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DRIVER PROMOTION > Truck Company Operations, 2nd edition > Flashcards

Truck Company Operations, 2nd edition Flashcards

1
Q

Platforms are capable of ___lb load ratings and capabilities of flowing ___gpm

A
  • 1000 lb

- 2000 gpm

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2
Q

Engine companies extinguish fires, truck determine ___ they are extinguished

A

how

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3
Q

Flashover is capable of killing exposed human life within __ to __ seconds

A

3 to 5 seconds

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4
Q

Hydrogen cyanide is __ times more deadly than carbon monoxide

A

33 times more likely

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5
Q

Single family dwellings make up ___% to ___% of our fires

A

60% to 70%

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6
Q

6 basic operations at most structure fires

A
  • Initial attack line
  • Backup line
  • Ventilation
  • Forceable entry
  • Search
  • Ladders
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7
Q

Suppression companies are classified as followed (4)

A
  • Engine
  • Truck
  • Quint
  • Specialized
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8
Q

Truck personnel assignment priorities (3)

A
  • 1st = Officer
  • 2nd = Driver
  • 3rd = Remaining personnel
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9
Q

3 considerations when assigning personnel to a truck company

A
  • A desire to be assigned to a truck
  • Fireground experience
  • Fireground maturity
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10
Q

One of the most essential and valuable elements in developing and effective truck company

A
  • Training (attitude)
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11
Q

Most important non-emergency function in the FD

A

Training

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12
Q

Quint (5)

A
  • Aerial device
  • Ground ladders
  • Water
  • Pump
  • Hose
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13
Q

Prime reason why quint apparatus are often ineffective as a multi purpose company

A

Lack of strong and knowledgable officers

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14
Q

Calls for a minimum staffing of 4 persons for a truck company assigned to a paid fire department

A

NFPA 1710

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15
Q

Minimum requirements (requiring a min of 8 - 10 FF) that should be accomplished at a routine single story, single family dwelling (5)

A
  • Initial attack line
  • Backup line
  • Ventilation
  • Forceable entry
  • Search
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16
Q

Minimum and optimal staffing

  • Truck
  • Quint
A
  • Truck = 4/6

- Quint = 6/8

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17
Q

Fireground responsibility and and assignments are commonly determined for four basic viewpoints

A
  • Primary/Secondary responsibilities
  • Inside/outside operations
  • Pre-designated assignments
  • Scene arrival
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18
Q

Fireground logistical operations can be categorized from two basic viewpoints;
– primary responsibilities =
– secondary responsibilities =

A

– primary = forcible entry/exit, ventilation, search, and ladders
– secondary = utilities, salvage, overhaul, master streams

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19
Q

5 basic and most often performed truck company assignments

A
  • Ladders
  • Forceable entry/exit
  • Search
  • Ventilation
  • Utilities
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20
Q

Each person will be equipped with the following equipment (8)

A
  • SCBA
  • PASS
  • Pick head axe w/ scabbard
  • Radio
  • Flashlight
  • Search rope (200’ x 3/8 or 5/16)
  • Wire cutters
  • Door chocks
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21
Q

Common tools used by inside teams (6)

A
  • TIC
  • 6’ pike
  • Search rope
  • Irons and or rabbit tool
  • Officer tool (A tool)
  • Inside ladder (12’ or 14’)
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22
Q

Tool and equipment list for inside ops focus on 3 primary areas

A
  • Search
  • Forceable entry
  • Ability to check extension
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23
Q

Common tool and equipment needed by the outside team (9)

A
  • Ladders
  • Irons
  • Through the lock tools
  • Rotary saw
  • Chain saw
  • Blowers
  • 6’ pike
  • Utility shut off tools
  • TIC
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24
Q

Apparatus needed at a single family dwelling (3)

A
  • 2 engines
  • 1 truck
  • 1 chief
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25
Q

Apparatus needed at structures larger than a single family dwelling (3)

A
  • 3 engines
  • 2 trucks
  • 1 chief
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26
Q

The recommended average companies has long been

A

1 truck per 2 engines

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27
Q

Fireground operations consists of two specific viewpoints (basic procedures)

A
  • Fire attack

- Logistical operation

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28
Q

5 basic rules of fireground safety

A
  • Falling debris always has the right of way
  • Equipment in your apparatus in the street is unusable on the fireground
  • If the fire is in range, so are you
  • What you see may not be what you get
  • Your fireground time is slowly being minimized
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29
Q

10 Commandments of truck company operations

A
  1. Don’t forget your primary mission
  2. It’s the basics before arriving on scene
  3. Determine available fire ground time
  4. Prioritize fire ground considerations (most important)
  5. become a Tooltime expert
  6. Become a mental general contractor
  7. Use your protective equipment defensively not offensively
  8. Continually evaluate your fire ground environment
  9. When in doubt ventilate
  10. Ensure the viability of your skate route inside outside and topside
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30
Q

First priority of truck company personnel

A

Support attack operations

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31
Q

Responsible for the delivery and safe operation of apparatus and personnel

A

Fire officer and driver

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32
Q

The ability to determine available fire ground time is derived from a combination of three factors

A
  • Understanding building construction
  • Reading the environment
  • Evaluating the fire ground clock
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33
Q

Years:

  • Heavy style of construction
  • Moderate style of construction
  • Lightweight style of construction
A
  • Heavy style of construction = up to 1935
  • Moderate style of construction = 1935 -60
  • Lightweight style of construction = 1960 until several years ago
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34
Q

If fire is exposing lightweight truss construction for more than ___ minutes or is exposing conventional construction for more than ___ minutes, reevaluate your intended operation

A
  • 5 minutes

- 20 minutes

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35
Q

Most important commandment of the 10 Commandments of truck operations

A

Prioritize fireground considerations

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36
Q

A priority it is a constant every incident

A

Firefighter safety

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37
Q

NFPA statistics indicate this is one of the top three fire ground problems encountered on the modern fire ground

A

Flashover

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38
Q

Replacement for RECEO (4)

A
  • Firefighter safety
  • Forceable entry/exit/ventilation
  • Fire attack/search
  • Other necessary priorities
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39
Q

Arizona State University test with Phoenix firefighters revealed it would take on average___ to ___ minutes to find and rescue a firefighter transmits Mayday

A

18 to 27 minutes

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40
Q

Priority list for the initial truck company (5)

A
  1. Firefighter safety
  2. Ladders
    3a. Forceable entry/exit
    3b. Ventilation
  3. Other logistical operations
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41
Q

When a firefighter begins to detect the temperature of the environment as warm or very warm, the temperature around is

A

400 to 450F

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42
Q

If the floor is at 400 to 450F then the temps at the ceiling level are likely

A

800F to 1000F

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43
Q

When ventilation is properly executed four major benefits normally result

A
  • Visibility improves
  • Interior temps are reduced
  • Flashover conditions are minimized
  • Dangerous fire gases are released
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44
Q

3 forceable exit considerations

A
  • Inside
  • Topside
  • Outside
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45
Q

The initial requirements for safe, timely, and competent operation of an apparatus is

A

A qualified operator with the right perspective

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46
Q

One of the most important attributes of an apparatus operator

A

Perspective

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47
Q

Third-highest cause of death and injury to firefighters

A

Responding to an incident and driving back to the fire station

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48
Q

Since 1984 apparatus collisions have accounted for about ___% of all firefighter fatalities

A

25%

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49
Q

NFPA standards that outlines minimum standards for driving apparatus (2)

A
  • NFPA 1002

- NFPA 1451

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50
Q

An excellent indicator of the level of pride of a driver

A

The readiness of an apparatus and equipment

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51
Q

Making certain you and your apparatus are ready begins with the careful check at least the following (6)

A
  • PPE
  • Fuel and oil levels, air pressure gauge, emergency lights
  • Airbrakes and slack adjusters
  • Apparatus walk around
  • Power tools
  • Under the apparatus for any leaks
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52
Q

Total stopping distance is a combination of___and___distances

A

Perception and reaction distances

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53
Q

Air brakes have an inherent lag time of___to___second longer compared to hydraulic brakes

A

.5 to 1 second

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54
Q

The largest single factor in total stopping distance

A

Speed

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55
Q

If speed is doubled, perception reaction distance is double and braking distance is about___times as great

