lesion and flushing

1787
Q

Lidocaine reduces duration of seizures so don’t use during

A

ECT

1788
Q

Hypothermia increasss

A

Alveolar partial pressure

Decrease arterial partial pressure

1789
Q

As you age decrease

A

Arterial and venous vasculature compliance

1790
Q

Palatoglosal fold

A

Glossopharyngeal nerve

1791
Q

CPAP reduces

A

Surfactant depletion

Respiratory rate is typically decreased

1792
Q

Oropharynx

A

Soft palate to epiglottis

1793
Q

Nasopharynx

A

Base of skull to soft palate

1794
Q

Opioids are best dosed by

A

Lean body weight

1795
Q

Febrile rxn due to

A

HLA antibodies

1796
Q

Resting tachycardia seen with

A

Diabetic autonomic neuropathy

Don’t see sweating

1797
Q

Kleppil feil

A

Cervical spine fusion

1798
Q

Large blood volumes containing sodium citrate lead to

A

Metabolic alkalosis

1799
Q

Cystic fibrosis

A

Autosomal recessive
Mutation on chromosome 7 defective chloride channel in epithelium
Greater bronchial reactivity

Keep Fi02 up want to avoid pulmonary vasoconstriction and HTN

Pancreatic insufficiency

1800
Q

Buprenorphine for opioid

A

Withdrawal

1801
Q

LV mainly perfused during

A

Diastole

1802
Q

Anterior spinal artery

A

75% of spinal blood supply

1803
Q

Pulmonary surfactant increases when

A

Alveoli shrink

1804
Q

Donepizol increaeed

A

Succ

1805
Q

TPN associated with

A

Thrombophlebitis and infection

1806
Q

When placed under pressure nitrous oxidebis in

A

Liquid form

1807
Q

Ulnar nerve for adduction of

A

Thumb

1808
Q

Catecholamines are higher at rest and during stress in

A

Elderly

This is why they can’t mount a good response

1809
Q

White rain communicates

A

Preganglionic neuron

1810
Q

Parasympathetic CN 3

A

Ciliary ganglion

1811
Q

Halothane

A

Most likely to cause arrhythmia
Slows conduction through SA node leading to bradycardia
Decreases MAP and CO
Unchanged HR due to blunting of baroceptor reflex

1812
Q

Isoflurane maintains cardiac output due to

A

Preserved carotid baroceotor reflex which responds to decreased SVR with increase in HR to maintain cardiac output

1813
Q

Compound A accumulation associated with

A

Long duration anesthetic, low fresh gas flow, higher inhaled concentration Sevoflurane and absorbent dessication

1814
Q

Desflurane

A

Increased CBF
DECREASED CMR02
decrease MAP and SVR increase HR maintain CO

Increased RR
Decreased TV

1815
Q

Speed of induction based on

A

Rate of rise of Fa/Fi

Desflurane has lowest blood gas partition coefficient and is the least soluble and will result in quickest induction

1816
Q

Nitrous oxide should be discontinued how many minutes prior to the placement of gas bubble in the eye

A

15 minutes

1817
Q

Wait ten days to use nitrous oxide after

A

Bubble formed from SF6

For air causing intraocular bubble can wait 5 days

1818
Q

SSEPS act on peripheral nerves

A

Increase in latency and decrease in amplitude of the response

1819
Q

SSEP most common nerves

A

Posterior tibial, median, ulnar nerve

Increase in latency OR decrease in amplitude from BASELINE indicate neurologic decline

1820
Q

Gas exchange worsens with higher anesthetic concentrations and PaC02 rises

A

Dead space ventilation increases compared to alveolar ventilation due to decrease in tidal volume
Gas blunts hypoxic/hypercarbic respiratory drive

1821
Q

Desflurane vapor pressure of 660 very close to atmospheric pressure of 760 so minimal changes

A

Can have large effect on vaporizer output

Desflurane is close to boiling even at room temp

1822
Q

Higher altitudes

Partial pressure of inhaled agent will be decreased

A

Desflurane vaporizer dial must be set HIGHER at higher elevation to ensure same anesthetic effect due to decrease in partial pressure

Partial pressure is what’s important not the concentration

1823
Q

Nitrous oxide 34 times more soluble than

A

Nitrogen in blood

1824
Q

Contraindications to nitrous oxide use

A
Venous air embolus
Pneumothorax 
Pneumocepahlus
COPD with blebs
Acute intestinal obstruction 
Tympanic membrane grafting
1825
Q

MAC to describe

A

Potency or volatile anesthetics

Alveolar concentration that will stop movement in 50% of patients response to standard surgical stimulation

MAC decreases 6% per decade

1826
Q

Things not affecting MAC

A

Thyroid state
Gender
Duration of anesthetic
PH alterations

1827
Q

Emergence coincides with

A

Decreasing inhalation anesthetic BRAIN CONCENTRATION

Emergence is faster than induction
Continues to be absorbed by adipose tissue during emergence

1828
Q

Which is not part of the vital organs that gets 75% of cardiac output

A

Lungs

1829
Q

Vessel rich organs get

A

75% of cardiac output

Small volume, moderate solubility, rapid saturation

1830
Q

Slowest metabolism is seen with

A

Desflurane

1831
Q

Enflurane can produce

A

Fluoride ions which can lead to high output renal failure

1832
Q

Nitrous oxide cylinder will stay at constant pressure 750 psi until about

A

400 liters is left in the cylinder

1833
Q

Nitrous oxide

A

Macrocytic anemia

1834
Q

Hepatic necrosis seen with

A

Halothane

1835
Q

CMR02 increases with

A

Nitrous oxide administration

1836
Q

0.5 MAC of volatile anesthetic

A

For maternal amnesia

Fetal presentation of anesthetic overdose includes cardiopulmonary depression and hypotonia

1837
Q

Neuraxial opioids act on

A

Mu receptors substantiatia gelatinosa

1838
Q

Less soluble opioids remain in CSF

A

Transfer to more cephalad locations

1839
Q

Binding of alpha 2 delta subunit calcium

A

Mechanism of gabapentin

1840
Q

Uremia lower dose of

A

Midazolam

1841
Q

Esmolol broken down by

A

Red blood cell esterases

1842
Q

Desmopressin

A

Improves perioperative platelet dysfunction in uremic patients

1843
Q

Propofol causes dose dependent decrease in amplitude of

A

SSEPs and increases SSEP latency

1844
Q

Synthesis and release of angiotensinogen

A

Liver

1845
Q

Most resistant evoked potential

A

BAEP

1846
Q

Most sensitive to volatile anesthetics

A

VEPs

1847
Q

Atrial fibrillation can see loss of

A

A wave

1848
Q

Pneumothorax

A

No lung sliding and no B lines

1849
Q

Most selective for alpha 2 receptors

A

Precedex is much more selective than Clonidine

1850
Q

Alpha 2

A

Found presynaptic ally and inhibit norepinephrine release

1851
Q

Dobutamine acts on Beta 1 more than

A

Beta 2

1852
Q

Terbutaline

A

Beta 2 selective

1853
Q

Nicardipine causes

A

Direct cerebral vasodilation

1854
Q

MAP 60 to 160

A

Cerebral auto regulation

1855
Q

Muscarinic receptor activation leads to

A

Diaphoresis

Bradycardia bronchospasm

1856
Q

Muscarinic receptors round mainly at

A

Parasympathetic postganionic innervating target organs

1857
Q

Preganglionic neurons of sympathetic nervous system

A

Ach

1858
Q

Eccrine sweat glands

A

AcH

1859
Q

Pulse pressure equal to SBP-DBP

A

As bp cuff moves more distally sbp increases and dbp thus decreases

1860
Q

MAP

A

Cuff pressure at which the amplitude or the magnitude of the oscillations is greatest

1861
Q

Lumbar nerve roots exit

A

Same pedicle

1862
Q

Clevidipine broken down by

A

Plasma esterases

1863
Q

Most common complication of retrobulbar block

A

Retrobulbar hemorrhage

1864
Q

Phospholipoprotein surfactant

A

Type 2 alveolar cells

1865
Q

Muscle weakness with high doses of magnesium

A

Blockade of calcium channels

1866
Q

Sudden polymorphic V tach in patient undergoing asynchronous ventricular pacing think

A

R on T phenomenon

1867
Q

Postop elevated liver enzymes due to

A

Surgical procedure

1868
Q

ACTH stimulates release of steroid hormones from adrenal

A

Cortex

1869
Q

Secondary adrenal insufficiency

A

Decreased ACTH production in the anterior pituitary

1870
Q

Intrascalene nerve block for shoulder injection of local anesthetic in what vessel leads to seizure

A

Vertebral artery

1871
Q

CYP2D6

A

Coedine

1872
Q

Fixed airway obstruction

A

Tracheal stenosis

1873
Q

Treat high spinal quickly with

A

Epinephrine

1874
Q

Decreased filling pressure leads to bradycardia

A

Bezold Jarisxh reflex

1875
Q

Neonates are less sensitive to codeine compared to school age children due to less

A

CYP2D6 activity

1876
Q

Tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy don’t use

A

Coeidine

1877
Q

Epinephrine

A

Increase in plasma free fatty acid levels

1878
Q

Beta 1 leads to

A

Lipolysis

Beta 2 increases glycogenolysis

1879
Q

First line for status epilepticus

A

Benzodiazepines

1880
Q

Cornual placenta

A

Predisposes to breech fetal presentation

So does macrosomia, multiparty, multiple gestations

1881
Q

Diltiazem

A

Acts on both smooth muscle and cardiac muscle

Vasodilator and cardiac depressant

1882
Q

Hydrogen ion concentration no affect

A

On cerebral blood flow

1883
Q

Fluoxetine prolongs effect of

A

Midazolam

1884
Q

Phase 1 rxn

A

Oxidation reduction hydrolysis

1885
Q

LIM

A

Monitors integrity of ungrounded power source
Alarms when leakage current greater than 5 mAMps
A first fault is not a shock hazard, a second fault is a hazard to operating room personnel

1886
Q

Etomidate

A

Increases amplitude of SSEPs

Decrease cerebral blood flow

1887
Q

SNS from

A

T1-L2

1888
Q

Water moves

A

Freely across BBB

1889
Q

For new a fib without hemodynamic instability

A

Beta blocker or calcium channel blocker

Don’t give beta blocker if COPD or diabetes

1890
Q

Best for platelet dysfunction

A

Optical aggregometry

1891
Q

Mixed venous from

A

Proximal pulmonary artery

1892
Q

Chest wall rigidity due to

A

Opioids

1893
Q

Succ can increase

A

Tracheal tone

1894
Q

Most likely to cause fire

A

Polyvinyl chloride

1895
Q

Bupivicaine intravascular

A

Increase in PR interval
QRS duration increase
T wave amplitude goes up

1896
Q

Caudal block

A

Surgery below umbilicus

1897
Q

Hypocarbia from hyperventilation during

A

Venipuncture

1898
Q

Motor innervation from tounge is entirely from

A

Hypoglossal nerve

1899
Q

Blockade of T type channels is MOA of

A

Ethosuximide

1900
Q

Isoflurane has higher vapor pressure than Sevoflurane thus can cause

A

Anesthetic overdose

1901
Q

Most common slice of vaporizer leak

A

Loose filler cap

1902
Q

If vaporizer tips go at high flow 20 minutes with vaporizer dial set at high

A

Concentration

1903
Q

LV diastolic dysfunction goes with LV

A

Hypertrophy

1904
Q

ACC/AHA guidelines

A

Good cardiac guidelines

1905
Q

RCRI risk

A

Type of surgery

Creatinine etc

1906
Q

Life threatening surgery

A

You just do it

1907
Q

Don’t do stress echo

A

If st elevations

Call cardiology and do a cath

You don’t want to stress patient with echo

1908
Q

Age does not affect

A

ECG getting it

1909
Q

In Stent

A

Thrombosis

6 months for DES

1910
Q

Know

A

Lbbb vs rbbb

1911
Q

Only do beta blocker if patient already on it in

A

OR don’t just give can lead to stroke

1912
Q

Troponin can last

A

7 days

1913
Q

Cirrhosis doesn’t affect

A

Troponins

1914
Q

First line is benzos for

A

Cocaine

Not calcium channel blocker bc doesn’t get to coronaries

1915
Q

ANP released in

A

A fib - atrial dilation

1916
Q

Septal

A

V1, V2

1917
Q

Lateral

A

1, aVl

1918
Q

Least pruritis

A

Meperidine is the least

1919
Q

Oculocardiac
Bainbridgre
Gag reflex

A

Affyerent ovculocardiac goes through gasserian ganglion- efferent through vagus

1920
Q

Ca absorption the most

A

Thiazides

1921
Q

Loop diuretics

A

Hyponatremia

1922
Q

Cyanide CO toxicity treated with

A

Hyperbaric oxygen

1923
Q

Benzocaine prilocaine

A

Methemoglobinrkia

1924
Q

Minimum effect on PVR

A

Vasopressin

1925
Q

What causes release of intrinsic vasopressin

A

Hypertonicity!

1926
Q

Vasopressin goes down with

A

Chronic septic shock

1927
Q

Racemic epi

A

To treat strider

1928
Q

Near drowning pathophysiology

A

Shunt

First get reflex laryngospasm

1929
Q

CSF pH regulation

A

By C02

1930
Q

Know respiratory changes in pregnancy

A

Pregnancy

1931
Q

Know fetal heart tracing

A

In pregnant

1932
Q

Desflurane

A

At high altitude

1933
Q

Descending bellow

A

Tells you if circuit disconnect

1934
Q

Hyperparathyroidism

A

Increased dose due to Ach

1935
Q

MSK

A

Innervayre which part of arm

1936
Q

Big toe

A

L1

1937
Q

Big toe

A

Tibial nerve

1938
Q

Back of knee

A

Sciatic

1939
Q

Saohenous blocked in

A

Adductor canal block

1940
Q

Know visual anatomy

A

Of airway

1941
Q

First sign of liver failure

A

Factor 7

1942
Q

Oxygen determines

A

Hepatic artery flow

1943
Q

Shortest ischemia time

A

Heart/lungs

1944
Q

Know what drugs work

A

Post transplant

1945
Q

Post heart transplant patient can

A

Have two P waves and be normal

1946
Q

Know vascular of

A

Spinal cord

1947
Q

Know ECT

A

What drugs prolong

1948
Q

Know latex allergy

A

Foods

1949
Q

4-5

A

ECHO questions

1950
Q

2.5 mg/kg

A

Ryanoidine

1951
Q

Know AIONvs PION

A

AION usually with cardiac

Pion with spine

1952
Q

Can still use succ if full stomach with retinal detachment

A

Increased eye preesure better than getting aspiration

1953
Q

Lung physiology

A

Based on groups

1954
Q

Know when PCA is

A

Contraindicated and conversions of opioids

1955
Q

CVL biggest risk of

A

Infection

1956
Q

Pediatric vs adult

A

PONV

1957
Q

Duchennes vs

A

Myotonic dystrophy

1958
Q

Difference

A

Hypo/hyperkalemia

1959
Q

OR positioning

A

Affect

1960
Q

Third highest opioid abuse in

A

Physician

1961
Q

PDA

A

Pulmonary edema, hemorrhage,

Ductos arterisos stays open causing left to right shunt

IVH/left heart volume afterload

1962
Q

PDA targets prostaglabdin

A

Synthetase

Use ibuprofen or indimethacin affects COX

1963
Q

Transcatheter

A

PDA closure

Stops flow across PDA

Thoractomy longer hospital stay vs transcatheter

Higher opioid use increased opioid need

1964
Q

Venous air embolus

A

Increase PA RV pressure

VQ mismatch

1965
Q

Y tubing for blood with extension

A

80 ml

1966
Q

Learn to prime

A

Hot line tubing

1967
Q

Higher concentration of nitrous oxide needed for anesthesia contributes to

A

Diffusion hypoxia

1968
Q

Desflurane more potent than nitrous so use

A

Lower concentration

1969
Q

TRALI causes increase In

A

Plateau pressure

1970
Q

Bronchospasm from acute asthma exacerbation

A

Increases Peak pressure but not plateau

1971
Q

Esophageal monometry

A

Measures transpleural pressure

1972
Q

PAOP =

A

LAP

1973
Q

Expiratory phase of ventilation

A

Ventral respirartory group in medulla

1974
Q

Absolute contraindication to BIPAP

A

GCS<8

1975
Q

Bipap adds pressure support to

A

CPAP

1976
Q

BPAP contraindication

A
Cardiac or Respiratory arrest
Severe agitation
Hemodynamic instability
Facial trauma
Can’t protect airway 
Lots of secretions vomiting or gi bleed
1977
Q

Mastectomy with pacemaker

A

Best is to reprogram into asynchronous mode prior

1978
Q

Magnet can also program pacemaker to

A

Asynchronous mode

1979
Q

Transtentorial or uncal herniation

A

Ipsilateral hemoparesis

Oculomoter nerve palsy

1980
Q

Subfalcine herniation

A

Midline shift

1981
Q

Addition if humidifier can significantly increase

A

Dead space in Peds patients

1982
Q

Overdistenson of lungs in zone 1 leads to

A

High Vd/Vt

1983
Q

Apparatus like a humidifier added to patient side on the y piece

A

Can add to dead space

1984
Q

Neostigmine crosses

A

Placenta

Can cause fetal bradycardia

1985
Q

During hemorrhagic shock first line

A

Volume before pressors if not increased mortality

Hgb often normal even with acute blood loss

1986
Q

Class 4 blood loss

A

More than 40%

1987
Q

Ketamine

A

Can use even in unstable patients with worry of intracranial pressure increase

1988
Q

Sternamental distance less than 12.5 cm

A

= difficult intubation

Interincisor less than 3 cm predicative or difficult intubation

1989
Q

Skin surface warming helps prevent redistribution of heat

A

Increase body heat content

1990
Q

Heat redistributed

A

From core to periphery

1991
Q

Delta oscillations are those with lower frequency than

A

Theta

1992
Q

Beta wave

A

Awake

1993
Q

Corneal reflex

A

Affereht trigeminal

Efferent facial nerve

1994
Q

What reflex stays intact in patients under general anesthesia

A

Pupillary response to light

1995
Q

Awake pattern of low amplitude beta gamma oscillations to high amplitude slow delta with high levels of

