True Learn Flashcards

1
Q

Marker for colorectal cancer?

A

CEA

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2
Q

MOA of Acetazolamide?

A

carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that acts at the proximal convoluted tubule and impairs bicarbonate reabsorption

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3
Q

Name a complication of Acetazolamide use

A

renal tubular acidosis type 2

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4
Q

HPV subtypes responsible for condyloma acuminata

A

6 and 11

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5
Q

HPV subtypes responsible for cervical cancer

A

16,18,31,33

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6
Q

At what age does schizophrenia usually present?

A

20’s

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7
Q

How long do + and - schizo sx need to last to be considered schizophrenia?

A

at least 6 months

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8
Q

Pt presents with hemiparesis/paralysis of the face and arm moreso than the LE. Where was the stroke?

A

contralateral MCA

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9
Q

Pt presents with hemineglect and aphasia. Where was the stroke?

A

left MCA

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10
Q

Which structures are usually compromised in ovarian torsion?

A

infundibulopelvic ligament (suspensory ligament of ovary); houses Ovarian A. and V.

is an emergency

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11
Q

Drug of choice to reduce inflammation in ulcerative colitis?

A

sulfasalazine

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12
Q

Fever, night sweats, and weight loss are sx of what?

A

TB

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13
Q

Caseous necrosis in which lymph nodes is indicative of TB?

A

hilar

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14
Q

Which antibodies are specific for limited cutaneous scleroderma?

A

anti-centromere antibodies

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15
Q

Name some H2 receptor antagonists (proton pump inhibitors)

A

ranitidine, cimetidine, nizatidine, famotidine

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16
Q

Name a GI side effect common in diabetics

A

gastroparesis due to autonomic damage

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17
Q

What drug is used to treat gastroparesis in DM and how does it work?

A

metoclopramide; stimulates peristalsis by blocking dopamine receptors; can have extrapyramidal side effects

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18
Q

What is Efaviranez?

A

non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor

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19
Q

Does efaviranez incorporate itself into viral DNA?

A

no

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20
Q

How does phenytoin cause folate deficiency?

A

it inhibits intestinal conjugase, an enzyme necessary to convert folate into an absorbable form in the jejunum

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21
Q

Name a type of agar specifically used to grow Neisseria gonorrhoeae

A

Thayer-Martin chocolate agar

22
Q

What loop diuretic is used in people with sulfa allergy?

A

ethacrynic acid

23
Q

How is muscle contraction initiated in the myocyte?

A

calcium binds troponin, which causes a conformational change in troponin, causing tropomyosin to move and expose the myosin binding sites on actin

24
Q

What type of virus in Rhino virus?

A

picornavirus

25
What are some characteristics of Rhinovirus?
picornavirus, non-enveloped, positive sense RNA virus in which the genome acts directly as mRNA. Has antigenic variability
26
What are sx of granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegners)?
mucosal ulcers, sinusitis with rapidly progressive renal failure (also lung involvement) organs involved shaped as a "C"
27
What marker is elevated in granulomatosis with polyangiitis?
C-ANCA
28
What is elevated in folate deficiency?
homocysteine
29
What is elevated in B12 deficiency?
homocysteine AND methylmalonic acid
30
What is specificity?
the ability to detect the absence of disease
31
how is specificity calculated?
true negative/sum of pts without disease (true negative/truenegatives + false positives
32
Name an agar usee to grow fungi such as Cryptococcus neoformans?
Sabouraud dextrose agar
33
What sx start and end a rapidly progressive cresentic glomuerulonephritis (RPCG)?
starts with hemoptysis and ends with renal failure
34
How can you determine the underlying disease states causing RPCG?
ANCA staining
35
What is the drug of choice to treat myasthenia gravis?
pyridostigmine
36
What are the side effects of pyridostigmine?
muscarininc side effects such as abdominal cramping and diarrhea
37
Persistant inflammatory muscle disease (chronic inflammatory myopathy) that causes weakness of the skeletal muscles WITHOUT a rash
polymyositis
38
How does polymyositis present?
insidious onset of symmetrical proximal muscle weakness WITHOUT a rash
39
What is seen on histology in polymyositis?
endomysial inflammation (CD8+ T cells) with necrotic muscle fibers
40
What is a cardiac risk factor of folate deficiency (elevated homocysteine)?
elevted levels of homocysteine increase the risk for vessel thrombosis; leads to hypercoagulability due to direct arterial injury via homocysteine destruction of elastin, collagen, and proteoglycans
41
X-linked diseases due to a deficiency in iduronate sulfatase?
Hunter syndrome; causes coarse facial features
42
What type of injury will be seen with medial epicondyle injury?
ulnar nerve injury resulting in claw hand
43
Where does the ulnar nerve arise from?
medial cord of the brachial plexus
44
What is the most common adult onset muscular dystrophy?
Myotonic muscular dystrophy
45
What is the genetic inheritance of myotonic muscular dystrophy?
autosomal dominant, exhibits anticipation
46
What is a superantigen released by staph aureus?
TSST-1 (toxic shock syndrome)
47
How does the TSST-1 superantigen of staph aureus cause toxic shock syndrome?
TSST-1 binds MHC-II and T cell receptor outside the antigenetic groove, which activates a large number of T-cells to stimulate release of IFN and IL-2
48
What is the mechanism of action of the immunosuppressant cyclosporine?
binds to cyclophilins inhibiting calcineurin
49
What is donepezil?
acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used in treatment of Alzheimers
50
What is the MOA of donepezil?
blocks the metabolism of acetylcholine by acetylcholinesterase at the synapse