A

4 times

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56
Q

Total stopping distances:

  • 15 mph =
  • 30 mph =
  • 60 mph =
A
  • 15 mph = 47’
  • 30 mph = 148’
  • 60 mph = 532’
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57
Q

Seven steps of visual awareness

A
  1. Know your blindspots
  2. Look ahead
  3. Get the total picture
  4. Constantly move your eyes
  5. Maximize your perimeter space
  6. Allow for sufficient following distance
  7. Make sure they know your intended actions
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58
Q

Your objective when looking ahead

A
  • 1 or 2 city blocks

- 1/4 to 1/2 mile on highways

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59
Q

Brake lag is___seconds under ideal conditions

A

1.9 seconds

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60
Q

Eight factors that will affect your efficiency and safety when responding

A
  • Apparatus position
  • Passing vehicles
  • Intersections
  • Oneway streets, curves and hills
  • Road conditions
  • Sirens
  • Backing up
  • Tillering
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61
Q

___% of all civilian accidents occurred in intersections and ___% of vehicular deaths occurred in intersections

A
  • 33%

- 25%

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62
Q

Wet concrete requires approximately ___% to ___% more stopping distance than dry concrete

A

35% to 40%

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63
Q

Being a superior driver on any roadway is a matter of (2)

A

Good judgement and attitude

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64
Q

Doppler effect

A

Sirens frequency high on approach, then normal, then low as it moves away

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65
Q

Tall buildings, hills, winding roads, blind intersections, or heavy brush can reduce siren autibility by as much as

A

two-thirds

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66
Q

NFPA stats show that if nothing showing on arrival, the incident will be false ___% of the time

A

90%

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67
Q

___% of fire service vehicular collisions happen when backing up

A

30%

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68
Q

When backing an apparatus (6)

A
  • Walk around
  • Not solely rely on cameras/alarms
  • Use predetermined hand signals
  • Person not visible, apparatus stop
  • Person at the rear is responsible for the area at the rear
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69
Q

Tillering techniques (9)

A
  • Hands at 9 and 3 o’clock
  • Turn the steering well the opposite direction of the turn
  • When backing hands of the bottom of the wheel, push the steering wheel the direction you want to go
  • Oversteering is defined as allowing a trailer to move well past the incline position
  • Overtillering is defined as Tillerman turning the steering wheel unnecessarily
  • Overhang is the portion of the trailer that extends from the center of the trailer wheels (pivot point) to the rear of the trailer
  • Be familiar with the blind spots
  • Before mounting check the direction of the tiller wheels
  • A good Tillerman steers only as necessary
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70
Q

Firefighters and EMS personnel have been killed or injured on this type of Highway than any other type of roadway

A

Limited access highway

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71
Q

Four stages of temporary traffic control

A
  1. Advance warning stage
  2. Transition stage
  3. Activity stage
  4. Termination stage
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72
Q

The duration of a traffic incident is divided into three time constraints:

  • Minor
  • Intermediate
  • Major
A
  • Minor = 1 to 30 min
  • Intermediate = 31 min to 2 hrs
  • Major = > 2hrs
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73
Q

The initial size up should include (5)

A
  • Address
  • Observed conditions
  • Initial action
  • Instructions for incoming resources
  • Request for additional resources
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74
Q

Appratus placement is usually dictated by three factors

A
  • Incident priorities
  • Initial priorities
  • Functional capabilities
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75
Q

Simple method to use in quickly determining initial priorities is the Rule of 4 approach

A
  • Access
  • Ventilation
  • Search
  • Water
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76
Q

A residential building will have the highest hazard during this time range

A

9 pm to 7 am

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77
Q

2 Specific considerations that must be initially considered when an arial device will be raised

A
  • Maneuverability

- Reaching an objective

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78
Q

Key factors that affect the capability of an aerial device to effectively reach an objective (5)

A
  • Heights of objective
  • Setback
  • Length of aerial device
  • Presence of hazardous
  • Apparatus constraints
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79
Q

A 75 foot aerial device can normally reach the roof of a___story building

A

Four story building

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80
Q

A 100 foot (or over) aerial device can normally reach the roof of a___to___story building

A

Six to Eight story building

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81
Q

General definitions:
- Aerial ladder, tower ladder, ladder tower =

  • Aerial ladder only =
  • A platform attached to a telescoping boom with sideless escape ladder =
  • A platform attached to the end of an aerial ladder =
A
  • Aerial ladder, tower ladder, ladder tower = Aerial device
  • Aerial ladder only = Aerial ladder
  • A platform attached to a telescoping boom with sideless escape ladder = Tower ladder
  • A platform attached to the end of an aerial ladder = Ladder tower
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82
Q

An aerial device is often only considered for use on structures of ___ or more floors

A

3 or more

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83
Q

The area that can be reached by aerial device

A

Target (scrub)

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84
Q

When spotting an apparatus this should take first priority

A

Proper personnel access/egress routs

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85
Q

Aerial apparatus should be no later than the___apparatus to arrive

A

Second

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86
Q

The aerial apparatus should be positioned in this manner to an objective

A

Perpendicular

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87
Q

Spotting for an aerial device operation, the following minimum considerations will affect stability (5)

A
  • Angle of inclination
  • Apparatus limitation
  • Extension
  • Support
  • Ground surface
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88
Q

Concrete curbs can offer a superior footing surface as compared to

A

Asphalt roadway in the summer heat

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89
Q

When spotting to a structure with the target area blocked, stop next to a curb and raise the aerial device in this manner

A

Under the obstruction and alongside the structure

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90
Q

Placing apparatus under electrical wires

A

Not a recommended option

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91
Q

If it is necessary to place an aerial device in the vicinity of electrical wires keep it at least___feet away from the wires. This is about___feet more than most training materials advocate

A
  • 15’

- 5’

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92
Q

A tower ladder can be more effective than a___when placed in front of the building

A

Aerial ladder

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93
Q

Type of ladder more easily used for defensive operations

A

Tower ladder

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94
Q

Two basic modes of operating aerial devices from a turntable

A
  • Individually

- Simultaneously

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95
Q

Leave at least___feet and enough room alongside truck apparatus to allow space to open compartment doors and remove equipment

A

30 ft

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96
Q

Real devices offer maximum strength in this position

A

Vertical position

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97
Q

Elevated master streams on an arial device is capable of delivering___gallons per minute or more from a 1 1/2 inch nozzle

A

600 gpm

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98
Q

Two modes for elevated master streams

A
  • Short duration

- Extended duration

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99
Q

Weight of water

A

8.35 lbs/gal

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100
Q

Common collapse zones

A

Sides and ends of a building and at least the height of the wall, in some cases twice the height

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101
Q

Consider shutting down an elevated master stream at this location

A

At the base of the turntable

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102
Q

Apparatus placement considerations prior to spotting apparatus for aerial operations (4)

A
  • SOP’s
  • Incident considerations
  • Apparatus capabilities and limitations
  • Expertise of the driver-operator
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103
Q

Aerial ladders must be positioned about 4 to 6 inches, 6 to 8 inches, or 8 to 10 inches about an objective for the following reasons (4)

A
  • When placed on an objective it can aid in building collapse
  • Ladder of truss construction placed on objective will reverse the design criteria of the truss
  • Manufacturer requires it
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104
Q

Primary reason why all manufactures recommend that aerials should not be placed on objective

A

Ladder is hydraulically lowered which can create a significant hazard to the aerial ladder and objective

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105
Q

The definition of “close to the objective” is approximately

A

2” to 4”

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106
Q

NFPA 1904 requires that all new aerial ladders and elevating platforms have or exceed a rated capacity of ___ lbs supported at the tip, at full extension, and be able to operate at any angle while carrying this load

A

250 lbs

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107
Q

Generational dates of aerials:

  • First generation =
  • Second generation =
  • Third generation =
A
  • First generation = Prior to 1980
  • Second generation = 1980 to 1992
  • Third generation = 1992 to present
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108
Q

A truck apparatus lasts

A

20 yrs

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109
Q

Platform mounted deck guns can safely deliver flows up to ___ gpm

A

2000 gpm

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110
Q

A pre-plumed waterway and monitor can add___dollars to the overall cost of apparatus and increase the overall length___feet