A

Propofol

1996
Q

Active humidifiers are much more effective at humidification of gases than

A

Passive devices

Active includes vaporizers/nebulizers

1997
Q

Burns tend to increase

A

Insulin resistance

Give mainly crystalloid no albumin bc oncoticbpressure already high from protein peaking into instertitial space

Never bolus fluid in burn patients give hourly

1998
Q

Microelectrode recording with deep brain stimulator can get broken by using

A

Midazolam

1999
Q

Gray Rami carry postganglionic sympathetic divers from sympathetic ganglia to

A

Spinal nerves

2000
Q

Only sympathetic nervous system contains

A

Gray rami

2001
Q

Gray rami contain

A

Unmyelinated postganglionic axons

2002
Q

Ketamine acts indirectly on

A

RAS

Most drugs affect RAS directly

2003
Q

Pacemaker/ICD is a contraindication to an

A

MRI

2004
Q

Rivoroxaban/Apixaban

A

Andexant

2005
Q

Awake fiber optic good jd

A

Clinically stable patient with multiple risk factors for difficult intubation and mask ventilation

2006
Q

Physicians have highest suicide rate of

A

Any profession

2007
Q

Acute hemodilution of patients blood from large volume of crystalloid solution

A

Hypotension following initiation of CPB

2008
Q

Most T3 is formed by

A

Partial drip donation of T4

2009
Q

Air bubble in sample syringe

A

Leads to increased Pa02

2010
Q

Delaying abg sample analysis lowers Pa02 due to

A

Ongoing metabolism of red and white blood cells

2011
Q

Mitochondrial myopathy

A

Variable penetrance

Keep normpthermic
Don’t give propofol infusion as high risk for Propofol infusion syndrome

2012
Q

Absence of electrical activity greater than 2 uV/mm indicates

A

Electrocerebral silence

2013
Q

EEG monitoring not part of standard criteria for diagnosing

A

Brain death

2014
Q

Fetal bradycardia can happen from

A

Aortocaval positioning and putting patient in supine position

2015
Q

Technique to most reduce heat loss during phase 1 of hypothermia

A

Forced air warning blanket

2016
Q

Desflurane forms the most

A

Carbon monoxide

2017
Q

Baralyme increases compound A more than

A

Soda lime

2018
Q

Doppler us

A

Echocardiography to determine both direction and speed of blood flow

2019
Q

Blood towards transducer higher frequency than

A

Transmitted signal

2020
Q

With imperfect alignment of US

A

Underestimate velocity or flow

2021
Q

Muscular dystrophy avoid which drugs

A

Succinylcholine

Volatile anesthetics

2022
Q

Muscular dystrophy

A

Need EKG and ECHO prior due to risk of cardiovascular issues

2023
Q

Hypermagnesium causes muscle weakness which can lead to

A

Blurred vision

2024
Q

Treat hypermagnesium with

A

Iv calcium

2025
Q

The higher the pH of the solution the more a weak base will stay in

A

Unionized form

2026
Q

Acids are

A

Weak bases

Lower pKa means weak base will be neutralized leading to unionized

2027
Q

Dexamethasone anti emetic effect is at

A

Nucleus tractus solitarii

2028
Q

Airway fire risk much higher in

A

MAC vs GA

2029
Q

Cardiovascular function is usually maintained even with deep

A

Sedation

2030
Q

Neonates should be monitored overnight until 60 wks postconceptual age to

A

Avoid episodes of apnea/bradycardia

2031
Q

LFCN landmark is the

A

ASIS

2032
Q

LFCN branches from

A

L2-L3 nerve roots

Block by going medial and inferior to ASIS

2033
Q

PVR is minimal at

A

FRC

2034
Q

TCA toxicity treatment

A

Sodium bicarbonate

2035
Q

Amiodarone

A

Blocks potassium channels

Can’t give if heart block or preexisting bradycardia

Can cause blue grey discoloration
Hypotension
Prolong Qt
Pulmonary toxicity

2036
Q

Perform surgery if 6 months free of apnea or bradycardia in

A

Neonate

2037
Q

After pneumonectomy

Maximum voluntary ventilation greater than 50% of predicted value associated with good prognosis post

A

Pneumectomy

2038
Q

Increase periop mortality if spiromatory values

A
FVC<50%
FEV1<2 L
FEV1/FVC ratio less than 50%
MVV<50%
DLCO<50%
PaC02>45
Pa02<50
2039
Q

Expiratory obstruction

A

Unilateral vocal cord obstruction

2040
Q

Renal medulla

A

High oxygen extraction ratio

Renal cortex gets most the blood flow

2041
Q

Vascular rings are associated with

A

Right sided aortic arches

Vascular rings due to embryonic structures not regressing

2042
Q

Mirror branching

A

Right side aortic arch giving rise to left braciocephalic ehh gives rise to left subclavian and carotid artery

2043
Q

Giving too much neostigmine leads to

A

Prolonged weakness

2044
Q

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors like neostigmine also inhibit plasma butyrylcholinesterase

A

Prolongs effect of succ

2045
Q

Fibrinogen

A

Doubles in pregnancy

Protein S levels go down

Resistance to protein C

2046
Q

Hexamethonium

A

Neuronal type nicotinic antagonist

2047
Q

Hypoventilation

A

A-a gradient normal but hypoxemic

2048
Q

Metochlopramide

A

Increases LES tone

2049
Q

Hyperkalemic periodic paralysis

A

Give dextrose

2050
Q

Bronchiectasis

A

Obstructive pulmonary disease

2051
Q

Patients don’t need to void in order to meet criteria for

A

Discharge

2052
Q

Urine alkalinization does not help

A

Renal function

2053
Q

Chronic dantrolene get

A

Liver function tests

2054
Q

Both types 1 and 2 of diabetes are

A

Increasing in children

2055
Q

Treacher Collins

A

Approximately 50% of children have hearing loss

These patients can get ketamine

2056
Q

Isoflurane much cheaper than

A

Sevoflurane/desflurane

2057
Q

Alfentabyl fast acting opioid due to

A

High unionized fraction from low pKa

2058
Q

Don’t use which medication during ECT

A

Midazolam

Decreases seizure threshold

2059
Q

Incompetent inspiratiry valve fix with

A

Higher fresh gas flow

2060
Q

MH

A

Autosomal dominant with variable penetrance

Mainly RYR and calcium channel defect

Gold standard is halothane contracture test

2061
Q

Amilioride associated with

A

Hyperkalemia

2062
Q

With sepsis maintain MAP of

A

65

2063
Q

Concentration calibrated variable bypass vaporizer to get right percentage

A

Adjust splitting ratio

2064
Q

Paralyzed extremity train of four is

A

Exaggerated

2065
Q

Children with strabismus four times more likely to demonstrate massater muscle rigidity after getting succ

A

Than normal population

2066
Q

Rebreath more gas if fresh gas flow goes

A

Down

2067
Q

Thoracic aortic aneurysm stent

A

Helped by transient cardiac asystole

Avoid shear force by doing it

2068
Q

Adenosine can cause

A

Bronchoconstriction

2069
Q

Acute normovolemic hemodilution can be used on Jehovah’s Witness but can’t do if

A

Preoperative anemia

2070
Q

Clopidogrel

A

Stop seven days before spinal anesthetic

2071
Q

Phenelzine and meperidine can cause

A

Serotonin syndrome

Don’t give both together

2072
Q

Febrile reactions to platelets due to

A

Pyrogenic cytokines and intracellular contents released by donor leukocytes

2073
Q

Jet ventilation

A

Psi 15-35
Allow time for passive expiration
Seldinger technique requires large bore 16 g or bigger

2074
Q

Sign of difficult intubation

A

Can’t protrude lower jaw beyond the upper teeth

2075
Q

Elevated ICP is a contraindication to

A

Controlled hypotension.

2076
Q

Normal LY30 on TEG is

A

6%

2077
Q

Prolonged exposure to corticosteroids can result in

A

Myopathy and lead to muscle weakness

2078
Q

Angioedema due to

A

High bradykinin

2079
Q

Head down associated with

A

Increase in cardiac index

2080
Q

FRC =

A

ERV +. RV

2081
Q

Thermodilution graph

A

Temperature change y axis

Time on x axis

2082
Q

Most claims in Asa closed claims project for death or brain damage

A

Non respiratory events

2083
Q

Lateral cricoarytenoid

A

Adduction

2084
Q

Thyroid cardiledge forms atoms apple and is inferior to

A

Hyoid bone

2085
Q

Median nerve does

A

Lateral palm of hand and motor to wrist flexors

Can block medial to brachial artery in AC fossa

2086
Q

Most common adrenal insufficiency in icu

A

Functional adrenal insufficiency did

2087
Q

Cardiogenic shock similar to

A

Obstructive shock in numbers

Need to look at cause

2088
Q

Emergence delirium usually lasts

A

10 to 30 minutes

More likely with less soluble anesthetics

2089
Q

If patient is taking preop steroids

A

Continue those steroids in the perioperative period

2090
Q

Dexamethasone

A

Most potent glucocorticoid

No mineralocorticoid

2091
Q

Endocarditis prophylaxis not needed for cardiac transplant unless

A

Valvulopathy present

2092
Q

SSEPs are good for checking nerve injury in

A

Spinal cord cases

2093
Q

Closing capacity increases as you age

A

Exceeds FRC

RV goes up as does FRC
IC goes down

2094
Q

Epidural 2 chloroprocaine has an onset of approximately

A

6-12 minutes

2095
Q

Transpulmonary pressures are highest in patients with

A

Restrictive lung disease such as idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

2096
Q

CI less than 2.2 is

A

Bad

2097
Q

Synthesis of catecholamines starts with

A

Tyrosine

2098
Q

Must stop plavix for

A

7 days prior to neuraxial

Scoliosis is not a contraindication to neuraxial

2099
Q

Single most important risk factor for POCD is

A

Increasing age

2100
Q

Tumescent lidocaine

A

No more than 5 liters

Using GA can increase complication rate

2101
Q

Moving vaporizer to higher altitude will increase

A

Output

2102
Q

Midazolam to pregnant patient leads to

A

Fetal hypotonia or floppy baby

2103
Q

Ketamine does not affect

A

APGAR score

2104
Q

CSF is pulsatile and produce

A

500 ml per day

2105
Q

CSF

A

500 ml made per day
It is pulsatile
Made by choroid plexus and lateral ventricles

2106
Q

As flow through Rotameter increases

A

Cross sectional area increases

2107
Q

Hyperbaric local anesthetics movement mainly based on

A

Baricity

2108
Q

Advanced age

A

Less CSF volume

2109
Q

Block onset time not affected by addition of

A

Epinephrine

2110
Q

Local anesthetic

A

Higher concentration lipid solubility faster
Lower pKa faster
Higher environment pH faster

2111
Q

Graft vs host disease higher if

A

Direct blood relative is used for blood donation

Irradiation helps by eliminating donor lymphocytes

2112
Q

TCD us monitiring

A

Measures blood flow velocity in major arteries usually the MCA

And atherosclerosis plaques in same vessel

2113
Q

Most sensitive to volatile anesthetics

A

Visual evoked potentials

BAEPS MOST RESISTANT

2114
Q

Hypermagnesium

A

Treatment includes calcium, dialysis, furosemide

2115
Q

Lack of randomized control trials for treating

A

Phantom limb pain

2116
Q

ASA 4

A

Severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life such as chest pain at rest

2117
Q

Necrotic small bowel

A

ASA 5 cant live without procedure

2118
Q

Continue enteral feeds in

A

Intubated pts going into surgery

2119
Q

In mass casualty must identify

A

Severity of injuries

2120
Q

Albumin worsens outcomes after

A

SAH

2121
Q

Caution giving vasopressin to patients with

A

CAD as can lead to ischemia

2122
Q

Muscular stimulation leads to

A

Bronchial constriction

2123
Q

Open waste scavenging system has no

A

Positive or negative relief valves

Vacuum must exceed waste gas flow

2124
Q

Most ppl believe hemoglobin A1c should be below

A

8% before elective surgery

2125
Q

2/3 of subq insulin the night before

A

One half the day of surgery

2126
Q

C8 nerve root between

A

C7 and T1 vertebrae

2127
Q

C1 lacks a vertebral body

A

And spinous process

2128
Q

Nerve regeneration after cryoanalgesia occurs after

A

1-3 months

2129
Q

Low max amplitude on TEG what should you give

A

Platelets

2130
Q

In deep sedation

A

Intervention may be required of the airway

Usually cardiovascular function is maintained

2131
Q

Premature closure if cranial sutures is seen in

A

Crouzon syndrome

2132
Q

IABP decreases

A

Afterload

2133
Q

Stop diuretics in

A

Preop period such as furosemide

2134
Q

Terbutaline leads to

A

Hypokalemia

More selective for beta 2

2135
Q

Beta 2 stimulation leads to

A

Hyperglycemia

2136
Q

If sartorius contracts during femoral nerve block

A

Advance and direct needle laterally

2137
Q

Femoral nerve

A

L2-L4

2138
Q

Absolute indicators for one lung ventilation

A

Protective isolation
VATS
Unilateral lung lavage
Bronchopleural fistula

2139
Q

APL valve should be closed for

A

Circuit leak test

2140
Q

Open APL valve is at

A

0

2141
Q

In the setting of poor oxygen extraction such as methemoglobinemia mixed oxygen

A

Normal or elevated

2142
Q

RCA does

A

Inferior wall of LV

2143
Q

Surgery during pregnancy higher risk of

A
Miscarriage
Abortion
Low birth weight
Pre-term labor
Aspiration
2144
Q

If patient is stable after aspiration next step is to

A

Suction endotracheal tube

2145
Q

Don’t give abx if

A

Aspiration

Suction
Immediate intubation
Then after suctioning can do PPV

2146
Q

Cooling cables increases the risk of

A

Thermal injury

2147
Q

In mri

A

Place pulse ox is furthest as possible from patient and cables right down the center of patient

2148
Q

Bigger paddle size for doing defibrillation is

A

Better

Electrode size 8-12 cm is good

Biphasic defibrillator is better
Ok to apply force
Ok to put gel on pads

2149
Q

Anemia first step

A

Obtain peripheral smear and reticulocyte count

2150
Q

After aortic cross clamp

A

CVP increases due to increased catecholamines

Increased vasoconstriction distal to clamp drives CVP higher

Decrease oxygen extraction due to less blood to distal regions

Increases in arterial pressure above
clamp

Decreased CO is seen

2151
Q

Ischemic optic neuropathy

A

PAINLESS SUDDEN VISION LOSS

2152
Q

Type 1=

A

Alpha error

2153
Q

Reducing population variability(SD)

A

Increase statistical power

2154
Q

Child Pugh score does not include

A

Creatinine

2155
Q

Electromechanical pressure transducer

A

Invasive arterial pressure monitoring

2156
Q

Haldane effect

A

Increased ability for hemoglobin to carry carbon dioxide from tissues to the lungs for exhalation

2157
Q

Blood reflects

A

The least

2158
Q

Intrathoracic airway obstruction

A

Mediastinal Mass

2159
Q

Plateau wave =

A

Sharp increase in intracranial pressure

2160
Q

Modern endotracheal tubes

A

High volume low pressure cuff

PVC made

2161
Q

Ach synthesized in presynaptic terminal

A

Via choline acetyltransferase in the cytoplasm

No reuptake of Ach

2162
Q

Atelectasis associated with increased

A

A-a gradient

2163
Q

Normal Aa gradient in

A

Hypoventilation

2164
Q

Pediatric endotracheal tube size

A

Age/4 + 4

2165
Q

LMWH more selectively inhibits

A

Factor X when compared to unfractionated heparin

2166
Q

Epidural anesthesia leads to

A

Increased peristalsis

2167
Q

Neuraxial nausea treat with

A

Atropine

2168
Q

TR affects thermodilution measurement of cardiac output

A

All cardiac output goes through pulmonary artery

2169
Q

Mannitol

A

Increases intravascular volume and may have deleterious effect on patients with CHF

2170
Q

Oligohydraminos not associated with

A

Placental abruption

2171
Q

Lowering humidity lowers risk of

A

Static discharge

2172
Q

PEEP decreases atelectasis and increases

A

FRC

2173
Q

Alanine is part of

A

Glucose synthesis pathway

2174
Q

Glycogen storage occurs in

A

Fed state

Glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesus during stress

2175
Q

Claims made policy is malpractice that works for

A

That year

2176
Q

Intrascalene block

A

Affects phrenic and not good for patients with COPD or asthma

2177
Q

Hair color has never been identified as a cause of

A

Intraoperative recall

High dose opioid use increases risk of recall

2178
Q

Angiotensin 2 is a potent vasoconstrictor but mainly effects

A

Efferent arteriole thus maintain renal blood flow

2179
Q

Myocardial oxygen demand most effected by

A

Heart rate

2180
Q

Weakness of thigh adductor muscles with

A

Obturator block

Never just sensory

2181
Q

Recommended postop management of patient with double lumen endotracheal tube is to exchange with

A

Single lumen endotracheal tube

2182
Q

Generally cardio version is used for patients with a pulse and defibrillation for patients without a