A
  • $20,000

- 3 ft

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111
Q

And an axle configuration can add about ___ to ___feet

A

2 to 4 feet

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112
Q

Truck apparatus can be purchased from three basic perspectives

A
  • Buy the biggest
  • A truck apparatus to be the centerpiece for the next parade
  • Determine the truck that will be used for the majority of the time
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113
Q

Three ratings are necessary to determine the gross vehicle weight (GVW)

A
  • Axel
  • Springs
  • Tires
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114
Q

Platforms are required to have a minimum capacity of___pounds

A

750 lbs

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115
Q

NFPA requires a minimum of___cubic feet of enclosed compartment space

A

40 ft3

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116
Q

NFPA allows a minimum of___pounds for equipment on aerial devices

A

2,500 lbs

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117
Q

NFPA defines aerial fire apparatus as

A

An apparatus with a permanently mounted power operated elevating device

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118
Q

Distinct categories of aerial apparatus (4)

A
  • Aerial ladders
  • Aerial ladder platforms
  • Telescoping aerial platforms
  • Articulating aerial platforms
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119
Q

For additional categories of aerial devices

A
  • Mid mountain we announce
  • Tillered apparatus
  • Quints
  • Ladder tenders
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120
Q

Aerial devices are primarily used for

A

Firefighter access and egress

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121
Q

Rural dept limited to one apparatus

A

Quint, 75 ft, tandem axle

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122
Q

Rural dept, limited to one truck

A

Ladder tender or Quint, 75 ft, tandem axle

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123
Q

Urban dept, limited to one truck

A

Tillered quint, 100 ft, 250-500 lb tip

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124
Q

Urban dept, multiple trucks

A
  • Mid mount, 100 ft platform and

- Tillered, 100 ft, 250-500 lb tip

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125
Q

One of the most popular aerial devices

A

75 ft aerial ladder quint

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126
Q

Most injuries and deaths in the fire service occur

A

At structure fires

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127
Q

NFPA statistics indicate that injuries and deaths related to structural incidents are result of three primary factors

A
  • Firefighter falling into it
  • It falling onto the firefighter
  • The firefighter involved in a flashover
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128
Q

During suppression operations there are three factors working against you

A
  • Fire weakens of building
  • Gravity wants a building
  • Waterways 8.35 pounds per gallon
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129
Q

To assist in being able to read a building there are eight items of consideration

A
  • Construction styles
  • Roof styles
  • Age
  • Method
  • Style
  • Access and egress
  • Name and utilities
  • Status
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130
Q

Conventional construction (≥2X6) derives its strength from

A

Dimensional width and height

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131
Q

Mill-timber structural members

A

≥ 8 x 8

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132
Q

Single light weight truss can span

A

70’

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133
Q

Lightweight construction depends on this for strength

A

The sum of its members

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134
Q

The amount of time a building can be considered structurally viable depends on

A
  • Type of construction
  • How long the fire has been burning
  • Severity of the fire
  • Proceed to load on structural members/floors
  • Extension
  • How long for extinguishment
  • Available resources
  • Status of protective barriers
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135
Q

On center spacing for trused rafters

A

2’

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136
Q

Sawtooth roofs commonly constructed with rafters of this size

A

≥ 2 x8

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137
Q

An egg crate, geometric, or diamond pattern roof that commonly has a higher arch than the common bowstring roof

A

Lamella

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138
Q

Total roof collapse of a lamella roof is expected if fire removes more than ___% of the roof structure

A

20%

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139
Q

Three ways to form an arched roof

A
  • Lamella
  • Bowstring
  • Tied truss
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140
Q

Trussed roof shapes ()

A
  • Triangular (gable truss)
  • Arch (bowstring, tied truss)
  • Pyramidal (bridge truss)
  • Flat (parallel chord truss)
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141
Q

Timbered truss roofs (except tied truss) are capable of lasting___ min under heavy fire conditions

A

30 minutes

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142
Q

Major hazards associated with timber truss construction are a combination of the following three things

A
  • Alterations that exceed the design
  • Age
  • Operations
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143
Q

Common on center spacing of wooden i joists

A

2’

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144
Q

Glue will melt at between ___ and ___

A

250F and 300F

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145
Q

Flat roof (panelized) consists of four major components

A
  • Beams
  • Purlins
  • 2” x 4” joists
  • 1/2” plywood or OSB
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146
Q

Corrugated steel is usually of ___ to ___ gauge thickness

A

18 to 20 guage

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147
Q

The age of a building is divided into four general classifications

A
  • Pre 1935
  • 1935 - 1960 (best time for building construction)
  • Post 1960
  • 2007
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148
Q

A cheap roof has two characteristics

A
  • Made of lightweight trusses

- 2x4”s used as primary structural members

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149
Q

Less than 50% below grade w/ large windows

A

Basement

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150
Q

Over 50% below grade w/ small windows

A

Cellar

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151
Q

Level below cellar

A

Sub cellar

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152
Q

Underground but can be entered from the exterior

A

Above ground cellar

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153
Q

Between the grade and the floor above

A

Crawl space

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154
Q

Most dangerous time of day for life safety in a single-family dwelling

A

10 pm - 6 am

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155
Q

Victorian type homes were built during the

A

1930s and 40s

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156
Q

Indicators of converted attics (3)

A
  • Curtains
  • flower boxes
  • air conditioners
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157
Q

Common considerations for garden apts (4)

A
  • Common attics
  • Easy access
  • Simplified operation
  • Age
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158
Q

Center hallway apartments common considerations

A
  • Hallways
  • Age
  • Common attic
  • Lobby
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159
Q

3 basic types of walls in a ocular dwelling

A
  • Division wall
  • Partition wall
  • Offset wall
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160
Q

Brownstones, railroad flats, row houses, and tenements all share common fireground priority

A

Search

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161
Q

Where kitchens and bedrooms are located in railroad flats

A 
Kitchens = back
Bedroom = front
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162
Q

Old law (3)

A
  • Interior stairway from basement to interior of building
  • Stairways constructed of wood
  • Floor joists in basement are exposed
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163
Q

New law (3)

A
  • Basements are not accessible to the interior
  • Stairways are not primarily made of wood
  • First floor joists are not exposed to the basement
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164
Q

Fireground challenges of tenements (8)

A
  • Close proximity to other similar buildings
  • Adjoining buildings
  • Common attic
  • A high probability of renovation
  • Probable use of lightweight members
  • Attached basement
  • Light and air shafts
  • Tin ceilings
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165
Q

Taxpayers were built in the

A

1800s to early 1900s

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166
Q

Occupants in Taxpayers are usually non ambulatory between

A

10 pm - 7 am

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167
Q

Two common configurations in a mini-mall

A
  • single story

- Presence of fascias

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168
Q

3 primary differences between commercial buildings and residential

A
  • Size
  • Fire load
  • Lack of standard floor plan
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169
Q

Height classification of High rise

A

75 ft

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170
Q

Good rule of thumb is to never step into an elevator if

A

The elevator can potentially go the the fire floor

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171
Q

Two types of hallways in a high rise

A
  • Center

- Circuit

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172
Q

Metal begins to fail between

A

800 and 1000F

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173
Q

Most roofs are rerooted every

A

15-20 yrs

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174
Q

Balloon frame years

A

1940’s-50’s

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175
Q

Fascia

A

Consider tis method of construction the most dangerous

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176
Q

When determining the roofline of a building with a parapet (6)

A
  • Rafter tie plates
  • Windows
  • Equipment on the roof
  • Attic vents
  • Scuppers
  • Perimeter
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177
Q

Mortar consisted of only sand and lime, lack of rebar, exterior walls were 13” thick

A

Pre-1935

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178
Q

Cement used in mortar, steel rebar used, exterior walls were 8” thick

A

Post 1935

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179
Q

4-6” concrete cap on top of parapet

A

Post 1959

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180
Q

Identification of URM (6)

A
  • Rafter tie plates
  • Deeply recessed windows
  • Concrete bond beam cap on top of the exterior wall
  • King row (every 4-7 rows)
  • Lime mortar
  • Lintals over windows
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181
Q

Operational considerations for collapse zone (4)

A
  • Front and rear walls are the greatest risk
  • Side walls pose a secondary risk
  • Safe areas, corners
  • Away from building at least the height of the walls
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182
Q

5 ways fire and its by-products can vertically spread in newer multi story buildings

A
  • poke thru construction
  • Lapping
  • radiation
  • HVAC
  • Gap between the exterior panels and interior beams
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183
Q

Vinyl siding width

A

4 in.

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184
Q

Most firefighter dates occur as a result of

A

running out of air and smoke inhalation

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185
Q

Electrical and gas utilities that are considered not within the norm (3)

A
  • Duplex (two wires)
  • Quadraplex (4 wires)
  • Large transformers
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186
Q

4 building occupancy categories

A
  • Occupied
  • Unoccupied
  • Vacant
  • Abandoned
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187
Q

Smoke is a mixture of 3 basic elements

A
  • Unburned solid particulate
  • Aerosols
  • Gassas
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188
Q

Hydrogen cyanide is ___ times more toxic than CO

A

30 times

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189
Q

Bodily organs that are vulnerable to cyanide pouncing are (3)

A
  • Brain
  • Heart
  • Central nervous system
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190
Q

These types of materials burn with a great-brown smoke and that smoke would burn at around this temp (2)

A
  • Wood, paper, wool, cotton

- 1,123F

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191
Q

Fire can progress through 4 phases of progression

A
  1. Ignition
  2. Growth
  3. Fully developed
  4. Decay/Smoldering (oxy = 13-15%)
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192
Q

Volumetric expansion of gases can increase the atmospheric pressure up to ___ times the normal atmospheric pressure of 14.7 psi

A

3 times

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193
Q

4 distinct trademarks of backdraft

A
  1. Unvented fire that is contained by a structure
  2. Smoke issuing from openings under pressure or that is visibly being drawn into the structure
  3. Doors and windows are hot to the touch
  4. Heavy dark turbulent smoke
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194
Q

If horizontal ventilation is the only option in a backdraft situation then the opening should be made here

A

At windows/doors located at the corner of a structure

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195
Q

Three heat zones within a room:

  • Moderate
  • High
  • Extreme
A
  • Moderate = 300º - 450ºF
  • High = 500º - 600ºF
  • Extreme = 800º - 1000ºF
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196
Q

Flashover can create the following 4 conditions

A
  • Sudden intense rise in temp from 800ºF to 1000)F to greater than 1800ºF
  • Sudden loss of visibility for interior personnel
  • Immediate drop in oxygen level from 21% to 4%
  • Immediate increase in CO level to 4000 ppm
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197
Q

Signs of flashover (5)

A
  • Environment with inadequate ventilation
  • Sudden increase in temp for no apparent reason
  • Personnel forced to stay low
  • Visible tongs of flame or rollover
  • Smoke changing to thick turbulent smoke
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198
Q

2 primary considerations can minimize or eliminate a flashover

A
  • Ventilation (any type)

- Penciling

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199
Q

Time to escape in a flashover

A

3 to 5 seconds

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200
Q

Flash points:
Conventional materials =
Synthetic materials =

A

Conventional materials = 1123ºF

Synthetic materials = 800º - 900ºF or less

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201
Q

Primary distinctions between backdraft and flashover (3)

A
  • A room can flashover before reaching optimal conditions for backdraft
  • Backdraft is a true explosion; flashover is not
  • Backdraft is an air driven event; flashover is a temperature riven event
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202
Q

The importance of reading smoke can be viewed from 3 key perspectives

A
  • Conditions
  • Personnel safety
  • Assignment
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203
Q

If the temperature is hot enough to be noticed by the FF

A

375º - 450ºF = (800º - 900ºF at the ceiling)

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204
Q

Actual working time of a 30 min air bottle

A

15 - 18 min (also stated as 14 to 18 min)

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205
Q

Ability to analyze fire, smoke, and interior conditions can provide valuable info that is necessary to asses the following conditions (4)

A
  • Operations
  • Location and extension of fire
  • Fireground time available
  • Your involvement
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206
Q

Basic elements of reading smoke from 3 perspectives

A
  • Extension of smoke
  • Interior smoke
  • Exterior smoke
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207
Q

One of the most dangerous fires that fireground personnel will encounter

A

Basement fire

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208
Q

5 attributes of smoke

A
  • Color
  • Density
  • Amount
  • Pressure
  • Dynamics
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209
Q

Color of smoke can be divided into four categories

A
  • White to light with little to no heat or direction
  • Smoke with some color, pressure, and heat
  • Smoke with significant color, pressure, and heat (black fire)
  • Fire
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210
Q

Graphic indicator of the potential flammability of the smoke

A

Density

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211
Q

The amount of smoke is a graphic indicator of

A

The amount of fire

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212
Q

The pressure of smoke trumps ___

A

Color

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213
Q

Reading pressure is 3 fold

A
  • The greater the pressure the more fire
  • Consider the size of the building
  • Rate of curl or expansion of escaping smoke and gases is an indicator of a hot fire
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214
Q

3 dynamics of smoke

A
  • Static
  • Pressurized
  • Negative (greatest hazard of the three)
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215
Q

Attic fires best suppressed by (2)

A
  • Vertical vent

- Piercing nozzle

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216
Q

Three strike rule

  • Strike one =
  • Strike two =
  • Strike three =
A
  • Strike one = Smoke with heat
  • Strike two = Less than acceptable visibility
  • Strike three = Environment is not improving
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217
Q

Author’s fireground priorities to replace or in addition to RECEO (4)

A
  • FF safety
  • Forcible entry/exit
  • Search
  • Extinguishment
218
Q

Forcible entry operations generally consist of the following 3 methods

A
  • Conventional forcible entry
  • Power-tool entry
  • Through-the-lock
219
Q

Timely and safe forcible entry operations are enhanced by the following (4)

A
  • Flexibility
  • Communications
  • Safety equipment
  • Tools
220
Q

3 basic components of a window

A
  • Frame
  • Sash
  • Glazing
221
Q

Tempers glass is ___ times stronger than plate glass

A

5 times

222
Q

Hurricane resistant glass is tested against

A

2”x4”x9’ lumber traveling at 30mph or a small object traveling at 90mph

223
Q

Glass-coating films are commonly ___ mm thick

A

4 mm

224
Q

4 basic types of windows

A
  • Stationary
  • Sliding
  • Pivoting
  • Swinging
225
Q

Before forcing any window evaluate the following (6)

A
  • Safety
  • Purpose
  • Construction
  • Time
  • Position
  • Forces
226
Q

Most effective and safe way to break window glass

A

Stand to the upwind side and strike the lower corner with the pick of an axe

227
Q

Type of glass will break in smaller shard than plate or annealed glass

A

Heat strengthened glass

228
Q

Type of glass will adhere to the wire, plastic laminate, or film and remain in sash when broken

A

Laminated glass

229
Q

250 times stronger than safety glass

A

Polycarbonate (lexan)

230
Q

Most difficult type of window to force open

A

Jalousie window

231
Q

Known as HUD windows

A

2”x4” used to clamp a barricade to the structure

232
Q

Major components of a door assembly (5)

A
  • Door
  • Jamb
  • Strike
  • Stop
  • Lock
233
Q

Types of locks (5)

A
  • Key and knob lock
  • Rim lock
  • Tubular dead bolt
  • Mortise
  • Exit lock (panic hardware)
234
Q

4 basic types of doors

A
  • Swinging
  • Sliding
  • Overhead
  • Rotating
235
Q

4 types of overhead doors

A
  • Rolling
  • Sheet curtain
  • Sectional
  • Tilt-up
236
Q

Before forcing any door evaluate the following (7)

A
  • Safety
  • Preset conditions
  • Purpose
  • Construction
  • Direction of travel
  • Security
  • Involvement
237
Q

Direction of travel when a door is:

  • Flush with the exterior wall
  • Recessed into the wall
A
  • Flush = Outward swinging (hinges visible)

- Recessed = Inward swinging (hinges not visible)

238
Q

Most common type of lockset found on swinging doors

A

Key and knob lock

239
Q

Most common key and knob lockset found in residential and light commercial structures