A

Pulse

2183
Q

Lidocaine decreases seizure duration making it undesirable for

A

ECT

2184
Q

Metabolic alkalosis can worsen

A

Hypokalemia periodic paralysis

2185
Q

Hyperglycemia with lower

A

Potassium levels

2186
Q

Presynaptic calcium channels

A

Destroyed in lambert Eaton myasthenic syndrome

2187
Q

Myasthenia gravis autoimmune disorder involving antibodies that attack

A

Postsynaptic Ach receptor in neuromuscular junction

MG improves with rest

2188
Q

Post op respiratory failure post op in MG patients

A

Disease duration > 6 years
Daily pyridostigmine dose> 750 mg
FVC<2.9 liters
Other chronic lung diseases not related to MG

2189
Q

NIF greater than -20 in ICU is a sign of

A

Unsuccessful wean

Max pressure against occluded airway

2190
Q

RR/TV =

A

RSBI

Less than 105 is good

2191
Q

Management of aspiration put patient in

A

Head down or lateral position and initiate supplemental oxygen

2192
Q

Increased flow rate promotes

A

Turbulent flow

2193
Q

Increasing radius promotes

A

Turbulent flow

2194
Q

Hyperglycemia happens secondary to

A

SIRS

2195
Q

Low cardiac output mostly affects

A

Isoflurane

2196
Q

Heparin is not effective in

A

Fat embolus syndrome

2197
Q

Rigid fiber optic scope

A

For foreign body aspiration

2198
Q

Type 2 pneumocytes produce surfactant which helps to prevent

A

Atelectasis

2199
Q

Do not give Succ in guillan Barre disease

A

Guillan

2200
Q

Sevoflurane is safe in renal

A

Disease patients

2201
Q

Compensation for anemia

A

Rightward shift of oxygen hemoglobin dissociation curve

Also get increase in cardiac output

2202
Q

Rotation of patients head to contralateral side during ivj cannulation leads to

A

Greater overlap of ijv and cca if past 45 degrees

2203
Q

Nitroglycerin

A

Systemic venodilation that decreases preload

2204
Q

Hydralazine

A

Slow onset of action and lasts for multiple hours- not the best during surgery

2205
Q

Child at higher cognitive level will have

A

Higher preoperative anxiety

2206
Q

Use FFP if INR is above 1.5 in urgent/emergent

A

Cases
Also for heparin resistance
For microvascular bleeding and one above 2

2207
Q

If inr high and surgery in 24 hours and need to reverse give

A

Vitamin K

Not FFP

2208
Q

Post exposure prophylaxis for Hep B exposure includes

A

Hey B virus immune globulin

2209
Q

Excessive diuresis does not lead to

A

Respiratory alkalosis

Excessive diuresis leads to metabolic alkalosis

2210
Q

Respiratory alkalosis due to

A
Aspirin overdose
Stroke
Anxiety
Pain
Progesterone
2211
Q

PE leads to

A

Respiratory alkalosis

2212
Q

Resuscitation of drowning patient starts with

A

Rescue breaths

2213
Q

AV node supplied in majority of population by

A

RCA

2214
Q

Dual chamber pacemaker usually see

A

P wave followed by left bundle branch pattern

2215
Q

Severinghouse for

A

C02

Sanz for 02

2216
Q

Bronchodilator therapy shows change in

A

FEV1

2217
Q

Hyponatremia get

A

Plasma osmolality

Urine sodium

2218
Q

Fade is due to

A

Blockage of pre junctional receptors

2219
Q

At high altitudes compensate by increase in

A

Minute ventilation

Hypoxia stimulation of peripheral chemoceptors

Increase in PVR due to hypoxia

2220
Q

Leftward shift due to

A

Hypocarbia

2221
Q

Discovery

A

Exchange of documents and sworn statements by the defendant witnesses to event or expert witnesses

2222
Q

Depositions

A

Statements made under oath about the case

2223
Q

Grade 2b

A

Can only see posterior arytenoids

2224
Q

Grade 3

A

Only epiglottis

Grade 4 can’t see anything

2225
Q

Any malpractice payment made by insurer on behalf of individual physician must be

A

Reported to NPDB

Insurance payments on behalf of corporations are not reported

2226
Q

Contraindication to ECT

A

Increased ICP

2227
Q

Main cause of guillan barre

A

C jejuni

Ascending motor paralysis

Elevated CSF protein

2228
Q

Before caudal epidural you hit

A

Saccroxoygeal ligament

Between S4-S5

2229
Q

End of Dural sac in infants ends at

A

S3

2230
Q

PRIS

A

Acute kidney injury
Heart failure
Metabolic acidosis

2231
Q

Max dose of propofol infusion

A

4 mg/kg/hr

2232
Q

Cefepime

A

Worsening hypotension through lipopolysacharide release

Histamine release is associated with vancomycin use

2233
Q

Pouiselle law

A

Length of tubing
Pressure exerted on fluid
Viscosity of fluid

Density of fluid not important!

Most important if radius of tubing

2234
Q

Reducing density leads to more

A

Laminar flow

2235
Q

Hyperglycemia lowers

A

Potassium levels

2236
Q

Spirnolactone competitively inhibits

A

Aldosterone

2237
Q

Persistent expiratory flow at end expiration suggests

A

auto-PEEP

Longer expiratory time. And lower MV improves peak airway pressure and intrinsic PEEP

2238
Q

Bag inlet valve allows bag valve mask to

A

Reinflate

2239
Q

Ambu bag =

A

Mapleson C circuit

2240
Q

Best for pain management after rotator cuff repair

A

Continuous intrascalene block

2241
Q

Zofran plus metochlopramide doesn’t help with

A

PONV

2242
Q

Cortisol made from

A

Zona fasiculata

2243
Q

All catecholamines are derived from the amino acid

A

Tyrosine

2244
Q

ECG signs of hypokalemia includes

A

ST segment and T wave depression

2245
Q

Ketamine is a sch

A

3 drug

2246
Q

Cannibis LSD

A

Sch 1

2247
Q

Benzos

A

Sch 4

2248
Q

Morphine oxycodone

A

Sch 2

2249
Q

Persistent vegetative state patients can

A

Open eyes

2250
Q

Lactated ringers did not cause

A

Metabolic alkalosis

Potassium of 4

2251
Q

20 to 40 ml/kg lactated ringer

A

During anesthetic in infants and children

2252
Q

Hyperkalemia

A

Widening of QRS and peaking of T waves

2253
Q

Malignant hyperthermia

A

Tachycardia
Elevated end tidal c02
Acidosis

2254
Q

Malignant hyperthermia

A

Autosomal dominant variable penetrance

2255
Q

Xenon primarily works by

A

Inhibition of NMDA receptors

2256
Q

Carboprost can lead to

A

Bronchospasm

2257
Q

Heart rate generation in cardiac transplant is dependent on

A

Donor atrium

2258
Q

PPV

A

Decrease preload
Increase right ventricular afterload
Increase intrathoracic pressure increases ivc pressure

2259
Q

ANP

A

Sodium and water excretion

2260
Q

RAAS activation by low cardiac output

A

Efferent is constricted more to preserve glomerular filtration

2261
Q

TNF alpha and complement increase in

A

Sepsis

2262
Q

Bedside tracheostomy

A

Use cuffed low pressure tracheostomy tube

For airway protecting should be cuffed

Cuffed helps avoid aspiration

2263
Q

Can’t use nitrous with

A

Malignant hyperthermia

2264
Q

Bad dehydration in newborn

A

Weight loss 15%
Fontalle sunken
Urine flow 1.030

2265
Q

Factor 8 levels normal or elevated in

A

Liver disease

Down in DIC

2266
Q

Thrombocytopenia is found in both

A

DIC and ESLD

2267
Q

Elemental diets do not decrease

A

Mortality

2268
Q

Most pregnancy related deaths in United States due to

A

Cardiovascular disease

2269
Q

Cstatic =

A

Tidal volume/ Pplat-PEEP

2270
Q

End of pacemaker leads go into

A

Endocardium

2271
Q

Sympathetic block for

A

Chronic angina

2272
Q

PVR =

A

PA mean- PCWP / CO x 80

2273
Q

Most evaporative hear loss under general anesthesia is from

A

Tissue exposure

2274
Q

Pre warming patient externally with forced air warming blanket prevents

A

Initial fire temperature change caused by redistribution

2275
Q

Left atrial enlargement see double density sign spreads into the space of the

A

Right atrium

2276
Q

Pressure gradient aortic valve

A

4 x velocity squared

2277
Q

Fick

A

Gold standard for cardiac output measurement

2278
Q

Fat embolus don’t see

A

Tachycardia

Petechiae, hypoxemia, neurologic problems like seizures

2279
Q

Cushing reflex

A

High ICP

Decrease HR increase BP

2280
Q

Bowditch reflex

A

Increase in HR

2281
Q

Faster inhalation induction

A

Increased minute ventilation - most important
Increase blood flow to vessel rich organs
Decrease blood gas partition coefficient
Decrease tissue blood partition coefficient

2282
Q

Ace inhibitors

A

More bradykinin thus more arachadonic acid

2283
Q

Placenta previa

A

Higher risk of bleeding need two large bore ivs

2284
Q

Salicylate poisoning

A

Mixed respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis

2285
Q

Contraindication to ECT

A

Intracranial mass lesion

2286
Q

Parathyroid gland is not controlled by

A

Pituitary

2287
Q

Acromegaly =

A

Difficult airway

2288
Q

Anterior mediastinal mass

A

Inability to lie flat as mass causes tracheal/cardiac compression

Tracheal deviation without pneumothorax
Widened mediastinum

2289
Q

MH

A

Flush with 10L of oxygen for 60 minutes

2290
Q

MH don’t give

A

Inhaled general anesthetics
Succinylcholine

CAN GIVE NITROUS OXIDE

2291
Q

Methemoglobin

A

Fe2+ to Fe3+

2292
Q

AHI > 30 in adult =

A

Severe COPD

Mild is 5-15

2293
Q

Least important in heat loss in or

A

Conduction

2294
Q

Enteral less infections/maintain gut integrity compared to

A

Parenteral feeding

2295
Q

VACTERL infant with TEF look for neural tube defect

A

Neural tube

2296
Q

Myasthenia gravis patient can get

A

Succinylcholine

2297
Q

Can’t give succ to

A

Multiple sclerosis patient

2298
Q

Cyanide toxicity treatment

A

Hydroxycobalamin

2299
Q

No basal rate for

A

Opioid naive patients

2300
Q

Beta 2 agonists like terbutaline

A

Relax uterine contractions and increase uterine blood flow

2301
Q

Methyelgonavine augments uterine contractions and will

A

Decrease uterine blood flow

2302
Q

Lithium prolongs

A

Blockade of both nondepolarizing and depolarizing muscle relaxants

2303
Q

Most effective to treat intraop hypothermia in pediatrics patient

A

Forced warm air blanket

2304
Q

Excess normal saline

A

Non anion gap hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis with decrease bicarbonate and decreased SID

2305
Q

Most attenuating on EMG signal

A

Neuromuscular blocking agents

2306
Q

Leftward shift of oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve is a feature of

A

Alpha stat ABG

Adding CO2 = pH stat

2307
Q

Strongest marker for perioperative outcome in patient on TPN

A

Albumin

2308
Q

Delayed transfusion reactions

A

Result of donor red blood cell antigens

2309
Q

Hyperparathyroidism

A

Skeletal muscle weakness

2310
Q

Propofol acts on

A

GAbAa receptor

Allows Cl- to hyperpolarize cells

2311
Q

Precedex much more selective for alpha 2 than

A

Clonidine

2312
Q

Baclofen

A

GAbAb

2313
Q

Oxygen pipeline pressure for oxygen nitrous oxide and air

A

Ranges between 50-55 psig

2314
Q

Visible spec vs infrared

A

Visible looks at less tissue with longer wavelengths of light

2315
Q

Increased FRC in patient who is

A

Prone

Larger ERV as well

2316
Q

Morbidly obese

A

Increase in lean body weight

2317
Q

Transfusion related immunomodulation can be stopped by

A

Leukocyte reduction

2318
Q

Morphine 3 G

A

No analgesic activity

May actually lead to hyperalgesia

2319
Q

Nausea
Pruritis
Respiratory depression due to

A

M6 G

2320
Q

MELD greater than 14

A

Usually can’t go in for surgical intervention

2321
Q

Liver transplant

A

Dissection
Anhepatic
Reperfusion

2322
Q

Most hemodynamic instability during

A

Reperfusion phase

2323
Q

Pace atria and ventricle

A

In ddd

2324
Q

Normal Pa02 in

A

Methemoglobinemia
You have oxygen but RBCs can’t take it

Giving oxygen won’t help

2325
Q

6 months for

A

DES

2326
Q

SIADH

A

Euvolemic or hypervolemic so CVP will be high

2327
Q

Ethacrynaic acid no reaction to

A

Sulfonamides

2328
Q

Nerve problems

A

Then need nerve block like with change in temp or pinprick

2329
Q

Both ventilation and perfusion are lower in

A

Apical alveoli

2330
Q

Anuria

A

Urine output less than 50 ml per day

2331
Q

Thin layer of blood<1mm

A

Fisher grade 2

2332
Q

Bioteansformation of lorazepam by

A

Glucoronidation

2333
Q

Rate of postop pulmonary complications drastically declines in smokers after stopping for

A

8 weeks

2334
Q

Heart failure at bottom of

A

Frank starling curve

2335
Q

Patient analgesia best in order

A

Continuous epidural > patient controlled epidural > patient controlled analgesia > prn

2336
Q

In event of emergency move patient out of MRI scanner

A

ASAP

2337
Q

Saphenous block

A

L2-L4

Adductor canal block similar pain help to femoral but lower risk of fall

2338
Q

Adenosine does not help with

A

A flutter

2339
Q

Adenosine blocks

A

AV node

2340
Q

Recurrent laryngeal nerve is a branch of the

A

Vagus nerve

2341
Q

Neuraxial causes

A

Decrease temperature where shivering will begin

Epidural increases incidence of shivering in women undergoing vaginal delivery

2342
Q

Furosemide

A

Increased venous capacitance

2343
Q

Periop mortality in obese main cause is

A

DVT

2344
Q

Best way to increase CO in someone with a fib is to convert to

A

NSR

2345
Q

Inhalational induction slowed by

A

Right to left shunt and more insoluble anesthetic

2346
Q

If failed intubation with fetal distress in pregnancy and difficult intubation

A

Mask them or lma before video til patient comes out

2347
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis not associated with

A

Bronchospastic disease

2348
Q

Midazolam bioavailability greatest to least

A

iV> Intramuscular > intranasal > rectal > oral

2349
Q

Epidural anesthesia ok for

A

Multiple sclerosis

2350
Q

Fetal academia requiring delivery

A

pH of 7.2 or lactate greater than 4.8 mmol/L

2351
Q

Ketamine/precedex

A

No pain on injection

2352
Q

Duchenne muscular dystrophy

A

Lead to hyperkalemia/rhabdomyolysis

Not MH

2353
Q

Drug volume affects

A

Epidural anesthesia but not spinal

2354
Q

Spinal anesthesia affected by

A

Drug baricity
Drug dosage
Patient position

2355
Q

Deadly triad

A

Coagulopathy
Hypothermia
Metabolic acidosis

2356
Q

Acute stoppage of TPN can lead to

A

Hypoglycemia

2357
Q

Old MI =

A

> 30 days prior

2358
Q

Intercostal blocks associated with

A

Highest blood levels of local anesthetic following completion of block

2359
Q

Lower density =

A

Less turbulent flow

2360
Q

Carbon monoxide poisoning with carboxyhemoglobin level> 25%

A

Hyperbaric oxygen therapy

2361
Q

Unstable angina =

A

ASA 4

2362
Q

Pa02 increases in

A

Pregnancy

2363
Q

Increased cardiac output decreases speed of

A

Inhalation induction

2364
Q

C botulism toxin works by

A

Impairment of Ach release from storage vesicles

2365
Q

Cholestasis is a complication of

A

Parenteral nutrition

2366
Q

Cyclosporine causes

A

Nephrotoxicity not pulmonary toxicity

2367
Q

FEVERFEW PROLONGS THE ACTION OF

A

Warfarin

2368
Q

Recombinant hgb

A

Does not require typing or crossmatching

2369
Q

Terbutaline

A

Selective beta 2 agonist

2370
Q

Terbutaline can lead to

A

Glucose intolerance

2371
Q

Ritodrine side effect is

A

Neonatal hypoglycemia

Maternal hypokalemia

2372
Q

Single blinded

A

Only patients are not aware

2373
Q

Elevated CPK in heavy patient from prolonged immobilization leads to

A

Rhabdomyolysis

2374
Q

Sacral spinal nerves simulates

A

Urethral sphincter relaxation

2375
Q

In pelvis sacral spinal nerves include parasympathetic nerve fibers that promote

A

Sexual arousal, peristalsis, defecation, urination

2376
Q

5 to 10 AHI per hour is

A

Normal

2377
Q

Disadvantage of autotransfusion via intraoperative blood salvage

A

Platelet and clotting factor deficiency

2378
Q

Autonomic dysreflexia starts with spinal lesions at

A

T6

2379
Q

Avoid pre term delivery by delaying pregnant surgery until

A

Second trimester

2380
Q

Myofascial pain syndrome treat with

A

Trigger point injection
Physical therapy
TENS

2381
Q

Unchanged vital capacity in

A

Pregnancy

Tidal volume increases
FRC decreases

2382
Q

Etomidate inhibits

A

11 beta hydroxylase

2383
Q

Mapleson D most efficient for

A

Controlled/spontaneous ventilation

2384
Q

Drainage of CSF fastest way to restore

A

Cerebral perfusion pressure

2385
Q

Decrease > 10 mmHg of systemic BP during inspiration for

A

Pulpus paradoxus not expiration

2386
Q

During inspiration increase in negative intrathoracic pressure increases

A

Venous return to right side of heart

2387
Q

Most jevohahs witnesses will take

A

Albumin

Refuse autologous blood transfusions

2388
Q

When a patient is anemic

A

Blood viscosity is decreased. Helps to improve blood flow to specific tissues thus aiding in oxygen delivery