A

Kwikset locks

240
Q

Rim lock recognized by

A

A cylinder that protrudes through the door about 1/4” to 3/8” (forced using an A-tool or sharp K-tool to pull the lock)

241
Q

4 basic configuration of a tubular deadbolt

A
  • Single-cylindar (thumb turn)
  • Double-cylindar (keyed from both sides)
  • High-security (unique pin config; hardened cylinder)
  • Handle set (deadbolt separate from handle; thumb knob)
242
Q

One of the oldest types of locking mechanisms (installed into a cavity in the edge of the door)

A

Mortise lock

243
Q

Procedure for activating a mortise lock after cylinder has been removed with an A-tool or K-tool

A

Insert key tool into lock cavity with the end over the 5 or 7 o’clock position; If the mechanism is sat the 5 o’clock position then move it to the 7 o’clock position or vise versa

244
Q

Exposed hinges can be cut with a rotary saw in the following order

A
  1. Bottom
  2. Top
  3. Middle
245
Q

A rotary saw that is primarily used for forcible entry should be carried with the blade in the ___ position so that the blade can be positioned and used in tight spaces

A

Outboard position

246
Q

A quick size-up for a door (3)

A
  • Determine door construction
  • Determine if thee are any visible locking mechanisms visible
  • Determine what tools are necessary
247
Q

When cutting overhead doors an alternative cut method to the tepee cut is the

A

Kemper cut

248
Q

Rotary saw cut depths:

  • 14” blade
  • 12” blade
A
  • 14” blade = 5 1/2” deep

- 12” blade = 3 1/2” deep

249
Q

Two categories of sectional doors

A
  • Ordinary

- Wind resistant

250
Q

Before breaching a wall evaluate the following (5)

A
  • Type of wall
  • Stability
  • Time
  • Available resources
  • Safety
251
Q

Masonry walls are most effectively breached with a

A

Battering ram

252
Q

Two most common tools for cutting padlocks

A
  • Bolt cutters

- Rotary saw w/ multi use blade

253
Q

Tank lock

A

Steel strap formed around a lock (use rotary saw or cutting torch)

254
Q

Chain-link gates can easily be open by

A

Separating the hinges that are normally clamped on the poles

255
Q

Mechanically operated gates can be open by

A

Cutting the drive chain

256
Q

Decorative tilt up gates are recognized by a spring at either side and can be open by

A

Removing the bolt/nut that secures the arm to the top-center portion of the gate

257
Q

Limitations in the length and diameter of the electric winding drum restricts this type of elevator to ___ ft lifts

A

150 foot

258
Q

Hydraulic elevators are generally limited to __ story buildings

A

6 story

259
Q

New hydraulic rams using a telescoping config allows an elevator to serve building about ___ to ___ stories tall

A

8 to 10 stories

260
Q

The machine room of a hydraulic elevator contains two primary components

A
  • Controller/relay panel

- Hydraulic power unit

261
Q

4 basic door types used on elevators

A
  • Center-opening
  • Two-speed
  • Single-slide
  • Swing-hall
262
Q

Other type of elevator door

A

Vertical bi-parting

263
Q

Door restrictors

A

Prevent the cab door from opening more than 4” when elevator is not within landing zone (18” above/below floor landing)

264
Q

Guards against overspending when an elevator travels in excess of 20% of its top speed

A

Centrifugal force governor

265
Q

Fire service controls are required on elevators manufactured after

A

1973

266
Q

Phase 3

A

Linked to fire/smoke detector system; will prevent elevator from returning to the lobby if smoke/fire detectors are activated in that area

267
Q

Traction and hydraulic elevators are used as

A

Passanger and freight elevators

268
Q

Size and carrying capacity of freight elevators

A
  • Up to 12’ x 14’

- 3 tons

269
Q

Elevator cab door are designed to move with ___ lbs of force

A

10 lbs

270
Q

When shutting the power down to an elevator, turn it off for ___ seconds and repeat the process a total of ___ times

A
  • 30 seconds

- 3 times

271
Q

___ volts supplies the motors in an elevator and ___ volts supplies the lights, ventilation, communication and alarm

A
  • 480 volts

- 110 volts

272
Q

Method for forcing open center opening elevator doors

A

Using air bags

273
Q

Elevator door lock zone

A

A few inches above the landing zone

274
Q

After cutting the gib blocks at the bottom of the hoistway door and pushing the door into the elevator shaft, a good rule of thumb is

A

Do not push the door more than 18” into the elevator shaft as it may come dislodged

275
Q

Access panels for blind elevator shafts are located

A

Every 3 stories or as far apart as 80’

276
Q

Principal hazard for any fire within a elevator shaft

A

Smoke

277
Q

Most effective, versatile, and portable tool available to the fire service that can provide above-ground access

A

Ground ladders

278
Q

Loss of life and/or inordinate dollar loss fires are a direct result of

A

Inadequate and ineffective ladder-use operations

279
Q

NFPA 1904 6-1.1 recommends that truck companies carry a minimum of ___ feet of ground ladders

A

115’

280
Q

A ___ in. rung spacing gives more climbing power while a ___ in. rung spacing gives more freedom when using a leg-lock

A
  • 12”

- 14”

281
Q

Metal ladders can suddenly fail when exposed to heat over ___ degrees and loss of annealing can begin at ___ degrees

A
  • 300ºF

- 200ºF

282
Q

Most common ladders are constructed from

A
  • Aluminum

- Wood is next most common

283
Q

Least common type of ladder

A

Fiberglass

284
Q

Characteristics that should be considered before purchasing a ladder (5)

A
  • Style
  • Cost (wood is most expensive/ Aluminum least expensive)
  • Weight
  • Maintenance
  • Safety
285
Q

How often NFPA 1932 recommends all ground ladder be visibly inspected

A

Every month and after each use

286
Q

An occasional application of automative paste wax should be used on

A
  • Aluminum ladders

- Fiberglass ladders

287
Q

The varnish on wooden ladders should be inspected at least every ___ months and redone at least ____

A
  • Every 6 months

- Annually

288
Q

One manufacturer recommends ladder maintenance should be performed every ___ months unless the run frequency is more than ___ per month; in which case maintenance frequency should be increased to once ever ___ months

A
  • 6 months
  • 100 per month
  • 3 months
289
Q

Extension ladders require about a ___ lb pull to extend and section

A

75 lb pull

290
Q

Fire service ladders are constructed to carry a __ lb load with a ___ safety factor

A
  • 750 lb load

- 4:1 safety factor

291
Q

Industrial ladders are designed to support ___ lb load wit a safety factor of ____

A
  • 300 lb load

- 4:1 safety factor

292
Q

Ladders can loose at least 25% of its load capacity when subjected to temps greater than

A

300ºF

293
Q

NFPA requires ___ heat sensors per ladder

A

4

294
Q

Most electrocutions involving metal ladders involve

A

Extension ladders

295
Q

Most residential electrical service (110/220 volts) is insulated with material rated for

A

600 volts

296
Q

No other ladder are as effective for inside use

A

12 and 14 ft extension

297
Q

Extension ladders used for an auditorium raise (4)

A
  • 35’
  • 40’
  • 45’
  • 50’
298
Q

Two reasons why timely and effective ladder placement should be an initial priority

A
  • Lays th groundwork for a timely and coordinated attack

- Only time an officer has the entire crew together

299
Q

Wedges dimensions

  • Ladders
  • Doors
A
  • Ladders = 18” x 3 1/2”

- Doors = 3” - 4” x 1 1/2”

300
Q

Large structures should be laddered in this fashion

A

All four corners

301
Q

5 reasons placing a ladder at a corner is optimal

A
  • No horizontal openings
  • Strength
  • Location
  • Access
  • Hips
302
Q

Securing the base of a ladder is optimal than

A

Securing the top

303
Q

When layering fire escapes the top of the ladder should extend a maximum of ___ above the railing

A

1 foot

304
Q

Working height floor to floor:
Residential =
Commercial =

A 
Residential = 9' -10'
Commercial = 10' - 14'
305
Q

The average windowsill height above a floor is

A

3’

306
Q

Manufactures recommend a ground ladder be positioned a ___ degrees to an object

A

75 1/2º

307
Q

Firefighters and training materials prefer a ladders climbing angle of approximately ___ degrees

A

70º

308
Q

To achieve a 70º or 75º climbing angle position the ladder ___ of the working height of the ladder from the base of the objective

A

One-fourth

309
Q

Ladders that have been placed to an objective can be moved in two ways

A
  • Rolling the ladder

- Sliding the ladder

310
Q

Most passenger and freight ships will require a ___ ft ladder to reach the railings

A

50’

311
Q

When laddering a ship this must be done first

A

Secure the top to the ship before securing the bottom to a dolly

312
Q

Ladder bridging techniques (4)

A
  • Straight ladder and drop bag line or equipment line
  • Hand over hand at a horizontal angle (3 persons)
  • 2 ladders as a derrick
  • Extending an extension ladder
313
Q

The most dangerous fireground operation

A

Search

314
Q

Average time a human can go without a minimum of 15% oxygen

A

4 to 6 minutes

315
Q

Replacement priority list to RECEO (6)

A
  1. Firefighter safety
    2a. Forcible entry
    2b. Forcible exit
    2c. Ventilation
  2. Fire attack and/or search
  3. Other necessary priorities
316
Q

Type of occupancy that presents the greatest need for search operations

A

Residential

317
Q

Excellent indicator of the interior contents and layout of commercial occupancy

A

Name on building

318
Q

High occupant loads in restaurants during this time range

A

6 am to 12 pm

319
Q

High rise is defined as building over

A

75’

320
Q

If necessary, relocate high rise occupants from the fire floor and 2 floors above and below a fire to

A

A floor more than 2 floors below a fire

321
Q

Excellent indicator of the complexity of a structure

A

Size of the occupancy

322
Q

4 status designations that can be used to determine the risk and need for a search

A
  • Occupied
  • Unoccupied
  • Vacant
  • Abandoned
323
Q

Four growth stages of a fire

A
  • Early
  • Advanced
  • Fully involved
  • Smoldering
324
Q

Indicator of the time and amount of resources needed to conduct a search in a building

A

Size

325
Q

RIT is categorized as

A

A secondary search and rescue team

326
Q

A tag/search line length and width

A
  • 150’ - 300’

- 5/16” with a snap carabiner at each end

327
Q

Knot config on a search line:

  • one knot/two knots =
  • two knots/one knot =
A
  • one knot/two knots = Going IN

- two knots/one knot = Going OUT

328
Q

A search team should not exceed

A

5

329
Q

A RIT should check in with the search team every ___ min

A

5 min

330
Q

When initiating a search attempt to search the high target areas in a priority manner as follows (4)

A
  • Behind doors
  • Bedrooms
  • Bathrooms
  • Exit pathways
331
Q

Advantages of breaking windows when conducting a search (5)

A
  • More light
  • Improved visibility
  • Temps reduced
  • External personnel know where you are
  • Provide a mental uplift for search personnel
332
Q

Doors that open inward are

A
  • Bedrooms

- Bathrooms

333
Q

Doors that open outward

A
  • Exit doors
  • Closets
  • Basements
334
Q

3 factors usually determine the path of a search

A
  • Info gathered from occupant
  • Attack line
  • Area
335
Q

The focus of the search officer (5)

A
  • Search
  • Environment
  • Time remaining
  • Safety
  • Exit path
336
Q

4 methods that can be utilized by search personnel

A
  • Standard
  • Team
  • Oriented (command and search)
  • Nozzle fan
337
Q

Rescue methods (6)

A
  • Cross arm
  • Mattress/rubbish carriers
  • Chairs
  • Down ladders
  • Over the shoulder
  • FF victim
338
Q

Extinguishment is complete when

A

A post-fire investigation of the total fire area reveals that all of the fire has been extinguished

339
Q

Main objectives of overhaul (5)

A
  • Complete the extinguishment
  • Determine most probable cause
  • Leave insurance adjusters, owners, or occupants a means to determine the loss and determine probable cause
  • Leave the building in as a safe conditions as possible
  • Use the incident as a training opportunity
340
Q

IC should survey the incident prior to overhaul for the following 4 reasons

A
  • Determine the nature and extent of overhaul
  • Develop an overhaul strategy
  • To determine probable fire origin and cause
  • Ensure availability of appropriate resources
341
Q

After the IC has surveyed the overhaul areas he will meet with appropriate officers to develop an overhaul strategy and consider the following (7)

A
  • Safety
  • Fire cause
  • Assignments
  • Ventilation
  • Rehab
  • Utilities
  • Fire watch
342
Q

Two bottle rule

A

If a firefighter is issued two 30 min bottles or has worked for 40 min they are a prime candidate for a minimum of 10 min rest

343
Q

If CO levels are over ___ ppm, serious consideration should be given for the use of SCBA

A

50 ppm

344
Q

Additional protective clothing that should be worn during overhaul (3)

A
  • Hood
  • Eye protection
  • Respirator
345
Q

Dimensions of

  • Mattress carrier
  • Rubbish carrier
A
  • Mattress carrier = 6 1/2’ x 9 1/2’

- Rubbish carrier = 4 1/2’ square

346
Q

Wet-water proportioner

A

Variable-flow proportioner at a ratio of 1:6,000 to 1:10,000 water to wet-water

347
Q

3 most common ladders used for inside operations

A
  • Combination (6’)
  • 12-foot (two 7’ sections)
  • 14-foot (two 9’ sections; narrow tip and base)
348
Q

Typical space between joists

A

16” to 24” (removal of one ceiling joist can increase the size of the working area)

349
Q

4 types of wall typically used in building construction

A
  • Party
  • Partition
  • Division
  • Exterior
350
Q

Travels through the ceiling to project above the roof at least 18” to 24”

A

Division wall

351
Q

Proven effective at soaking into fiberboard

A

Wet-water

352
Q

Deadman

A

Overhanging decking material that is unsupported by a rafter

353
Q

3 areas that must be checked for fire

A
  • Interior of the building
  • Attic
  • Fascia
354
Q

When a fire occurs in a kitchen near a duct check 3 areas

A
  • Inside the duct
  • Ensure the duct goes through the attic
  • The roof where the duct exits
355
Q

Rooms more prone to collapse (2)

A
  • Bathrooms

- Kitchens

356
Q

Keep interior overhaul piles at least ___ ft from walls

A

2 feet

357
Q

Keep overhaul piles at least ___ ft from the structure and other combustibles

A

3 feet

358
Q

This operation should be an integral part of fire suppression

A

Salvage operations

359
Q

Primary focus of overhaul

A

Ensure that all fire has been extinguished

360
Q

The total loss accruing from a structure fire is the direct result of two factors

A
  • Direct loss

- Indirect loss

361
Q

Salvage hooks are available in 2 configurations

A
  • S

- 2

362
Q

Floor runner size

A

6’ x 18’

363
Q

Salvage cover size

A

12’ x 18’

364
Q

Plastic sheeting size

A

10’ x 100’ x 6 mil

365
Q

Size-up is simplified with a basic knowledge of several factors (4)

A
  • Pre-fire planning
  • Contaminants
  • Building factors
  • Origin
366
Q

2 primary construction styles

A
  • Lightweight

- Conventional

367
Q

The contents of a building can be divided into 4 basic categories

A
  • Water-reactive
  • Absorbant
  • Easily damaged
  • Personal
368
Q

Determining the origin of the problem consists of 4 basic considerations

A
  • Water
  • Quantity
  • Direction
  • Loss
369
Q

Salvage operations should begin

A

Where the greatest loss is expected

370
Q

Salvage priorities in commercial/industrial occupancies (3)

A
  1. Business records (accounts receivable most important)
  2. Machinery and finished product
  3. Unfinished stock and raw materials
371
Q

2 main objectives in salvage operations

A
  • Water removal

- protection of the structure/contents

372
Q

Master streams add between ___ and ___ tons of water per minute

A

2 and 4 tons

373
Q

The measure of an effective engine company

A

Ability to extinguish a fire with little to no runoff

374
Q

Water can be contained by various means (5)

A
  • Sawdust
  • Wastebaskets
  • Basements
  • Utilities
  • Holding basins
375
Q

Time it took to construct a chute on the second floor of a two story fire station