2389
Q

Vital organs

A

Brain heart and lungs

2390
Q

Polycythemia

A

Increased blood viscosity slows blood flow and decreaeses oxygen delivery

2391
Q

For difficult airways due to limited neck extension do

A

Flexible laryngoscopy

2392
Q

Three drug prophylaxis in severe exposure when the patient is known to have

A

HIV OR AIDS

2393
Q

Predisposes to atelectasis

A

General anesthesia
Fi02 high
Obesity

2394
Q

Hypothermia causes

A

Increased mixed venous

2395
Q

Chronic heparin use leads to

A

Hypoaldosteronism and this hypokalemia

2396
Q

Most injured nerve during thyroid/parathyroid surgery

A

Superior laryngeal

Tensor of vocal cords without it the voice tires easily

2397
Q

Eclampsia

A

Seizures in woman with preeclampsia

2398
Q

Telling families adverse events =

A

Professionalism

2399
Q

Giving magnesium to mother can cause

A

Hypotonia in neonate

2400
Q

Lusitropy

A

Active myocardial relaxation

Downward shift of EDPVR slope

2401
Q

Bronchospasm affects

A

Dynamic compliance

2402
Q

The AMA is not involved with

A

Operating room safety

2403
Q

Hyperosmolar vs DKA

A

HHS has serum osmolality above 350 and BG>600

2404
Q

High intravesical pressure is consistent with compartment syndrome which can lead to increased

A

ICP

2405
Q

Carbamazepine overdose causes

A

Anticholinergic symptoms such as mydriasis

2406
Q

Succ disadvantages

A
Increase intragastric pressure
Increase iop
Postop myalgia
Hyperkalemia 
Increased LES tone
2407
Q

6 hours npo

A

Tea and toast such as an English muffin

2408
Q

Alpha is for

A

Type 1 error

Alpha decreased decreases chance of type 1 error but increases type 2 error chance

2409
Q

Beta error lower

A

Less chance for type 2- falsely accepting null hypothesis

2410
Q

Most chylothorax post central line is on

A

Left side

2411
Q

Transcutaneous pacemakers can lead to

A

Muscle injury
Rhabdomyolysis
Hyperkalemia

2412
Q

Most direct cause if cv collapse during massive venous air embolism is

A

RV outflow tract obstruction from air lock phenomenon in RV

2413
Q

SBO requiring surgery

A

Put NG tube in while awake

2414
Q

Metochlopramide

A

Dopamine antagonist

2415
Q

Chi square good for

A

Categorical data

2416
Q

200 mcg =

A

0.2 mg

2417
Q

1 mg intrathecal morphine = 10 mg epidural morphine

A

1 mg EPidural morphine = 10 mg iv

I mg iv = 3 mg po morphine

2418
Q

Creatinine clearance best to determine

A

Imminent acute kidney injury

2419
Q

FenA determines cause of

A

Established kidney injury

2420
Q

FENA is affected by

A

Diuretics

2421
Q

Closing capacity increases as patients

A

Age

2422
Q

SIMV with pressure support

A

Mandatory breaths and additional PS breaths all synchronized with patient effort

2423
Q

Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction

A

3 to 7 days post

2424
Q

Anaphylactic or anaphylactoid transfusion rxn

A

First stop transfusion

First give bolus of fluids then slow epinephrine pushes

2425
Q

No premedication to prevent

A

Allergic or febrile non hemolytic transfusion rxn

Stopping transfusion is ok

2426
Q

Jehovah’s Witness ok with

A

Acute normovolemic hemodilution

2427
Q

No acute normovolemic hemodilution on patient with

A

Cardiac abnormalities such as stable angina

2428
Q

Vapor pressure depends on

A

Temperature and specific liquid

2429
Q

PVC is ok with laser

A

Especially if aluminum covers it

Avoid nitrous and volatiles bc can lead to airway problems

2430
Q

First letter

A

Chamber paced

2431
Q

Position 2

A

Chamber sensed

2432
Q

Still pacing but not sensing in

A

Asynchronous mode with a magnet

2433
Q

Soda lime especially with KOH form bad

A

Byproducts

2434
Q

Intraop awareness

A

Higher with neuromuscular agents

So does TIVA

2435
Q

VATS pleurodesis for

A

Chronic pleural effusion

2436
Q

Bain circuit conserves

A

Moisture better

2437
Q

When oxygen falls below 20 to 30 psi

A

Fail safe valve decreases or ceases nitrous oxide delivery

2438
Q

Most effective noninvasive oxygen delivery device

A

Nonrebreathing mask

Venturi mask is not a good device

2439
Q

Boyle’s law hyperbaric oxygen decreases

A

Emboli

2440
Q

Max Fi02 NC

A

50%

2441
Q

Des

A

Highest vapor pressure

2442
Q

Ventilator disconnnect

A

Alarm

2443
Q

Atracurium

A

Histamine release

2444
Q

Pancuronium can worsen

A

Tachycardia

Rocuronium can be used on patient with liver lac

2445
Q

High spinal

A

Numbness and or tingling in hands and SOB

2446
Q

Tounge points towards the lesion in

A

Stroke

2447
Q

Beach chair position can lead to

A

Stroke

2448
Q

In MH RYR I’m locked state so keep getting more and more intracytoplasmic

A

Calcium

2449
Q

Sodium citrate works

A

Immediately to increase gastric pH

2450
Q

Aspiration pneumonia has CXR findings while aspiration pneumonitise

A

Does not

2451
Q

Anaphylactoid does not activate

A

Antigen mast cell activation

2452
Q

Anaphylaxis treatment first give

A

Fluid bolus and epinephrine

2453
Q

Pac02 30 to 35 for a

A

Crani to reduce blood flow

2454
Q

Pac02 etC02 difference due to

A

Dead space

2455
Q

Airway fire

A

Take out ETT

2456
Q

Intraop awareness more likely in

A

Cardiac
Obstetric
Trauma

2457
Q

Hypothermia can cause

A

Coagulopathy

If vital signs stable not due to massive blood loss

2458
Q

C02 insufflation could lead to

A

C02 embolus

2459
Q

Best strategy for fat embolus

A

Low tidal volume similar to ARDS

2460
Q

Treatment of TRALI is with

A

Ventilator support

Use low tidal volume with high RR and peep

2461
Q

Tourniquet release

A

Increase in HR
Increase in potassium
Slight increase in pac02
Transient metabolic acidosis

2462
Q

Lumbar epidural prior to

A

Ex lap is ok

2463
Q

Best predictor of postop renal injury

A

Preop creatinine clearance

2464
Q

Give naloxone if you give too much

A

Dilaudid

2465
Q

Intercostal to caudal

A

Intrascalene lower absorption as part of brachial plexus

2466
Q

Neuraxial opioids procure analgesia via

A

Dorsal horn opioid receptors

Morphine can go to stark when given intrathecal and can cause respiratory depression at 6 to 18 hours

2467
Q

PDPH is not associated with

A

Fever

2468
Q

1 liter of crystalloid or 1 pRBC lowers temp by

A

.25 degrees C

2469
Q

Hypothermia is protective against

A

Cerebral ischemia and hypoxia

2470
Q

Postop vision loss if

A

Prone position
Long duration of surgery
Prolonged hypotension
Significant intraop blood loss

2471
Q

Protect ulnar nerve with

A

Forearm supination

2472
Q

Dantrolene decreases

A

Release of calcium from SR

2473
Q

Mandibular central incisors most likely to be injured during

A

Intubation

2474
Q

Cuff of LMA can cause

A

Hypoglossal or lingual nerve injury

Hypoglossal goes to ipsilateral side

2475
Q

Positive pressure leak test will not find leak in

A

Vaporizer

2476
Q

IOP is not affected by

A

Etomidate

2477
Q

Left IJ most likely to lead to

A

Chylothorax

2478
Q

Anaphylaxis

A

Type 1 hypersensitivity antigen binding for IgE

2479
Q

Atracurium

A

Histamine release

2480
Q

Pancuronium can worsen

A

Tachycardia

Rocuronium can be used on patient with liver lac

2481
Q

High spinal

A

Numbness and or tingling in hands and SOB

2482
Q

Tounge points towards the lesion in

A

Stroke

2483
Q

Beach chair position can lead to

A

Stroke

2484
Q

In MH RYR I’m locked state so keep getting more and more intracytoplasmic

A

Calcium

2485
Q

Sodium citrate works

A

Immediately to increase gastric pH

2486
Q

Aspiration pneumonia has CXR findings while aspiration pneumonitise

A

Does not

2487
Q

Anaphylactoid does not activate

A

Antigen mast cell activation

2488
Q

Anaphylaxis treatment first give

A

Fluid bolus and epinephrine

2489
Q

Pac02 30 to 35 for a

A

Crani to reduce blood flow

2490
Q

Pac02 etC02 difference due to

A

Dead space

2491
Q

Airway fire

A

Take out ETT

2492
Q

Intraop awareness more likely in

A

Cardiac
Obstetric
Trauma

2493
Q

Hypothermia can cause

A

Coagulopathy

If vital signs stable not due to massive blood loss

2494
Q

C02 insufflation could lead to

A

C02 embolus

2495
Q

Best strategy for fat embolus

A

Low tidal volume similar to ARDS

2496
Q

Treatment of TRALI is with

A

Ventilator support

Use low tidal volume with high RR and peep

2497
Q

Tourniquet release

A

Increase in HR
Increase in potassium
Slight increase in pac02
Transient metabolic acidosis

2498
Q

Lumbar epidural prior to

A

Ex lap is ok

2499
Q

Best predictor of postop renal injury

A

Preop creatinine clearance

2500
Q

Give naloxone if you give too much

A

Dilaudid

2501
Q

Intercostal to caudal

A

Intrascalene lower absorption as part of brachial plexus

2502
Q

Neuraxial opioids procure analgesia via

A

Dorsal horn opioid receptors

Morphine can go to stark when given intrathecal and can cause respiratory depression at 6 to 18 hours

2503
Q

PDPH is not associated with

A

Fever

2504
Q

1 liter of crystalloid or 1 pRBC lowers temp by

A

.25 degrees C

2505
Q

Hypothermia is protective against

A

Cerebral ischemia and hypoxia

2506
Q

Postop vision loss if

A

Prone position
Long duration of surgery
Prolonged hypotension
Significant intraop blood loss

2507
Q

Protect ulnar nerve with

A

Forearm supination

2508
Q

Dantrolene decreases

A

Release of calcium from SR

2509
Q

Mandibular central incisors most likely to be injured during

A

Intubation

2510
Q

Cuff of LMA can cause

A

Hypoglossal or lingual nerve injury

Hypoglossal goes to ipsilateral side

2511
Q

Positive pressure leak test will not find leak in

A

Vaporizer

2512
Q

IOP is not affected by

A

Etomidate

2513
Q

Left IJ most likely to lead to

A

Chylothorax

2514
Q

Anaphylaxis

A

Type 1 hypersensitivity antigen binding for IgE

2515
Q

Rodenticide

A

Super warfarin

2516
Q

Amide local anesthetic breakdown

A

Plasma cholinesterase

2517
Q

Onset and recovery of block works fastest at

A

Diaphragm

2518
Q

Atracurium breakdown

A

Hoffman elimination

2519
Q

Block recovery after single dose of NDMR is the result of

A

Redistribution

2520
Q

Avoid which NDMB in patients with renal failure

A

Pancuronium

2521
Q

High K above 5.5 don’t use

A

Succ

2522
Q

Hypercalcemia does not enhance

A

Neuromuscular block

2523
Q

Histamine release following administration of NBMAs is most apparent after giving

A

Succinylcholine

2524
Q

Can give succ to a burn patients as long as they got it within

A

2 days of burn

2525
Q

Succ is a partial agonist of the

A

AchR

Binds the alpha subunit

2526
Q

Succ onset

Succ offset

A

<1 min

5 to 10 minutes

2527
Q

Succ much higher risk of

A

Allergic reaction which is IgE mediated

2528
Q

Succ can increase

A

ICP

2529
Q

Heart transplant patients can get

A

Succinylcholine

2530
Q

Succ binds

A

Alpha subunit of postsynaptic AcH receptor

2531
Q

Phase 1 block

A

Cation channel stays open leading to

Flaccid paralysis

2532
Q

Phase 2

A

TOF<50%

At very high doses of succinylcholine

2533
Q

Dantrolene elimination half life is

A

12 hours

2534
Q

Dantrolene inhibits calcium release from the

A

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

2535
Q

Continue dantrolene infusion in MH patients for at least

A

24 hours in the ICU

2536
Q

Increase in biliary pressure due to

A

Opiates

Least is from tramadol/buenorphine

2537
Q

Antiemetics don’t act on

A

Opioid receptor

2538
Q

TIVA = less

A

PONV

2539
Q

Can’t use in pts with Parkinson’s disease

A

Droperidol

2540
Q

Black box droperidol for

A

QT prolongation

2541
Q

Can use propofol with

A

Acute intermittent porphyria

2542
Q

Amnesia persists the longest with

A

Benzodiazepines

2543
Q

Flumazinil lasts

A

45 to 90 min

Give in doses of 0.2 mg up to 3 mg

2544
Q

Clonidine

A

Hypotension and bradycardia

2545
Q

Lorazepam

A

Lasts 32 hours

2546
Q

Etomidate

A

PONV and thrombophlebitis

Maintains Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction

2547
Q

No ketamine during

A

Pregnancy

2548
Q

Reduction of methemoglobin to hemoglobin is action of

A

Methylene blue

2549
Q

Mannitol can cause

A

Pulmonary edema

2550
Q

Glucagon produced by

A

Pancreatic alpha cells

2551
Q

Glucagon causes

A

Positive inotropy and increased heart rate

Can treat hypoglycemia and beta blocker overdose (5 to 10mg iv)

2552
Q

IV beta blockers for

A

HTN and tachyarrhyhmias

Propranolol non selective beta blocker

2553
Q

Labetalol is 7 times more

A

Beta than alpha

2554
Q

Esmolol is much less

A

Potent than propranolol

2555
Q

Want to discontinue TCA and MAOis

A

2 weeks before surgery

2556
Q

Digoxin

A

Positive inotropy, negative chronotropy, reduced SVR

Inhibits sodium/potassium ATPase

2557
Q

Can give lidocaine for

A

V Tach

2558
Q

High potassium can lead to

A

Digoxin toxicity

2559
Q

Clindamycin prolongs

A

NDMBs

2560
Q

Buprenorphine 50 times more potent than

A

Morphine

2561
Q

Nalbuphine iv for

A

Intrathecal
Itching

Start with dose 4 mg iv

2562
Q

Can’t give reglan to patients with

A

Epilepsy

2563
Q

Reglan increases

A

LES tone

2564
Q

Randomization no affect on

A

Power of study, does balance cofounders

2565
Q

Type 1 error =

A

False positive

2566
Q

Mann Whitney for

A

Unpaired groups

2567
Q

Nominal variable has two or more categories such as

A

Gender

2568
Q

Patients can refuse testing for

A

HIV

2569
Q

Roe v Wade

A

Established women’s right to obtain a therapeutic abortion in early stages of pregnancy

2570
Q

Four principles of malpractice

A

Preexisting duty of care
Breach of duty
Injury to patient
Proximate cause

2571
Q

Antithymocyte globulin side effects

A

Leukopenia
Thrombocytopenia
Serum sickness, anaphylactic rxn

2572
Q

Orthodeoxia

A

Hepatopulmonary syndrome

2573
Q

Parameter of TEG measuring clot strength is

A

Maximum amplitude

2574
Q

Drug of choice for increasing heart rate in heart transplant patients

A

Isoproterenol

2575
Q

ESRD

A

Nprmochromic, normocytic anemia

2576
Q

Hyperventilation with lower tidal volumes with

A

Cirrhosis

2577
Q

Vasopressin affects SVR without big effect on

A

PVR

2578
Q

Diagnosis of rejection requires a

A

Liver biopsy

2579
Q

Reperfusion syndrome occurs during

A

Neohepatic phase of liver transplant when portal vein, hepatic artery, and vena cava are unclamped

2580
Q

Don’t use nimbex in

A

Rapid sequence induction

2581
Q

Ok to use succ if preop potassium less than

A

5.5 in ESRD

2582
Q

Usually two p waves on

A

Donated heart due to both donor and recipient AV nodes

2583
Q

Usually plt count goes up 10000

A

Per donor unit

2584
Q

Give FFP bc it gives back

A

All coagulation factors

Cryoprecipitate for hypofibrinogen which shouldn’t be given for bleeding before FFP

2585
Q

Citrate not metabolized without liver

A

During anhepatic phase need to watch calcium bc low amounts will lead to decreased cardia contractility

2586
Q

Most common cause of ARDS is

A

Severe sepsis

2587
Q

Same volume replete on overall whether using

A

CVP or PA cath

2588
Q

Delirium leads to

A

Increased morbidity and mortality

2589
Q

Expiratory wheezing not heard in

A

Severe asthma

2590
Q

ARDS damage

A

Capillary endothelial
Alveolar epithelial cells
Impaired surfactant levels

2591
Q

Pneumothorax can lead to

A

Impaired ventilation of unaffected lung

2592
Q

Transient increase in atrial pressure produced by isovolumetric contraction =

A

C wave

2593
Q

PEEP can decrease

A

LV afterload and thereby enhancing cardiac performance

2594
Q

DKA has a high

A

Anion gap

2595
Q

Sodium bicarbonate problems

A

No benefit in acidosis from cardiac arrest, shock, and sepsis.

Can lead to venous hypercarbia, tissue hypoxia, hypernatremia, shift of 02 dissociation curve

2596
Q

No ketonuria is seen with

A

HHS

2597
Q

If u had a pneumonectomy

A

Don’t do central line on other side bc only lung u have

2598
Q

Don’t do subclavian on side with

A

AV fistula

2599
Q

Trunk is

A

18% in burn formula

2600
Q

4 ml/cc/hr per

A

Parkland formula

2601
Q

Cherry red pigmentation

A

Only during high CO concentrations

2602
Q

In anaphylaxis intravascular fluid moves into tissue triggering acute tissue edema leading to rise in

A

Hematocrit in pts suffering from anaphylactic rxn

2603
Q

Intraop urine output has not been shown to be a predictor of

A

Postop renal dysfunction

2604
Q

If life threatening bleeding after giving tPA can reverse first line with

A

Cryoprecipitate

2605
Q

Transfusion of pRBCs helps BP by increasing

A

Preload

2606
Q

Most citrate toxicity would come from

A

FFP

2607
Q

Sepsis you see a low

A

SVR

2608
Q

Can you CPAP and biPAP for

A

Cardiogenic pulmonary edema

2609
Q

Nitric oxide

A

Potent pulmonary vasodilator that can cause plt dysfunction

2610
Q

Giving pRBCs shifts oxyhemoglobin curve to the

A

Left

2611
Q

In management of acute aortic dissection

A

Morphine first then esmolol then sodium nitroprusside

Want systolic 90-110

2612
Q

First signs of cyanide toxicity in patients treated with nitroprusside is

A

Tachyphylaxis

2613
Q

Tachycardia decreases

A

Diastole time

2614
Q

Cryoprecipitate contains

A
Fibrinogen 
Fibronectun
VwF
Factor 8 
Factor 13
2615
Q

MABL

A
EBV x (pt hct-minimum tolerated hct))/Pt hct
Older children EBV 75 to 80 cc/kg
2616
Q

Albuterol acts on

A

cAMP

Relax bronchial smooth muscle

Can be used in ppl with cardiovascular disorders

2617
Q

Spinal cord stimulator does not treat

A

Pancreas related pain

2618
Q

Tumescent lidocaine max dose

A

55 mg/kg during liposuction

2619
Q

Neuraxial morphine has an association with

A

Reactivating heroes simplex virus

2620
Q

Lidocaine speak plasma concentration occurs more than

A

6 hours after injection when given for tumescent lidocaine procedures

2621
Q

Bainbridge reflex

A

Increase in HR due to an increase in CVP

2622
Q

Stroke volume and arterial pulse pressure drop during

A

Expiration

2623
Q

Guillan barre causes

A

Pain

2624
Q

Brain dead pts more vasopressin release and most common electrolyte abnormality is

A

Hypernatremia

2625
Q

PEEP increases

A

FRC

Does not decrease extra vascular lung water

2626
Q

No enteral nutrition if patient has ileus but ok for

A

Pancreatitis

2627
Q

Do not use verapamil or other calcium channel blockers during

A

MH

2628
Q

MAC

A

Concentration of vapor that prevents the reaction to a standard surgical stimulus of 50% of subjects

2629
Q

To achieve same partial pressure at altitude need to increase

A

Concentration of anesthetic

2630
Q

Primary polycythemia higher

A

Plt count than secondary polycythemia

2631
Q

Epidural analgesia during first stage is

A

Fever

2632
Q

Ordinal data

A

Wilcoxon rank sum test

2633
Q

Milrinone

A

Inodilator and vasodilation

2634
Q

Jet ventilation reduces risk of

A

Airway fire

2635
Q

Two small groups comparing data use

A

Fisher exact test

2636
Q

More likely to cause atlantoaxial instability

A

Neck flexion

2637
Q

Dexamethasone no

A

Mineralocorticoid activity

2638
Q

Celebrex raises

A

Lithium levels

2639
Q

SD=

A

SE x square root of sample size

2640
Q

Gi/Gu

A

No infective endocarditis prophylaxis

2641
Q

Masseter muscle innervation

A

Trigeminal nerve

2642
Q

Nitric oxide

A

cGMP

2643
Q

Sensory innervation of tounge

A

Mandibular nerve CN V3

2644
Q

Nitrous oxide

A

NMDA receptor antagonist

2645
Q

Fraction of expired gases use

A

Infrared absorption spectrophotometry

2646
Q

More airway resistance with

A

Hyperventilating

2647
Q

Most common cause of normal anion gap in setting of lactic acidosis

A

Hypoalbuminemia

2648
Q

Vocal cord paralysis may result from

A

Prolonged over inflation of an endotracheal tube

2649
Q

Anaphylactoid are not

A

IgE mediated

2650
Q

Esmolol breakdown

A

Red cell esterases

2651
Q

Labetalol iv 7 to 1

A

Beta to alpha

2652
Q

Intracranial aneurysm symptoms

A

Severe headache

Neck stiffness

2653
Q

Cerebral vasospasm treatment includes

A

Nimodipine aka calcium channel blockers

2654
Q

Hyperthermia can trigger

A

Myasthenia gravis

2655
Q

In pregnancy plasma volume goes up causing albumin levels to go

A

Down

2656
Q

Coagulation factors that go up most in pregnancy

A

Factors 7 and fibrinogen

2657
Q

HFJV allows for

A

Passive expiration whereas HFOV does not

2658
Q

Flumazinil half life 1 hr not long enough for most

A

Benzo agonists and causes resedation

2659
Q

N20

A

1590 L and 745 psig

2660
Q

Furosemide

A

Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis

2661
Q

Thiazides works at

A

Distal convoluted tubule

2662
Q

Increase in renal bicarbonate with

A

Acetazolamide

2663
Q

Acetazolamide

A

Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis bc more bicarbonate in urine getting excreted

2664
Q

Hemoglobin curve affected by carbon dioxide and pH due to

A

Bohr effect

2665
Q

Mivacurium broken down by

A

Psuedocholinesterase

2666
Q

Meperidine resembles atropine so May cause increase in

A

HR

2667
Q

Most common cause of bradycardia in neonates is

A

Hypoxia

2668
Q

PRIS

A

Cardiac failure
Rhabdomyolysis
Pancreatitis

2669
Q

Drugs not crossing placenta

A

Heparin insulin glycopyrolate muscle relaxants and succ

2670
Q

Tourniquet release can cause

A

PE through dislodgement of thrombus with acute decrease in Etc02 and sp02

2671
Q

HTN
Bradycardia
Diaphoresis

A

Autonomic hyperteflexia

2672
Q

After spinal cord injury extra junctional receptors are highest 3 days to

A

9 mo after

2673
Q

Treat autonomic reflexia with

A

Short acting not long acting like phenoxybenzamine

2674
Q

Autonomic hyperteflexia causes

A

Reflex bradycardia

2675
Q

Ion trapping

A

Fetus has low pH

Gives hydrogen ion to basic drug like lidocaine trapping it by making it ionized

2676
Q

Great auricular artery originates from the aorta between

A

T9-T12

2677
Q

Circle of Willis is made up of

A

ACA, PCA, anterior communicating internal carotid

MCA is not considered part of the circle of Willis

2678
Q

Precedex is most selective for

A

Alpha 2

2679
Q

Propofol decreases amplitude of

A

SSEPs

2680
Q

Least resistant

A

BAEP

2681
Q

Carcinoid associated with

A

Tachycardia not bradycardia

2682
Q

Greater cornu of hyoid bone local anesthetic

A

Internal branch of superior laryngeal nerve

2683
Q

External obliques muscles contract

A

During forced exhalation

2684
Q

Cardiovascular collapse during massive venous air embolus

A

Air lock phenomenon in right ventricle

2685
Q

NMDA is an

A

Excitatory neurotransmitter blocked by ketamine

2686
Q

Double blinded is to both

A

Patient and investigator

2687
Q

Isoflurane most improved with

A

High minute ventilation

2688
Q

Expiration controls

A

Ventral respiratiry group in the medulla

2689
Q

Heat loss through breathing circuit

A

Evaporation

2690
Q

Phenelzine is an MAOi used for treatment can cause

A

Serotonin syndrome

Clonus hyperreflexia tachycardia also seen

No meperidine to patient on phenelzine

2691
Q

Uremia causes platelet dysfunction including impaired aggregation

A

In dialysis patients

Platelet count usually doesn’t go down

2692
Q

Glycine

A

Metabolized to ammonia

2693
Q

Myelingocele goes with

A

Hydrocephalus

2694
Q

Non pitting edema

A

Myxadema coma

2695
Q

Cuffed trach is necessary when

A

Positive pressure ventilation is required

2696
Q

At least 10% of transfused blood is

A

Hemolyzed within 24 hours of blood transfusion

Patients with Gilbert’s have a hard time dealing with increased unconjugated bilirubin load

2697
Q

Supraclavicular block high risk for

A

Pneumothorax - near subclavian artery and pleura

2698
Q

Intrascalene usually doesn’t affect

A

Ulnar where’s supraclavicular does

2699
Q

Corneal reflex

A

5 and 7

2700
Q

Sulfhemoglobinemia shifts oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to the

A

Right

2701
Q

Clevidipine breakdown is by

A

Plasma esterases

2702
Q

Gabapentin binds

A

Alpha 2 receptors

2703
Q

Most sensitive lab test for acromegaly

A

IGF-1

2704
Q

Cryotherapy helps with postop pain by

A

Nociceptive sensitivity inhibition by slowing nerve conduction

2705
Q

MG and chronic renal failure do not lead to

A

Upregulation of nicotinic Ach receptors

2706
Q

Indications for hyperbaric oxygen therapy

A

Air embolus, carbon monoxide poisoning, ischemic ulcers

2707
Q

Epi
Norepinephrine
Dopamine do not cross

A

BBB

2708
Q

Mitral valve closes at the

A

R wave

2709
Q

W/o first stage regulator

A

Can get depletion of oxygen tank

2710
Q

Hyper magnesium

A

Iatrogenic

May result in reduced deep tendon reflexes and muscle weakness

2711
Q

Cerebral vasospasm most likely to develop at 2-14 days post

A

Sub arachnoid hemorrhage

2712
Q

Milrinone dose should be reduced in setting of

A

Renal failure

PDE inhibitor

Increases cAMP levels leading to more inotropy

Increases cardiac index without increasing myocardial oxygen demand

Reduces SVR and PVR

2713
Q

Inferior wall of LV is done by

A

RCA it is on septal side

2714
Q

MAOi use increases

A

MAC

2715
Q

Hypermagnesium can cause

A

Muscle weakness which can lead to blurred vision

2716
Q

Cardiac myxona most common benign cardiac tumor mainly found in

A

Left atrium

2717
Q

Activating nicotinic Ach on motor end plate requires

A

Two Ach or one succ molecule

2718
Q

Meperidine main effect is through

A

Kappa opioid receptors

2719
Q

Aorta to pulmonary artery

A

PDA

2720
Q

Urine to plasma osmolar ratio > 1.5 indicates

A

Prerenal oliguria

2721
Q

PPV in neonate if HR under

A

100

Chest compressions if under 60

2722
Q

Acute mountain sickness treat with

A

Acetazolamide

Dexamethasone

2723
Q

NSAIDS have a ceiling affect to

A

Analgesia

2724
Q

Cephalad movement of diaphragm is seen in

A

Pregnancy

2725
Q

Progesterone

A

Causes relaxation of bronchiolar smooth muscle during pregnancy and mitigates upper airway edema

2726
Q

Esmolol breakdown

A

Red cell esterases

2727
Q

Labetalol iv 7 to 1

A

Beta to alpha

2728
Q

Intracranial aneurysm symptoms

A

Severe headache

Neck stiffness

2729
Q

Cerebral vasospasm treatment includes

A

Nimodipine aka calcium channel blockers

2730
Q

Hyperthermia can trigger

A

Myasthenia gravis

2731
Q

In pregnancy plasma volume goes up causing albumin levels to go

A

Down

2732
Q

Coagulation factors that go up most in pregnancy

A

Factors 7 and fibrinogen

2733
Q

HFJV allows for

A

Passive expiration whereas HFOV does not

2734
Q

Flumazinil half life 1 hr not long enough for most

A

Benzo agonists and causes resedation

2735
Q

N20

A

1590 L and 745 psig

2736
Q

Furosemide

A

Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis

2737
Q

Thiazides works at

A

Distal convoluted tubule

2738
Q

Increase in renal bicarbonate with

A

Acetazolamide

2739
Q

Acetazolamide

A

Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis bc more bicarbonate in urine getting excreted

2740
Q

Hemoglobin curve affected by carbon dioxide and pH due to

A

Bohr effect

2741
Q

Mivacurium broken down by

A

Psuedocholinesterase

2742
Q

Meperidine resembles atropine so May cause increase in

A

HR

2743
Q

Most common cause of bradycardia in neonates is

A

Hypoxia

2744
Q

PRIS

A

Cardiac failure
Rhabdomyolysis
Pancreatitis

2745
Q

Drugs not crossing placenta

A

Heparin insulin glycopyrolate muscle relaxants and succ

2746
Q

Tourniquet release can cause

A

PE through dislodgement of thrombus with acute decrease in Etc02 and sp02

2747
Q

HTN
Bradycardia
Diaphoresis

A

Autonomic hyperteflexia

2748
Q

After spinal cord injury extra junctional receptors are highest 3 days to

A

9 mo after

2749
Q

Treat autonomic reflexia with

A

Short acting not long acting like phenoxybenzamine

2750
Q

Autonomic hyperteflexia causes

A

Reflex bradycardia

2751
Q

Ion trapping

A

Fetus has low pH

Gives hydrogen ion to basic drug like lidocaine trapping it by making it ionized

2752
Q

Great auricular artery originates from the aorta between

A

T9-T12

2753
Q

Circle of Willis is made up of

A

ACA, PCA, anterior communicating internal carotid

MCA is not considered part of the circle of Willis

2754
Q

Precedex is most selective for

A

Alpha 2

2755
Q

Propofol decreases amplitude of

A

SSEPs

2756
Q

Least resistant

A

BAEP

2757
Q

Carcinoid associated with

A

Tachycardia not bradycardia

2758
Q

Greater cornu of hyoid bone local anesthetic

A

Internal branch of superior laryngeal nerve

2759
Q

External obliques muscles contract

A

During forced exhalation

2760
Q

Cardiovascular collapse during massive venous air embolus

A

Air lock phenomenon in right ventricle

2761
Q

NMDA is an

A

Excitatory neurotransmitter blocked by ketamine

2762
Q

Double blinded is to both

A

Patient and investigator

2763
Q

Isoflurane most improved with

A

High minute ventilation

2764
Q

Expiration controls

A

Ventral respiratiry group in the medulla

2765
Q

Heat loss through breathing circuit

A

Evaporation

2766
Q

Phenelzine is an MAOi used for treatment can cause

A

Serotonin syndrome

Clonus hyperreflexia tachycardia also seen

No meperidine to patient on phenelzine

2767
Q

Uremia causes platelet dysfunction including impaired aggregation

A

In dialysis patients

Platelet count usually doesn’t go down

2768
Q

Glycine

A

Metabolized to ammonia

2769
Q

Myelingocele goes with

A

Hydrocephalus

2770
Q

Non pitting edema

A

Myxadema coma

2771
Q

Cuffed trach is necessary when

A

Positive pressure ventilation is required

2772
Q

At least 10% of transfused blood is

A

Hemolyzed within 24 hours of blood transfusion

Patients with Gilbert’s have a hard time dealing with increased unconjugated bilirubin load

2773
Q

Supraclavicular block high risk for

A

Pneumothorax - near subclavian artery and pleura

2774
Q

Intrascalene usually doesn’t affect

A

Ulnar where’s supraclavicular does

2775
Q

Corneal reflex

A

5 and 7

2776
Q

Sulfhemoglobinemia shifts oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to the

A

Right

2777
Q

Clevidipine breakdown is by

A

Plasma esterases

2778
Q

Gabapentin binds

A

Alpha 2 receptors

2779
Q

Most sensitive lab test for acromegaly

A

IGF-1

2780
Q

Cryotherapy helps with postop pain by

A

Nociceptive sensitivity inhibition by slowing nerve conduction

2781
Q

MG and chronic renal failure do not lead to

A

Upregulation of nicotinic Ach receptors

2782
Q

Indications for hyperbaric oxygen therapy

A

Air embolus, carbon monoxide poisoning, ischemic ulcers

2783
Q

Epi
Norepinephrine
Dopamine do not cross

A

BBB

2784
Q

Mitral valve closes at the

A

R wave

2785
Q

W/o first stage regulator

A

Can get depletion of oxygen tank

2786
Q

Hyper magnesium

A

Iatrogenic

May result in reduced deep tendon reflexes and muscle weakness

2787
Q

Cerebral vasospasm most likely to develop at 2-14 days post

A

Sub arachnoid hemorrhage

2788
Q

Milrinone dose should be reduced in setting of

A

Renal failure

PDE inhibitor

Increases cAMP levels leading to more inotropy

Increases cardiac index without increasing myocardial oxygen demand

Reduces SVR and PVR

2789
Q

Inferior wall of LV is done by

A

RCA it is on septal side

2790
Q

MAOi use increases

A

MAC

2791
Q

Hypermagnesium can cause

A

Muscle weakness which can lead to blurred vision

2792
Q

Cardiac myxona most common benign cardiac tumor mainly found in

A

Left atrium

2793
Q

Activating nicotinic Ach on motor end plate requires

A

Two Ach or one succ molecule

2794
Q

Meperidine main effect is through

A

Kappa opioid receptors

2795
Q

Aorta to pulmonary artery

A

PDA

2796
Q

Urine to plasma osmolar ratio > 1.5 indicates

A

Prerenal oliguria

2797
Q

PPV in neonate if HR under

A

100

Chest compressions if under 60

2798
Q

Acute mountain sickness treat with

A

Acetazolamide

Dexamethasone

2799
Q

NSAIDS have a ceiling affect to

A

Analgesia

2800
Q

Cephalad movement of diaphragm is seen in

A

Pregnancy

2801
Q

Progesterone

A

Causes relaxation of bronchiolar smooth muscle during pregnancy and mitigates upper airway edema