A

18 min

376
Q

Type of fold that allows more covers to be carried by one firefighter

A

Accordion fold

377
Q

Cycle rate of alternating current (AC)

A

60 cycles/sec

378
Q

The quantity of electrons moving through a conductor in one second

A

Amperage (primary responsible for injury and death)

379
Q

A negatively charged particle of an atom

A

Electron

380
Q

High voltage

A

Over 600 volts (over 750 volts is identified with sign)

381
Q

The property of electricity responsible for moving electrons through a conductor

A

Voltage

382
Q

A measure of consumed power

A

Watt

383
Q

Voltages:

  • Transmission lines
  • Sub-transmission lines
  • Primary distribution lines
  • Secondary distribution lines
A
  • Transmission lines = 115,000 - 1,000,000 volts
  • Sub-transmission lines = 34,500 volts
  • Primary distribution lines = 4,800 volts
  • Secondary distribution lines = 120/240/480 volts
384
Q

4,800 volts can be more dangerous to a person than

A

34,500 volts

385
Q

Transformer cooling methods (2)

A
  • Air

- Oil

386
Q

Best method to determine the approximate voltage of a conductor

A

By the size of the insulator and the distance between parallel conductors

387
Q

Length of insulators:

  • Transmission
  • Sub-transmission
  • Primary voltage
  • Secondary voltage
A
  • Transmission = 4’ - 14’
  • Sub-transmission = 12” - 22”
  • Primary voltage = 4” - 6”
  • Secondary voltage = 2” - 3”
388
Q

Primary input side of a transformer is either ___ or ___ volts

A

34,500 or 4,800 volts

389
Q

Electric shock can cause devastating results in four specific areas

A
  • Cardiac arrest
  • Ventricular fibrillation
  • Tissue destruction
  • Flesh burns
390
Q

3 principal way to eliminate electricity from an involved structure

A
  • Depend on the utility company
  • Shut off the service
  • Cut the drip loops (most effective method)
391
Q

Minimum tool/PPE required when cutting loops (3)

A
  • Turnout clothing, goggles, shield, or face piece
  • Rubber or leather gauntlet gloves
  • Mechanical axe, approved wire cutters, or ,hot stick, dry ground and boots
392
Q

Do not cut wire that carry over

A

480 volts

393
Q

Leave the wires at least ___ inches long

A

6 inches

394
Q

2 and 3 line services usually come from

A

The lower crossarm of a power pole (configured in a drip loop)

395
Q

3 types of main power disconnects

A
  • Fused pullout
  • Circuit breaker
  • Lever
396
Q

Voltages can range from __ to ___ voltes in commercial and industrial occupancies

A

120 to 34,500 volts

397
Q

A commercial station receives

A

4,800 volts

398
Q

An industrial station receives

A

34,500 volts

399
Q

Pad mounted transformers that do not have a CS or IS preceding the identification number donates a

A

Commercial station

400
Q

Incoming volts to large apartments and hotels can range from ___ to ___ volts

A

120/240 to 34,500 volts

401
Q

Do not enter any room labeled

A

“High Voltage”

402
Q

Rooms labeled “Electrical Meter Room”

A

Are safe to enter

403
Q

Keep unauthorized people at least this far from a downed power line

A

1 pole span (100’)

404
Q

If necessary, apply water in this pattern

A

fog

405
Q

Manhole covers weigh 300 lbs and have been blown ___ ft in the air and up to distances of ___ ft

A
  • 75 ft

- 125 ft

406
Q

New street lights with a photoelectric call on top are fed by ___ volts and older street lights without a photo cell on top can be fed by up to ___ volts

A
  • 240 volts

- 6,800 volts

407
Q

Traffic lights operate on ___ volts

A

240 volts

408
Q

Telephone lines are located ___ on the pole and can vary from ___ to over ___ volts

A
  • Lowest

- 45 to over 100 volts

409
Q

Voltage range for neon signs

A

120 to 20,000 volts

410
Q

Hybrid vehicles have ___ volt DC batteries that supplies a motor operating on ___ volts AC

A
  • 300 volt DC

- 650 volt AC

411
Q

National color code used to identify utilities:

  • Red
  • Orange
  • Green
  • Blue
  • Yellow
A
  • Red = Power
  • Orange = Telecommunications
  • Green = Sewer and drain
  • Blue = Water
  • Yellow = Gas
412
Q

Natural gas consists of ___ % methane and the remaining ___% consists of ethane, carbon dioxide, nitrogen, sulfur, and helium (440 ppm)

A
  • 97%

- 3%

413
Q

Ignition temp and flammable range of natural gas

A
  • Ignition temp = 1,165
  • Flammable range = 5% and 15%
    (lighter than air)
414
Q

Natural gas transmission lines maintain a pressure of ___ psi and are ___ to ___ inches in diameter

A
  • 1000 psi

- 12 to 36” diameter

415
Q

Distribution mains are under medium pressure, ___ psi

A

60 psi

416
Q

Newer polyethylene mains are either ___ or ___ in color

A

Pinkish or bright orange

417
Q

Pressure inside a customer gas line

A

0.33 psi

418
Q

Meter set assemblies MSA are found in three locations

A
  • Outside sets
  • Underneath sets
  • Curb meter box
419
Q

A MSA consists of (4)

A
  • Shutoff valve
  • Regulator
  • Meter
  • Piping
420
Q

A ring washer on the stopcock valve indicates

A

Service line is aplastic pipe inserted inside an older metal pipe

421
Q

A ring on the stopcock valve indicates

A

A branch service

422
Q

A band (normally green) on the riser near the stopcock valve indicates

A

Service line is plastic

423
Q

In some commercial areas multiple structures in a building may be commonly serviced by a single service line called

A

Standard service

424
Q

A stopcock consists of the following elements (5)

A
  • Internal core
  • Casing
  • Washer
  • Backing nut
  • Circlip
425
Q

To turn off the flow of bass with a stopcock turn the tang

A

Crosswise to the pipe (quarter turn)

426
Q

Nordstrum Valve

A

Larger version of a residential stopcock (tang only turns 1/8 of a turn)

427
Q

3 primary objectives at a gas leak emergency

A
  • Safety of civilians and fireground personnel
  • Protection of property
  • Prompt and efficient control of the incident
428
Q

2 person recon teams should be equipped with (7)

A
  • SCBA
  • PPE
  • Intrinsically safe radios
  • PASS
  • Direct reading atmospheric monitors DRAM
  • Explosion proof flashlight
  • Appropriate tools
429
Q

Natural gas emergencies can be divided into 4 categories

A
  • Inside leak (greatest danger)
  • Outside leak
  • Leaks resulting in fires
  • Certified natural gas vehicle incident
430
Q

Master valve that stops the flow to all tenants in the building on the supply line

A

Service entrance cock

431
Q

Gas companies advice to customers who report a gas leak (3)

A
  • Do not light matched and cigarettes
  • Do not tuen lights or anything electrical on or off
  • Stay away from the area or building
432
Q

Only safe way to check areas of suspected gas leaks

A

Use a combustible gas indicator

433
Q

Considerations at a natural gas fire should include the following (6)

A
  • Protect exposures
  • Let the fire burn until the gas has been shut off
  • Control evacuation and maintain site security
  • Notify gas company
  • Small fires may be extinguished with dry chemical or CO2
  • Fog stream used to approach gas valves
434
Q

CNG vehicles have a one-quarter turn fuel line shutoff valves that is labeled and located

A

In close proximity to the drivers seat

435
Q

Water at a height of 100’ will create a pressure of ___ psi

A

43 psi (0.433 psi/ft of elevation)

436
Q

Water pipes within a distribution (4)

A
  • Trunk lines = 36” - 10’
  • Mains = 2” - 72”
  • Service lines = 1/2” - several inches
  • Customer lines = 1/2” - 12”
437
Q

Types of water service configurations (3)

A
  • Domestic water only
  • Domestic and fire protection through a single source
  • Domestic and fire protection from separate services
438
Q

Compound meters are ___ in in diameter and normally directly adjacent to ___

A
  • 4”

- Shutoff valves

439
Q

Types of sprinkler systems (4)