2802
Q

Nonshivering thermogenesis

A

Triggered by norepinephrine glucocorticoids thyroxine

2803
Q

Alveolar dead space goes down during pregnancy

A

Due to increase in cardiac output

2804
Q

Mid esophageal aortic long axis view see ascending aorta at

A

105 degrees

2805
Q

To reduce PONV need metochlopramide dose

A

25-50 mg

2806
Q

Trans cranial Doppler can see elbolization in

A

90% of occlusions

2807
Q

Next to intrascalene block you have vertebral artery where if you inject local anesthetic you get immediate

A

Seizures

2808
Q

Phrenic nerve stimulators improve

A

Atelectasis

2809
Q

Vasoplegia causes bad

A

Vasodilation

2810
Q

Dixogin inhibits myocyte Na K ATPase

A

Leads to increased intracellular calcium and positive inotropy

Treatment of overdose is with immunotherapy

2811
Q

Glucagon

A

Acts via G protein coupled receptor independent of beta 1 receptor to cause chronotropic and inotropic effects

2812
Q

Milrinone

A

May be limited due to hypotension

Due to its arterial and venous vasodilatory effects

2813
Q

Sinus Brady and angina

A

Give amlodipine

2814
Q

Increased bradykinin is due to

A

Ace inhibitors leading to angioedema

2815
Q

V/Q ratio is 1 at the

A

Third rib in upright lungs

2816
Q

TLC, RV FRC all increased with

A

COPD

2817
Q

Chemoceptors sense higher pC02 and increase

A

Ventilation

2818
Q

02 content of arterial blood

A

1.39 x hemoglobin x O2 sat + 0.003*PaO2

2819
Q

Diastole is

A

Ventricles filling

Consists of
Isovolumetric relaxation 
Rapid inflow
Duastasis
Atrial systole
2820
Q

SVR =

A

80 x (MAP-CVP)/CO

2821
Q

A failing ventricle leads to dilation and significantly increase

A

Afterload which lowers cardiac output

2822
Q

Hypoxia acidosis ischemia and drugs like calcium channel blockers and beta blockers decrease

A

Contractility

2823
Q

Coronary perfusion pressure

A

Aortic diastolic pressure - LVEDP

2824
Q

Fourth power of radius

A

Reduction in flow due to coronary lumen getting smaller

2825
Q

Coronary vasodilation by

A

Calcium channel blockers
Nitrates
Dipyridamole

2826
Q

Left recurrent laryngeal wraps around the

A

Aorta

2827
Q

Right recurrent laryngeal wraps around

A

Right subclavian artery

2828
Q

Apex of heart is conducted by

A

Left posterior fasicle

2829
Q

ICD for

A

Left bumble branch block

With QRS complex greater than 150

2830
Q

Atrial arrhythmias can lead to

A

Inappropriate ICD firing

2831
Q

IABP cycling is triggered by the

A

R wave of the ecg

2832
Q

Contraindications to IABP

A

Platelet count<50000, active stroke, severe AI, active bleeding

2833
Q

Amionester local anesthetic more likely allergy than

A

Aminoamide

2834
Q

Sulfites are added to local anesthetics to stabilize

A

Vasoconstricting agents like epi

2835
Q

Methylparaben preservative can lead to

A

Anaphylactoid rxn

2836
Q

Cocaine is a local anesthetic reversibly blocks the flux

A

Of sodium ions

Norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor

2837
Q

Cocaine has led to

A

Ruptured aortic aneurysms
Infective endocarditis
Vascular thrombosis

2838
Q

NSAIDs block

A

Cox which enhance prostaglandin production

They have a ceiling effect for pain control

2839
Q

Water freely moves across the

A

BBB

2840
Q

Atropine doses cross

A

BBB and causes sedation

Glycopyrolate does not

2841
Q

Can’t give which drug IM as it causes local ischemia and tissue necrosis

A

Norepinephrine

2842
Q

Phenylephrine direct alpha 1 that causes more

A

Venoconstriction>arterial constriction

2843
Q

Midazolam can interfere with placement of

A

Deep brain stimulator

Propofol affects MERs as well but is rapidly titratable

2844
Q

Lumbar plexus block spares the

A

Sciatic nerve which does muscles that do planterflexion at the ankle

It does block femoral obturator and lateral femoral cutaneous nerves

2845
Q

Newly diagnosed hyperthyroidism

A

See elevated thyroid hormone binding ratio

2846
Q

Resting LV systolic function is not affected by

A

Aging in most studies

Plasma catecholamines are significantly elevated

2847
Q

Rocuronium

A

25-30% renally excreted

Not affected by renal failure

2848
Q

Decrease in fresh gas flow

A

From semi closed to closed circuit

As more fresh gas is injected into the system, it causes less vaporizer gas so u rebreather less

Closed circuit causes more rebreathing of gas

C02 levels still go down with scavenging

2849
Q

Conus medullaris =

A

Terminal end of spinal cord
Ends at L3 in newborns and sural sac at S3

In adults ends at L1 and Dural sac at S1

2850
Q

TAP block

A

Intercostal, subcostal, ilioinguinal, iliohypogastric

2851
Q

Succ in kids causes

A

Bradycardia

Can give atropine before in patients<1

2852
Q

Monoclonal anti Ige antibody

A

Omalizumab

2853
Q

Most common periop neuropathy is

A

Ulnar

Keep hand and forearm supinate to prevent injury

2854
Q

Double peak is common in capnography who have received

A

Single lung transplant

2855
Q

Capnogram does not return to 0 during inspiration

A

When expiratory valve is incompetent

2856
Q

Discogenic low back pain

A

Pain increases with sitting

2857
Q

Morning stiffness

A

Ankylosis spondylitis

2858
Q

GBS is associated with SIADH which causes

A

Hyponatremia
Ileus
LP shows increased protein with normal cell count and glucose in CSF
Associated with DVT as well

2859
Q

Cornula placenta predisposes to

A

Breech fetal presentation

2860
Q

First order kinetics is a

A

Constant fraction not a constant amount per unit time

2861
Q

Administration of glucose containing crystalloid is not recommended in

A

Adult burn pts

2862
Q

Coma
No brainstem reflexes
Apnea for

A

Brain death

2863
Q

Static compliance is measured without

A

Gas flow

Inspiratory gold is an example of static compliance

Tidal volume/Pplat-PEEP

2864
Q

No lung sliding and no B lines think

A

Pneumothorax

2865
Q

TEE then precordial Doppler are best for looking at

A

Venous air embolus

2866
Q

Inspiration less with

A

Poor patient effort

2867
Q

Pregamglionic nerve fibers of upper extremity originate from

A

First four or five thoracic spinal segments

2868
Q

Precurization with non depolarizing blocker clearly reduces

A

Fasiculations before giving succinylcholine

2869
Q

First degree relative

A

Leads to more increase graft vs host disease

2870
Q

Latex allergy

A

Avocado, banana, kiwi, pineapple, mango

Tropical fruits

2871
Q

Spinal block can fail if

A

Maternal obesity
Late labor epidural placement

Moving from epidural to spinal does not cause this but can lead to high spinal

2872
Q

Beer measure of plt function

A

Optical aggretometry

2873
Q

Medial arch of foot is

A

Saphenous nerve. Passes anterior to medial malleolus

2874
Q

Hyperparathyroidism leads to

A

Skeletal muscle weakness due to hypercalcemia

Hypercalcemia often leads to hypertension

Shortens at interval

2875
Q

Communication between physician and attorney are almost always

A

Privledged

2876
Q

Phosgene leads to

A

Pulmonary damage

2877
Q

Gel filled mattresses for

A

Hypothermia can be transferred easily

2878
Q

Most heat loss is due to radiation and can be fixed by

A

Warming the room

2879
Q

As flow through rotameter increases so does the

A

Cross sectional area of the orifice around the rotameter

2880
Q

Neuromuscular blocking agents effect

A

EMG signals

2881
Q

Ach can affect

A

Post synaptic receptors at motor end plate to obliterate emg signal

2882
Q

Type 2 pneumocytes produce

A

Surfactant which helps reduce atelectasis

2883
Q

Carbon dioxide cylinder is

A

Gray

2884
Q

Nitrogen cylinder is

A

Black

2885
Q

Treacher Collins

A

50% of these patients have hearing loss

OSA common
Hard to ventilate/intubate

2886
Q

Oscillations in BP occur during

A

Deflation. Highest oscillation is the MAP

2887
Q

Electromechanical pressure transducer is needed for

A

Invasive arterial monitoring

2888
Q

National practitioner database reports

A

Any malpractice payment made by an insurer on behalf of an individual physician

2889
Q

Path of motor evoked potential

A

Lower limb capsule to internal capsule to brainstem to corticospinal tract to peripheral nerve

2890
Q

Prevent post op ileus with

A

Sympathetic activity inhibits bowel motility and the surgery itself interrupts normal basal activity, and opioids May also lead to postop Ileus

Almovopan can help with postop ileus

2891
Q

U2

A

Respiratory depression, miosis, reduced Gi motility

2892
Q

Precedex as low as

A

.15 mcg per kilo has been shown to reduce postop delirium in children

2893
Q

Postpartum period leads to exacerbation of

A

MS

2894
Q

Avoid succ in MS can lead to

A

Hyperkalemia

2895
Q

Pataloglossus is innervated by

A

Vagus nerve

2896
Q

Most affected dermatome from herpes zoster

A

Thoracic

2897
Q

Hypophosphatemia leads to

A

Dysfunction of the skeletal muscles

Lack of atp

2898
Q

Refeeding syndrome

A

All eclectrolytes are low but you get hyperglycemia

2899
Q

Terbutaline can cause

A

Hyperglycemia
Tachycardia
Hypokalemia

2900
Q

LV diastolic dysfunction usually goes with

A

LV hypertrophy

2901
Q

Increase LES tone to block aspiration prophylaxis with

A

Metochlopramide - antidopaminergic agent

Iv form usually acts within 1-3 min

Helps with gastric emptying

2902
Q

MLT tube leads to

A

Increased length of tube

Mlt tube is not safe with lasers

2903
Q

1.5 Mac and permissive hypercapnia leads to

A

Higher CBF to CMR ratio

Volatile anesthetics increase CBF and decrease CMR

2904
Q

Brain gets

A

15% of cardiac output with blood flow approx 50ml/100g/min

2905
Q

N20 increases

A

CBF and CmR

2906
Q

Propofol and hypothermia decrease

A

CMR

2907
Q

When a patients intrinsic HR is higher and set pacemaker with lower HR and in asynchronous mode can lead to

A

R on T leading to V tach or V fib

2908
Q

Morphine can have an analgesic duration of action of

A

4 hours

2909
Q

Alfentanyl is unionized with

A

Low pka

2910
Q

FRC and TLC you cant get from

A

Spirometry

2911
Q

Fenoldopam causes increase in

A

Renal perfusion

Selective dopamine 1 agonist

2912
Q

Obesity leads to big reduction in

A

Expiratory reserve volume

2913
Q

Angiotensinogen is made in the

A

Liver

2914
Q

ACE cleaves

A

Angiotensin 1 to 2 and is made in the lungs

2915
Q

Platelets are released from megakaryocytes which are released from the

A

Bone marrow

2916
Q

IgA blood to patient who is iga deficient

A

Leads to transfusion rxn

2917
Q

CVP is the pressure in the right atrium and does not change much in

A

Pregnancy

2918
Q

SVR decreases in a normal pregnancy by about

A

15%

2919
Q

V wave

A

Increased venous return and systolic return to right atrium

2920
Q

Normal CVP

A

2 to 8 mm Hg

2921
Q

Total spinal in neonate first step is

A

Intubation

Usually leads to apnea/respiratory depression

2922
Q

Thiazides increase reabsorption of calcium in distal convoluted tubule leading to

A

Worsening hypercalcemia

2923
Q

Bladder distention can lead to

A

HTB intraop

2924
Q

Activation of NMDA receptor increases intracellular calcium which acts as a

A

Signaling pathway

2925
Q

Carotid body chemoceptors are primarily responsive to

A

Reductions in arterial partial pressure of oxygen

2926
Q

Buffering of excess hydrogen ions is why bicarbonate is low in

A

High anion gap metabolic acidosis

2927
Q

Renal failure causes metabolic acidosis bc kidney usually excretes hydrogen ions into extracellular fluid but this mechanism

A

Is messed up in renal failure

2928
Q

If patient is stable after aspiration episode

A

Suction the endotracheal tube

2929
Q

Vascular rings are a sign of

A

Right sided aortic arches

2930
Q

Milrinone is a

A

PDE3 inhibitor that increases inotropy

2931
Q

Milrinone causes venodilation which

A

Decreases preload

2932
Q

Optimum rostrel level of sensory block for c section is at

A

T4-S4

2933
Q

Second stage of labor need to cover

A

S2-S4

2934
Q

Aspirin blocks formation of

A

Thromboxane A2

2935
Q

About 10% of platelets come back each day after

A

Aspirin is stopped

2936
Q

Eliquis

A

Direct factor 10a inhibition

2937
Q

Inhaled nitric oxide

A

Pulmonary vasodilator

2938
Q

Max recommended dose of tumescent lidocaine is

A

55mg/kg

2939
Q

0.055 mg/kg is max dose of

A

Epinephrine

2940
Q

Phantom limb pain is a type of

A

Neuropathic pain

2941
Q

Don’t give carboprost if pt has

A

Asthma

2942
Q

Increases in metabolic activity of fetus will use oxygen

A

And decrease amount of oxygen transferred to the fetus

2943
Q

Fetal hgb is

A

Left shifted

2944
Q

During acidic situations oxygen binds hemoglobin

A

Less tightly

2945
Q

A side effect of PGE1 is

A

Apnea

2946
Q

PGE1 can open a

A

Closed ductus arteriosus

2947
Q

Maternal ace inhibitor usage is associated with

A

Oligohydraminos

2948
Q

Carbon monoxide poisoning will show

A

Metabolic acidosis with a normal Pa02 and a falsely elevated Sa02

2949
Q

Hyperchloremic non anion gap acidosis due to

A

Diarrhea

2950
Q

Dobutamine is good if patient is

A

Hypotensive

2951
Q

Cardiogenic shock failure of one or both ventricles

A

Leads to increased preload and inadequate ejection of end diastolic volume

2952
Q

Dopamine can lead to

A

Tachyarhythmia

2953
Q

Dobutamine increases cardiac output and decreases afterload with minimal increase in myocardial oxygen demand so it is good for

A

Cardiogenic shock

2954
Q

Don’t use volatile anesthetics or succinylcholine in kids with

A

Psuedohypertrophic myscular dystrophy

2955
Q

Avoid volatile anesthetics in muscular dystrophy

A

Can lead to rhabdomyolysis

2956
Q

Codeine must be

A

Metabolized to exert its effects

Metabolized to morphine with CYP2D6

2957
Q

High bilirubin with normal AST goes with

A

Large hematoma absorption

2958
Q

Elevations in AST Less than 2 times normal unlikely to cause

A

Postop hepatic dysfunction

2959
Q

Pousielle law

A

To the fourth power

Doubling radius will increase flow 16 fold

2960
Q

High pressure/low viscosity and short tubing lead to

A

Slower flow rates

2961
Q

Nicardipine has a prolonged half life in

A

Liver disease

Nicardipine is a calcium channel blocker

2962
Q

Nicardipine decreases

A

SVR and is a good coronary and peripheral dilator
Increases cardiac contractility

Renal insuffiency has no effect on nicardipine

2963
Q

Lead 2 is in between

A

Red and white electrode

Left leg and right arm

2964
Q

Lead 3 is between left leg and left arm

A

Black and red

2965
Q

Nitroglycerin first line in female not anesthesized for

A

Retained placenta

2966
Q

Coiling cables very high risk for

A

Thermal injury

2967
Q

Use of nonferrous cables and fiberoptic cables lowers risk of

A

Injury during mri

2968
Q

Renin release is increased in

A

Cirrhotic patients

2969
Q

Dyspnea while sitting

A

Platypnea

2970
Q

Need to monitor patient for

A

4-5 hours post racemic epinephrine

2971
Q

A sympathetic response is seen initially with

A

Hypoxemia followed by bradycardia

2972
Q

Continued use of opioids despite adverse consequences is

A

Addiction

2973
Q

Labetalol is much more beta to alpha

A

7 to 1 ratio

2974
Q

Normal ly30 is 6%

A

If too high need to give txa which is an antifibrinolytic bonding plasmin effectively decreasing breakdown of fiber

2975
Q

DHCA

A

Continue bypass for 20 minutes past to make sure neural tissues are cooled

2976
Q

Forced elbow extension

A

Leads to median nerve injury

2977
Q

Abduction of the arm too far leads to

A

Stretching of axillary neurovascular bundle

2978
Q

Too much cycling of bp cuff leads to

A

Radial nerve injury

2979
Q

Lidocaine is a weak base

A

Put in a basic solution will keep liocaine mainly unionized

2980
Q

TPN causes

A

Hyperglycemia

2981
Q

Decreasing glucose to lipid ratio of TPN leads to

A

Less incidence of steatosis and hypoglycemia after stopping TPN

Need to monitor glucose levels when giving TPN

2982
Q

Polycystic kidney disease first get

A

CT angiogram to screen for intracranial aneurysms

2983
Q

Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis from

A

Loop and thiazide diuretics

2984
Q

Best for synthetic function of the liver is

A

Prothrombin time

2985
Q

24 hours to giving

A

Intrathecal morphine

2986
Q

AS patients like

A

Increased preload

2987
Q

Bolus dosing for propofol

A

Lean body mass

2988
Q

Baclofen pump is used to treat

A

Muscle spasm

2989
Q

Rocuronium dosing should be based

A

On ideal body weight

2990
Q

Hypokalemic periodic paralysis is caused by a

A

Calcium channel defect

High glucose leads to it bc will release more insulin and lower the potassium

2991
Q

Infants larynx is at

A

C3-C4

C4-c5 in adults

2992
Q

Lower than expected

A

Fi02 if crack in o2 cylinder

2993
Q

Lateral cricoarytenoid for

A

Adduction

2994
Q

Thyroid cartidledge

A

Atoms Apple

2995
Q

Increases in metabolic activity of fetus will use oxygen

A

And decrease amount of oxygen transferred to the fetus

2996
Q

Fetal hgb is

A

Left shifted

2997
Q

During acidic situations oxygen binds hemoglobin

A

Less tightly

2998
Q

A side effect of PGE1 is

A

Apnea

2999
Q

PGE1 can open a

A

Closed ductus arteriosus

3000
Q

Maternal ace inhibitor usage is associated with

A

Oligohydraminos

3001
Q

Carbon monoxide poisoning will show

A

Metabolic acidosis with a normal Pa02 and a falsely elevated Sa02

3002
Q

Hyperchloremic non anion gap acidosis due to

A

Diarrhea

3003
Q

Dobutamine is good if patient is

A

Hypotensive

3004
Q

Cardiogenic shock failure of one or both ventricles

A

Leads to increased preload and inadequate ejection of end diastolic volume

3005
Q

Dopamine can lead to

A

Tachyarhythmia

3006
Q

Dobutamine increases cardiac output and decreases afterload with minimal increase in myocardial oxygen demand so it is good for

A

Cardiogenic shock

3007
Q

Don’t use volatile anesthetics or succinylcholine in kids with

A

Psuedohypertrophic myscular dystrophy

3008
Q

Avoid volatile anesthetics in muscular dystrophy

A

Can lead to rhabdomyolysis

3009
Q

Codeine must be

A

Metabolized to exert its effects

Metabolized to morphine with CYP2D6

3010
Q

High bilirubin with normal AST goes with

A

Large hematoma absorption

3011
Q

Elevations in AST Less than 2 times normal unlikely to cause

A

Postop hepatic dysfunction

3012
Q

Pousielle law

A

To the fourth power

Doubling radius will increase flow 16 fold

3013
Q

High pressure/low viscosity and short tubing lead to

A

Slower flow rates

3014
Q

Nicardipine has a prolonged half life in

A

Liver disease

Nicardipine is a calcium channel blocker

3015
Q

Nicardipine decreases

A

SVR and is a good coronary and peripheral dilator
Increases cardiac contractility

Renal insuffiency has no effect on nicardipine

3016
Q

Lead 2 is in between

A

Red and white electrode

Left leg and right arm

3017
Q

Lead 3 is between left leg and left arm

A

Black and red

3018
Q

Nitroglycerin first line in female not anesthesized for

A

Retained placenta

3019
Q

Coiling cables very high risk for

A

Thermal injury

3020
Q

Use of nonferrous cables and fiberoptic cables lowers risk of

A

Injury during mri

3021
Q

Renin release is increased in

A

Cirrhotic patients

3022
Q

Dyspnea while sitting

A

Platypnea

3023
Q

Need to monitor patient for

A

4-5 hours post racemic epinephrine

3024
Q

A sympathetic response is seen initially with

A

Hypoxemia followed by bradycardia

3025
Q

Continued use of opioids despite adverse consequences is

A

Addiction

3026
Q

Labetalol is much more beta to alpha

A

7 to 1 ratio

3027
Q

Normal ly30 is 6%

A

If too high need to give txa which is an antifibrinolytic bonding plasmin effectively decreasing breakdown of fiber

3028
Q

DHCA

A

Continue bypass for 20 minutes past to make sure neural tissues are cooled

3029
Q

Forced elbow extension

A

Leads to median nerve injury

3030
Q

Abduction of the arm too far leads to

A

Stretching of axillary neurovascular bundle

3031
Q

Too much cycling of bp cuff leads to

A

Radial nerve injury

3032
Q

Lidocaine is a weak base

A

Put in a basic solution will keep liocaine mainly unionized

3033
Q

TPN causes

A

Hyperglycemia

3034
Q

Decreasing glucose to lipid ratio of TPN leads to

A

Less incidence of steatosis and hypoglycemia after stopping TPN

Need to monitor glucose levels when giving TPN

3035
Q

Polycystic kidney disease first get

A

CT angiogram to screen for intracranial aneurysms

3036
Q

Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis from

A

Loop and thiazide diuretics

3037
Q

Best for synthetic function of the liver is

A

Prothrombin time

3038
Q

24 hours to giving

A

Intrathecal morphine

3039
Q

AS patients like

A

Increased preload

3040
Q

Bolus dosing for propofol

A

Lean body mass

3041
Q

Baclofen pump is used to treat

A

Muscle spasm

3042
Q

Rocuronium dosing should be based

A

On ideal body weight

3043
Q

Hypokalemic periodic paralysis is caused by a

A

Calcium channel defect

High glucose leads to it bc will release more insulin and lower the potassium

3044
Q

Infants larynx is at

A

C3-C4

C4-c5 in adults

3045
Q

Lower than expected

A

Fi02 if crack in o2 cylinder

3046
Q

Lateral cricoarytenoid for

A

Adduction

3047
Q

Thyroid cartidledge

A

Atoms Apple

3048
Q

Sympathetic stimulation leads to sharper phase 4

A

Causing quicker depolarization

3049
Q

Phase 0

A

Calcium channel opening

3050
Q

Patients hypoxic ventilator drive is run by

A

Glossopharyngeal nerve

3051
Q

Carotid bodies respond to

A

Afferent body of CN 9 for acute hypoxia

3052
Q

Cerebral vascular dilation will occur when using

A

Sodium nitroprusside

3053
Q

APRV can lead to

A

Hypercarbia if patient not spontaneous

3054
Q

Variable intrathoracic airway obstruction such as mediastinal mass leads to

A

Plateaued expiratory flow

3055
Q

Mediastinal mass

A

Intrathoracic airway obstruction

3056
Q

Inspiration is

A

Going down on flow volume loop

3057
Q

Goiter

A

Extrathoracic airway obstruction

3058
Q

Cyclosporine prolongs

A

Neuromuscular blockade the most out of the immunosuppressants

3059
Q

AKI following cardiac surgery

A

Preop creatinine greater than 1.2
Combined valve and bypass
Emergency surgery
Preop iabp

3060
Q

Lumbar nerve roots exit the

A

Same numbered pedicle

Cervical nerve roots exit above the last vertebra. Seven vertebrae and 8 nerves

3061
Q

Esmolol is metabolized by

A

Red cell esterases

3062
Q

Trans pulmonary pressures highest in

A

Restrictive lung disease

3063
Q

Ester local think

A

Parabenzoic acid

3064
Q

Low sodium in blood with

A

Cerebral salt wasting

3065
Q

Lumbar sympathetic blocks for cprs

A

Lead to failure with ejacylation

3066
Q

TPN common to see

A

Hyperglycemia hypercarbia hypophosphatemia

3067
Q

Airway reflexes under ketamine are

A

Maintained

3068
Q

ASIS is palpated for accurate placement of

A

Lateral femoral cutaneous Block

3069
Q

Klippel Feil syndrome in newborn

A

Cervical spine fusion

3070
Q

Endocardial cushion defects

A

Trisomy 21

3071
Q

Glycine toxicity causes

A

Hyperammonia

3072
Q

Two days of smoking cessation

A

Decreased carboxyhemoglobin

Shifts oxyhemoglobin curve to the right

3073
Q

Tracheobronchial fistula

A

Inhalational induction

3074
Q

Volatile anesthetics

A

Decrease CMR even at 1 Mac

3075
Q

Don’t use mannitol for

A

Cardiogenic pulmonary edema

3076
Q

Cyanide toxicity give

A

Hydroxocobalamin

3077
Q

Large quantities of blood products containing sodium citrate can lead to

A

Metabolic alkalosis

3078
Q

Angiotensinogen 2 increases GFR by causing

A

Efferent arteriole constriction

3079
Q

Renin hydrolyzes angiotensinogen into

A

Angiotensin 1

3080
Q

90% stenotic lesion of PDA leads to

A

AV nodal blockade

3081
Q

Preop vital capacity less than 2.9 L correlates with post op ventilation needs in those with

A

Myasthenia gravis

3082
Q

MG

A

Non activating antibodies bind to post synaptic ACH receptors at the neuromuscular junction

Very sensitive to NMDB but resistant to succ

3083
Q

Pyloric stenosis

A

All electrolytes are down including

Sodium

3084
Q

Before pyloric stenosis case put in

A

Og tube and suction out stomach

3085
Q

Bag inlet valve is a one way valve that allows

A

Air as well as fresh gas to flow into bag reservoir as it Reexpands

3086
Q

Venous drainage provides most the blood to

A

Liver through portal vein 75% of Livers blood supply

3087
Q

Hepatic artery is made up of

A

Lobules. Liver metabolizes nutrients. Bile produced and goes into bile duct and all form common bile duct

3088
Q

Liver failure

A

Porto pulmonary hypertension
Hepatipulmonary syndrome
Coagulation abnormality
Renal etc

3089
Q

Liver sometimes doesn’t metabolize

A

Nitric oxide leading to pulmonary HTN

3090
Q

Liver patients can be

A

Hypo or hypercoaguable

3091
Q

More ammonia due to liver failure can lead to

A

Hepatic encephalopathy

3092
Q

Dissection
Anhepatic
Reperfusion
Neohepatic phases of

A

Liver transplant

3093
Q

Dissection phase

A

Usually elevated INR, low Hgb, low plts, other issues. Lots of hemodynamic instability

3094
Q

Anhepatic phase

A

Give steroids which increase glucose but gluconeogenesis stops

3095
Q

Most hemodynamic instability during

A

Reperfusion phase

3096
Q

Referring syndrome

A

Starting to feed after prolonged starvation

3097
Q

HFJV causes

A

Passive expiration for very short period leading to Autopeep

3098
Q

Need TIVA with HFJV because can’t use

A

Inhalational anesthetic

3099
Q

Wind up phenomonen is due to repetitive stimulation of

A

Peripheral C fibers

Leads to increased action potentials in spinal synapse

3100
Q

Allodynia

A

Painful response to nonpainful stimulus

3101
Q

Sural nerve is a division of the

A

Tibial nerve

3102
Q

Tibial divides into

A

Posterior tibial and the sural nerves

3103
Q

Deep peroneal nerve is blocked at

A

Dorsum of food. Innervates between first and second toes

3104
Q

Saphenous is a branch of the

A

Femoral nerve

3105
Q

PEA

A

Start CPR and give epi as soon as possible

3106
Q

Atropine is not indicated in

A

Cardiac arrest

3107
Q

Hypocarbia from hyperventilation can lead to

A

Hypocalcemia

3108
Q

Centrifugal pump flow varies depending on pump

A

Preload/Afterload

3109
Q

Rheumatoid Arthritis goes with

A

Mitral regurgitation

3110
Q

Primary hyperaldosterone

A

Hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis

3111
Q

Aldosterone is made in the

A

Zona glomerulosa

3112
Q

Etomidate is associated with

A

30-40% nausea and 70% incidence myoclonus

3113
Q

Pain on injection is common with

A

Etomidate

3114
Q

Volume control ventilation

A

Breath at a constant flow rate

3115
Q

Latex causes

A

Type 1 ige mediated reaction

Most significant is through mucosal exposure

3116
Q

Latex allergy has delayed onset of

A

30 minutes

3117
Q

Succ almost always causes

A

Bradycardia in pediatric patients. Pretreat with atropine

3118
Q

Tense ascites leads to

A

Restrictive lung disease

The FEV1 and FVC are both decreased both ratio is normal

FEF25-75% will be normal

3119
Q

Decreased beta receptor responsiveness with

A

Age

3120
Q

Amionamides cause anesthetic rxn from more likely the

A

Preservative than the anesthetic itself

3121
Q

Thiazide induced blockade of sodium entry entry enhances

A

Na Ca antiporter activity and increases overall resorption of calcium

3122
Q

Thiazides work at the

A

Distal convoluted tubule

3123
Q

Carbonic anhydrase acts on

A

Proximal Convoluted tubule

3124
Q

Digoxin toxicity is caused by hypokalemia

A

Hypokalemia bc digoxin competes with potassium

3125
Q

Stellate ganglion block seizure due to

A

Vertebral artery injection

3126
Q

Bupivicaine

A

Potent lipid soluble agent that easily crosses BBB and can cause CNS toxicity

3127
Q

SEM

A

SD/sqrt(n)

3128
Q

Medial to lateral in ac fossa

A

Median nerve, brachial artery, radial nerve

3129
Q

FFP if can’t get the

A

ACT high enough. Give two to three units FFP which has AT3

3130
Q

COPD results in flow volume loop with expiratory phase with

A

Quick peak followed by a much lower plateau phase

3131
Q

Acute MR due to

A

Posteromedial papillary muscle rupture

3132
Q

AsMR progresses increases in HR will decrease

A

Left Atrial distension since they reduce regurgitant volume. Avoid bradycardia

3133
Q

Magnesium most potentiates neuromuscular

A

Blockade

3134
Q

Phenytoin acutely potentiates

A

Neuromuscular blockade

3135
Q

No Coumadin to

A

Pregnant women

3136
Q

Anyone taking steroids preop should continue them in

A

Perioperative period

3137
Q

Spinal anesthesia has faster block onset in infants

A

Due to higher cardiac output and loose myelination

3138
Q

Lambert Eaton

A

Proximal muscle weakness better with movement

Antibodies to presynaptic calcium channel do less AcH release

3139
Q

Aging see increased

A

Residual volume

3140
Q

Doubling distance from radiation source decreases exposure to

A

1/4 the original

3141
Q

Phenelzine and meperidine lead to

A

Serotonin syndrome

3142
Q

Thyroid storm usually takes place

A

A few hours after surgery is done

3143
Q

660L for 2200 psig for

A

Oxygen tank

3144
Q

Nitrous inhibits

A

DNA synthesis

3145
Q

Hepatic arterial vasodilation in response to

A

Reduced portal venous flow

3146
Q

Liver gets

A

20-25% of cardiac output

3147
Q

Nitric oxide has no role in the

A

Hepatic arterial buffer response

3148
Q

Intercostobrachial nerve from

A

T2 nerve root and is not blocked by any of the brachial plexus nerve blocks

Does sensation your upper medial arm

3149
Q

Plasmin leads to

A

Removal of thrombus

3150
Q

Aminocaproic acid is an antifibrinolytic

A

And prevent plasmin binding

Prevents bleeding

3151
Q

Argatroban inhibits

A

Thrombin

3152
Q

In fontan venous circulation bypassed the heart to reach

A

The lungs

3153
Q

Milrinone causes smooth muscle vasodilation by increasing

A

Intracellular cAMP levels

3154
Q

Grade 3 view you see

A

Only epiglottis

Grade 4 you can’t see eiglottis

3155
Q

High protein binding of bupivicaine prevents

A

Placental transfer

3156
Q

Ionized and more protein bound drugs go

A

Less into the placenta

3157
Q

Hoffman elimination is a

A

PH and temp related process

Proceeds more rapidly when pH and temp are higher

3158
Q

Glycopyrolate causes

A

Pupillary dilation

3159
Q

Loss of fetal heart rate variability is an early sign of

A

Fetal hypoxia

3160
Q

Most cancer related pain due to

A

Tumor invasion and metastatic tumor formation

3161
Q

Preeclampsia

A

Elevation in thromboxane A2 levels

Decrease in prostacyclin leading to

Primarily vasoconstricted state

3162
Q

Full term newborn blood volume

A

80-90 ml/kg

3163
Q

Lateral ankle covered with

A

Sciatic nerve block
Sciatic covers posterior thigh sensation and all the leg below the knee
Doesn’t do medial strip supplied by the saphenous

3164
Q

Butorphanol

A

Mixed mu opioid receptor agonism and antagonist plus kappa receptor agonism

3165
Q

Methadone

A

Mu opioid receptor agonist and NMDA antagonist

3166
Q

Morphine improves coronary perfusion through

A

Reduction in preload and a reduction in end diastolic pressure in the ventricles

3167
Q

Preload is ventricular volume at end of

A

Diastole

3168
Q

Morphine reduces

A

Preload and afterload

3169
Q

PDA blood will flow preferentially to the

A

Lungs

3170
Q

Newborn experiences a mild and transient anemia at

A

8-12 weeks of life

3171
Q

Opioids staying in epidural space mainly due to

A

Lipophilicity. More lipophilic will stay at the level of injection

3172
Q

Forceps delivery a risk factor for

A

HIV vertical transmission

3173
Q

Jaw thrust maneuver affects

A

Genioglossus muscle

3174
Q

Amniotic fluid embolus leads to

A

Intense pulmonary vasospasm

3175
Q

Manual replacement of bulging membranes prior to induction is not recommend as may increase risk of

A

Premature rupture

3176
Q

Ischemia reperfusion injury during liver transplant surgery is due to

A

Alteration of the sodium potassium pumps to maintain ion gradients

3177
Q

Termination of a bolus dose of thiopental mainly due to

A

Redistribution of the drug from the brain to the peripheral tissues

3178
Q

CT scan during strike should get within

A

25 minutes and interpretation within 45 minutes

3179
Q

Refractory v fib despite multiple rounds of CPR and rounds of epi and defibrillation next consider

A

Amiodarone

3180
Q

Administration of anticholinergic medication such as

A

Benztropine or diphenhydramine quickly and reliably treats eps symptoms from antidopaminergics

3181
Q

If refractory to vasopressors with septic shock can give

A

IV hydrocortisone 200mg daily

3182
Q

Hydrocortisone inhibits nitric oxide

A

Synthesis

3183
Q

Second order neuron for pain goes with

A

Spinothalamic tract

3184
Q

Lumbar sympathetic block for

A

First stage of labor

3185
Q

Mechanism of action of midazolam

A

Positive allosteric modulator of GABAA receptor

3186
Q

Only hard palate is seen if

A

Mallampati 4

3187
Q

Increased ICP can use

A

Etomidate to induce

3188
Q

Never hyperventilate to PaC02 below

A

25, even with high ICP

3189
Q

CPP =

A

CBF-ICP or CVP whichever is greater

3190
Q

Amiodarone commonly causes

A

Bradycardia

3191
Q

Lactic acidosis most likely seen in a

A

Hypovolemic trauma patient getting contrast

3192
Q

Transfusion is for

A

Inadequate oxygen delivery

3193
Q

Citrate is anticoagulant binding

A

Calcium in blood

3194
Q

Blood stored at

A

1 to 6 degrees Celsius

3195
Q

Definition of viability of RBCs is greater than

A

70% to survive and function after being transfused first >24 hours

3196
Q

Most common blood type is

A

Group O

3197
Q

Alloantibodies are antibodies to

A

Foreign antigens

3198
Q

If you give two units o negative

A

Stay with O negative

3199
Q

Platelets are activated

A

To start a clot

3200
Q

Fibrinolysis

A

Remodels clot and removes thrombus

3201
Q

Only factor not made by liver is

A

8

3202
Q

ACT

A

90-120 seconds is normal

3203
Q

Physiologic changes to anemia

A

Cardiac output increases with decreased SVR increased HR

Oxygen availability increased at cellular level by increased DPG levels

Shunting of blood to core organs

3204
Q

Hgb mine portion of

A

Oxygen equation

3205
Q

Can’t wash cells if

A

Infection, urine, amniotic fluid, malignancy

3206
Q

10K to 50K platelets

A

Spontaneous bleeding likely

3207
Q

VwF

A

Due to platelet dysfunction but platelet number is good

3208
Q

MTP

A

1 plt 1 FFP 1 prbc

3209
Q

Citrate intoxication

A

Hypocalcemia

Treat with calcium

3210
Q

TRALI

A

Most common acute transfusion rxn

3211
Q

Most blood rxn due to

A

Giving wrong blood to wrong patient

3212
Q

Contractility compromised by

A

Myocardial dysfunction or acidosis

3213
Q

Afterload equals

A

Resistance against ventricular blood flow with each contraction

3214
Q

Oxygen hemoglobin has

A

4 oxygens

3215
Q

Tissue acidosis increases

A

Oxygen unloading Bohr effect

3216
Q

Resistance to catecholamines after

A

Too much shock

3217
Q

Hypocapnia with acidosis bc you have to

A

Breath more to drive off acid

3218
Q

Hyper dynamic system

A

Hypotension due to decreased SVR

3219
Q

Hypodynamic state due to

A

Decreased CO with compensation by increasing SVR

3220
Q

3-7 days post LAD infarct can lead to

A

Papillary muscle rupture

3221
Q

Isolated RV infarcts are

A

Rare

Treat with fluid and inotropy rather than pressors

3222
Q

Inhalation equals negative pressure and decreased intrathoracic pressure

A

More fluid in right heart

3223
Q

RA collapse with

A

Tamponade during systole

3224
Q

PE

A
Pleuritic chest pain
Tachycardia 
Hypoxemia
Respiratory alkalosis
RV strain
3225
Q

Best for treating hypotension in setting of severe acidemia

A

Vasopressin

3226
Q

SV02 90% least appropriate is

A

Milrinone

Don’t want to decrease SVR more

3227
Q

Myocardial 02 consumption most work for heart is in order

A

HR then afterload then Preload

3228
Q

Secondary hyperaldosteronism

A

Increased renin

3229
Q

Spirnolactone

A

Potassium goes up

Antigypertebsive by blocking aldosterone

3230
Q

Intraop steroids needed if

A

Prednisone 20mg or more for greater then 3 weeks

If minor surgery just take morning dose

Major give morning dose plus 100mg hydrocortisone

3231
Q

Ephedrine stimulates

A

Catecholamine release

3232
Q

Carcinoid rumors release

A

Vasoactive substances such as serotonin/histamine

3233
Q

Carcinoid tumors are mainly found in

A

GI tract

3234
Q

Serotonin causes

A

Vasoconstriction and possible coronary artery spasm

3235
Q

Serotonin metabolites in

A

Urine for carcinoid

3236
Q

Pancreatic pituitary parathyroid =

A

MEN type 1

3237
Q

Elevated fasting blood glucose >126

A1C > 6.5%

A

Diabetes

3238
Q

Tachypnea
Abdominal pain
Nausea vomiting with

A

DKA

Due to low insulin and catabolism of free fatty acid

3239
Q

DKA and HHS

A

Fluid resuscitation insulin and potassium to treat

3240
Q

Carcinoid disease you should get an

A

ECHO

3241
Q

RASS system blocked when chronically taking

A

Corticosteroids

3242
Q

Fluid status and thus CVP generally stays normal

A

With adrenal suppression

3243
Q

Septic patient induced with etomidate can get

A

Adrenal insufficiency

3244
Q

Increased MAC at

A

High atmospheric pressure

3245
Q

At higher atmosphere

A

Reduced ambient pressure
Reduced partial pressure
Reduced gas density

3246
Q

High altitude PVR

A

Goes up

3247
Q

Lead V5 best for detecting

A

Ischemia

3248
Q

Arterial hypoxemia

A

Hypoventilation
Diffusion impairment
Shunting

3249
Q

Major predictor of cardiac risk

A

Unstable coronary syndromes
AcuteMI within last seven days or recent MI within 1 month with clinical symptoms

Decompebsated heart failure
Significant arrhythmias
Severe valvular disease like <1 cm for severe aortic stenosis

3250
Q

Three major determinants of myocardial oxygen demand are

A

Myocardial LV wall tension(preload/afterload)
Cardiac contractility
HR

3251
Q

Meralgia paresthetica

A

Mono therapy of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve

3252
Q

TNS associated with

A

Spinal

Bilateral or unilateral pain in the buttocks radiating to the legs and resolving within one week or less

3253
Q

Deceased breath sounds on the right in Peds after aspirating foreign body

A

Aspiration

3254
Q

Croup mainly caused by

A

Parainfluenza or RSV

3255
Q

Congenital muscular dystrophy

A

Hypotonia, feeding difficulty, respiratory dysfunction

3256
Q

In abscence of hemorrhage can wait up

A

To an hour for placenta to deliver

3257
Q

Retained placenta is second most common cause of PPH

A

25% of cases

Most common is uterine atony

3258
Q

Mannitol containing priming solutions used in CB bypass is found to

A

Improve urine output

3259
Q

Esophageal perforations need to be treated with

A

Medical or surgical intervention even if vitals are stable

3260
Q

Hypercalcemia antagonizes NMDBS so need a

A

Higher dose

3261
Q

Category data best for

A

Chi square test

Shows goodness of fit if data from chance alone

3262
Q

Most important predictor of desaturation on one lung is

A

Pa02 with two lung

3263
Q

Laryngeal edema causes stridor

A

Post extubation

Laryngeal edema from pressure of endotracheal tube on the mucosa

3264
Q

Superior laryngeal nerve

A

Innervated the cricothyroid muscle

3265
Q

Registry studies

A

Describe rare events

3266
Q

Most likely cause of shivering during labor in a patient with a epidural is

A

Redistribution of core heat to the periphery

3267
Q

Prejunctional is nerve related

A

Post junctional is muscle related

3268
Q

More ACHrs in burn patients so need to give more

A

NMDBs

3269
Q

Glaucoma due to increased

A

IOP

Zofran is safe

3270
Q

Open globe eye injury avoid increases in IOP so don’t use

A

Succinylcholine

Unless difficult airway

3271
Q

Hepatopulmonary triad

A

Liver dysfunction, otherwise unexplained hypoxia, and intrapulnknary vascular dilation

3272
Q

Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficient affects

A

Lung and liver

3273
Q

Ketamine enhances

A

Motor evokes potential amplitude the most

3274
Q

Best indicator of liver transplant graft function is

A

INR

3275
Q

Which anesthetic potentiates neuromuscular blockade the most

A

Desflurane

3276
Q

Vital capacity

A

Unchanged in pregnant women

3277
Q

Quick propagation of electrical signal in cardiac myocyte is due to

A

Gap junctions

3278
Q

Stage one and two of labor pain can be relieved by

A

Caudal epidural

3279
Q

Intercostal nerve blocks

A

One of the highest rates of systemic absorption due to vascularity

Low risk of local anesthetic toxicity if blocking one level

3280
Q

Every patient receiving any anesthesia must have

A

ECG

3281
Q

Acute herpes zoster deratomal distribution is mainly

A

Thoracic

3282
Q

DLCO looks at

A

Diffusion capacity of the lung

Lowered by PE

3283
Q

Best for cerebral vasospasm after SAH

A

Cerebral angiography

3284
Q

Most aneurysms occur in the

A

ICA

Small less than 12 mm is most

3285
Q

If CT is negative use what to diagnose SAH

A

LP

3286
Q

Risk of bleeding after ruptured aneurysm is highest

A

24 hours after

3287
Q

Cooling of aneurysm big complications are

A

Hemorrhage or thrombosis

3288
Q

If cool malposiyioned continue anticoagulation

A

While IR snares the coil

3289
Q

Don’t premeditate before

A

Craniotomy

3290
Q

Patient at risk of aspiration

A

Medications to decrease gastric acidity and volume are appropriate

3291
Q

Must prevent rupture of aneurysm on

A

Induction while maintaining adequate CPP

3292
Q

Done need a line for

A

Unruptured aneurysm that needs to be coiled

3293
Q

MEPs for

A

Subcortical ischemia

3294
Q

CPP =

A

Transmural pressure

If too high aneurysm ruptured

If too low you get ischemia

3295
Q

Pa02 less than 60 increases

A

CBF

3296
Q

After Dural opening one of the best ways to decrease ICP is with

A

Hyperventilation, also helps with surgeon exposure

3297
Q

Trans pulmonary pressures are highest in patients with

A

Restrictive lung disease such as idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

3298
Q

Acute mountain sickness best prophylaxis is

A

Acetazolamide

3299
Q

Preservation of laryngeal reflexes with

A

Ketamine

3300
Q

Cerebrovascular disease is not associated with

A

Postop AKI

3301
Q

TRALI within

A

6 hours

Non cardiogenic pulmonary edema

3302
Q

Heparin acts on

A

AT3

Heparin resistance if
AT3<60%
Plt count>300000
LMWH
Preop heparin 
Age>65

Treat again with heparin AT3 or FFP

3303
Q

Improper canning leading to botulism

A

Equine serum antitoxin

3304
Q

Activation of Nicotinic AcH receptor on motor end plate results in

A

Inward flow of sodium ions

Calcium leads to release of Ach into synapse

Calcium ions do not flow through nicotinic AcH

3305
Q

Prolonged steroid leads to

A

Myopathy and can lead to muscle weakness

3306
Q

Controlled ventilation is not recommended for

A

Congenital emphysema

3307
Q

Etomidate given as a bolus can help identify

A

Seizure foci

3308
Q

Etomidate inhibits

A

11 beta hydroxylase

3309
Q

Albumin down in pregnancy as

A

Plasma volume goes up

3310
Q

Smoking cessation in first week leads to more

A

Sputum production

3311
Q

Smoking causes

A

Vasoconstriction leading to decreased blood flow to certain areas

3312
Q
Sodium<= 155
Map 60-120
CVP 4-13
Pa02/Fi02>300
Glucose<150
Hgb>10
Ef>50%
A

Goal for organ procurement after brain death

3313
Q

Succinylcholine induced hyperkalemia

A

Greater than 0.5 as a result of potassium reflux

3314
Q

Myasthenia gravis

A

Antibodies against postsynaptic ach receptors

3315
Q

MG usually

A

Thyroid issues

Progressive weakness with activity

3316
Q

MG postop mechanical ventilation

A

Duration longer than 6 hrs
Chronic respiratory disease
Pyridostigmine dose greater than or equal to 750 mg
Vital capacity less than or equal to 2.9L

3317
Q

Anestgesia dolorosa

A

Pain in a region that is deenervated with no sensation at all and is a pain referral

3318
Q

Closing capacity is when small airways start to close at

A

Certain lung volume

High CC means small airways close before FRC leading to atalectasis bc the small airways close before end exhalation

3319
Q

Deceased FRC leads fo

A

Atelectasis

3320
Q

Midazolam does not cause

A

Drug fever

3321
Q

Exposure to Hep B blood or bodily fluids

A

Get HBV hyper immune globulin

Also offer vaccination

3322
Q

Only 10% of acute HBV infections progress to

A

Chronic HBV carrier state

3323
Q

Valproic acid not helping for

A

CPRS type 2

3324
Q

Cprs type 2 is precipitated by a

A

Nerve injury

Physical therapy is first lint treatment

3325
Q

Hypocalcemia is expected in patients with

A

ESRD

Kidney can’t reabsorb calcium as well

3326
Q

CP patients increased incidence of GE reflux and

A

Esophagealdysmotility

3327
Q

CP can give

A

Succ

No big hyperkalemic response

3328
Q

Tachycardia is a universal funding in

A

Thyroid storm and malignant hyperthermia

3329
Q

Urine sodium is high with

A

Acute tubular necrosis

3330
Q

Albumin down in pregnancy as

A

Plasma volume goes up

3331
Q

Smoking cessation in first week leads to more

A

Sputum production

3332
Q

Smoking causes

A

Vasoconstriction leading to decreased blood flow to certain areas

3333
Q
Sodium<= 155
Map 60-120
CVP 4-13
Pa02/Fi02>300
Glucose<150
Hgb>10
Ef>50%
A

Goal for organ procurement after brain death

3334
Q

Succinylcholine induced hyperkalemia

A

Greater than 0.5 as a result of potassium reflux

3335
Q

Myasthenia gravis

A

Antibodies against postsynaptic ach receptors

3336
Q

MG usually

A

Thyroid issues

Progressive weakness with activity

3337
Q

MG postop mechanical ventilation

A

Duration longer than 6 hrs
Chronic respiratory disease
Pyridostigmine dose greater than or equal to 750 mg
Vital capacity less than or equal to 2.9L

3338
Q

Anestgesia dolorosa

A

Pain in a region that is deenervated with no sensation at all and is a pain referral

3339
Q

Closing capacity is when small airways start to close at

A

Certain lung volume

High CC means small airways close before FRC leading to atalectasis bc the small airways close before end exhalation

3340
Q

Deceased FRC leads fo

A

Atelectasis

3341
Q

Midazolam does not cause

A

Drug fever

3342
Q

Exposure to Hep B blood or bodily fluids

A

Get HBV hyper immune globulin

Also offer vaccination

3343
Q

Only 10% of acute HBV infections progress to

A

Chronic HBV carrier state

3344
Q

Valproic acid not helping for

A

CPRS type 2

3345
Q

Cprs type 2 is precipitated by a

A

Nerve injury

Physical therapy is first lint treatment

3346
Q

Hypocalcemia is expected in patients with

A

ESRD

Kidney can’t reabsorb calcium as well

3347
Q

CP patients increased incidence of GE reflux and

A

Esophagealdysmotility

3348
Q

CP can give

A

Succ

No big hyperkalemic response

3349
Q

Tachycardia is a universal funding in

A

Thyroid storm and malignant hyperthermia

3350
Q

Urine sodium is high with

A

Acute tubular necrosis

3351
Q

Propofol related infusion syndrome

A

No thrombocytopenia

3352
Q

Be careful giving vasopressin to patients with CAD as may lead to

A

Vasoconstriction of coronary arteries

3353
Q

Myssthenic syndrome patients are sensitive to

A

Succ

3354
Q

Children with strabimus are 4 times more likely to

A

Demonstrate masseuse muscle rigidity

3355
Q

P= 2T/R

A

For alveoli bubble

3356
Q

Anatomic dead space is about

A

2 ml/kg

3357
Q

Dorsal respiratory center mainly for

A

Inhalation

Ventral is for both

3358
Q

Elective case hold for

A

Sodium>150

3359
Q

Oliguria

A

0.5 ml/Kg/hr

3360
Q

Anuria

A

Urine output<50 ml per day

3361
Q

Neural tube defect should be ruled out before placing

A

Caudal catheter

3362
Q

Preeclampsia associated with an increase in

A

Thromboxane A2 levels

3363
Q

Lactated ringers lactate can make metabolic alkalosis worse as it is converted to

A

Bicarbonate

3364
Q

Tachycardia Is only a minor criteria for

A

Fat embolization syndrome

3365
Q

For diagnosis of ARDS don’t need

A

Wedge pressure less then 18

3366
Q

Phrenic nerve stimulators are utilized to improve, not worsen

A

Atelectasis

3367
Q

A child greater then 1yo blood volume

A

70-75 ml/kg

3368
Q

In line stabilization of cervical spine

A

One gets head and neck in neutral position

2 stabilizes the shoulders

3369
Q

Potassium iodide can help with

A

Radiation exposure

3370
Q

Labetalol is

A

7 to 1 beta over alpha

3371
Q

Anesthesia dolorosa

A

Pain in a region that is deenervated and should have no pain at all

3372
Q

Fat embolus does not require

A

Heparin

3373
Q

Half life of methadone

A

13 to 50 hours

3374
Q

Methadone does not need to be adjusted with

A

Kidney disease

3375
Q

Inhaled anesthetics and zofran increase

A

QT interval

3376
Q

Don’t give hydrocortisone to patient with

A

Septic shock responsive to fluids and vasopressors

3377
Q

Heparin anticoagulant effect is

A

90 min

3378
Q

Normal ACT

A

90 to 120

3379
Q

Tissue thromboplastin is added to patients plasma

A

PT

3380
Q

Micro vascular bleeding andPT/PTT exceeds 1.5 the control value

A

FFP should be considered

3381
Q

Cryo lacks factor

A

5

3382
Q

Severe aspirin toxicity

A

Dialysis