A
  • Automatic wet
  • Automatic dry
  • Non-automatic (necessary for FD to pump into system)
  • Deluge
440
Q

Standpipe systems (3)

A
  • Dry
  • Wet
  • Combination
441
Q

Type of valve has a nut on the bottom of the valve

A

Cone valve (ball valves do not)

442
Q

If a valve has an arrow then

A

The arrow must be turned 180º so that it is pointed in the opposite direction

443
Q

OS and Y valves are turned ____ to stop the flow of water

A

Clockwise

444
Q

Ventilation can be divided into two categories

A
  • Theoretical

- Experiential

445
Q

Fatalities from the inhalation of noxious gas as exceed deaths from

A

All other fireground causes combined

446
Q

FF death rate from cancer doubled from ___% to ___ between 1950 and 1980

A

17% to 34%

447
Q

Brain cancer as a cause of death was ___% higher kong FF than n the general public

A

129%

448
Q

A 30 year FF faces a 1 in ___ chance of saying from cancer compared to the 1 in ___ among the general public

A
  • 1 in 3

- 1 in 5

449
Q

Ventilation should be considered on an equal priority as

A

Search and fire attack

450
Q

BTUs produced:

  • Wood
  • Polyurethane
  • Polystyrene
A
  • Wood = 7,000 BTUs
  • Polyurethane = 12,000 BTUs
  • Polystyrene = 18,000 BTUs
451
Q

7 basic tools for how ventilation can assist firefighting operations

A
  • People tool
  • Exposure protection tool
  • Consignment tool
  • Visibility tool
  • Backdraft and flashover tool
  • Overhaul and salvage tool
  • Safety tool
452
Q

5 different TYPES of ventilation

A
  • Natural (as fire burns through the structure)
  • Hydraulic
  • Horizontal
  • Pressurized
  • Vertical
453
Q

PPV was introduced into the fire service in

A

1980s

454
Q

3 different FORMS of ventilation

A
  • Natural
  • Negative
  • Positive
455
Q

PPV is at least ____ times as efficient at removing contaminants from a building

A

2 times

456
Q

Regardless of the size of a blower, most are designed to be tilted ___ to ___ degrees

A

20 to 30 degrees

457
Q

By placing blowers in line with one another the efficiency of the front blower is increased by ___%

A

10%

458
Q

When placing tow unequal sized blowers in a line

A

The smaller blower goes behind the larger one

459
Q

When setting up PPV always

A

Make the exhaust opening first

460
Q

PPV is most effective when the exhaust opening is ___ to ___ the size of the entrance opening

A

3/4 to 1 3/4

461
Q

An 18” blower with a 2 to 3 hp engine is most effective with an exhaust opening of this size

A

3/4 to about the same size as the entrance

462
Q

Required exhaust opening for an 18” to 24” blower with a 5 hp engine or greater

A

1 to 1 1/2 times the entrance opening

463
Q

Required exhaust opening for 18” to 24” blowers in a series/stacked with a 5 hp engine or greater

A

1 3/4 times the size f the entrance

464
Q

Temps, humidity, snow, rain don’t have any appreciable affect on

A

PPV

465
Q

PPV has proven effective against winds of up to

A

25 mph

466
Q

Removing a screen will improve exhaust through a window

A

50%

467
Q

When ventilating a multi story building always start

A

At the lowest level and ventilate toward the top

468
Q

Positive pressure can be effective for distances over ___ ft if the airflow between the entrance and exhaust openings is controlled

A

1000 ft

469
Q

Stair shafts can be categorized in 2 ways

A
  • Those reached from the interior

- Those reached from the exterior

470
Q

Natural airflow in stair shafts that open to the interior are virtually static up to about the ___ floor

A

25th floor

471
Q

Natural airflow in stair shafts that open to the exterior is usually upward with drafts of __ to ___ mph

A

3 to 6 mph

472
Q

Cross ventilation is effective up to approximately ___ floors in high rises

A

25 floors

473
Q

CO can easily rise to __ to ___ ppm during overhaul

A

500 to 1200 ppm

474
Q

PPV can reduce CO levels of 1000 ppm to between ___ and ___ ppm

A

130 and 220 ppm

475
Q

A single gasoline powered blower will introduce approximately ___ to ___ ppm of CO into the structure

A

140 to 160 ppm

476
Q

Can be used as an initial suppression technique prior to introducing hoelines

A

Positive pressure attack

477
Q

When using the positive pressure attack backdraft conditions must not be present and blowers capable of moving at least ___ to ___ cfm provide the most effective results

A

7,000 to 10,000 cfm

478
Q

When using a blower on a dumpster or car fire place it this far away

A

8 to 10 ft

479
Q

Using PPV on a 737 with the fore and aft doorways open the interior of the aircraft, cleared zero-visibility conditions in ___ seconds

A

45 seconds

480
Q

Positive pressure can reduce the core temp of personnel by as much as ___ degrees during suppression operations

A

5º

481
Q

During fireground rehab, PPV can lower the ambient temps around firefighters by ___ degrees and by over ___ degrees when a light water mist is issued into the pressurized air

A
  • 10º

- 15º

482
Q

If ventilations operations are necessary begins by identifying 3 necessary areas

A
  • Direction smoke and heat must travel to exit
  • Method to move the smoke and heat
  • Type of vent openings used
483
Q

In horizontal ventilation open the windows in this order

A

Leeward first then windward

484
Q

2 basic methods used to ventilate structures

A
  • Natural

- Pressurized

485
Q

Natural ventilation is limited by the following factors (3)

A
  • Prevailing winds
  • Humidity
  • Temperaturs
486
Q

When using a fog stream to ventilate a room maximum effectiveness is achieved by

A

Moving the nozzle in a clockwise motion 4 to 10 back from the window; results in over 2,000 cfm

487
Q

4 basic types of openings are used for ventilation

A
  • Natural (fire burns through the structure)
  • Natural construction (windows, doors, etc)
  • Heat (openings in close proximity to a fire; offensive)
  • Directional (openings opened ahead of a fire; defensive)
488
Q

Areas of construction that offer good locations for ladders (5)

A
  • Corners
  • Hips
  • Ridges
  • Valleys
  • Pilasters
489
Q

Minimum tools required when performing vertical ventilation (7)

A
  • PPE
  • Breathing apparatus
  • Pickhead axe
  • Pike pole
  • Rubbish hook
  • Power saw
  • Communications
490
Q

Prior to committing personnel on an unknown roof, determine the following (2)

A
  • Structurally sound
  • Adequate time to perform intended operations
    (accomplish by taking a plug)
491
Q

Kerf cut/indicator hole/inspection hole

A

A small hole in roof deck to see if fire or smoke are below

492
Q

3 things to determine whether or not ventilation operations are feasible

A
  • Knowing type of roof
  • Location of fire
  • Roof personnel
493
Q

A rectangular structure located on the ridge of a roof, usually found on commercial buildings, used to provide natural ventilation

A

Monitor

494
Q

Rotating attic vents are ___ % more efficient when the turbine is operational

A

30% more efficient

495
Q

The uninterrupted or unsupported span of a roof or its structural member

A

Clearspan

496
Q

Potential dangers associated with power saws (3)

A
  • Kickback
  • Broken chains
  • Flying debris
497
Q

When using a power saw position yourself ___ degrees away so that you face the work rather than straddle it

A

90 degrees

498
Q

Common recommendation for roof ventilation sizes for residential and commercial

A 
Residential = 4' x 4'
Commercial = 8' x 8'
499
Q

One of the most useful and dependable ventilation tools available

A

Axe (pick head more versatile than flathead)

500
Q

Due to the grain in wooden handles the strongest axis when prying in

A

In line with the grain of the wood

501
Q

Cutting edge at ___ degrees provides more cutting power with less effort

A

90º

502
Q

Standard configuration for a pickhead axe

A
  • 6 lb head
  • 32” or 33” handle (36” can be more effective)
  • Wooden handles shouldn’t be varnished
503
Q

Rotary saw exhibits two unique tendencies

A
  • Blade continues to spin after throttle is released

- Has a gyroscopic effect

504
Q

When a rotary saw is primarily used for ventilation the blade should be in this position

A

Inboard position

505
Q

Type of rotary saw blade most effective for ventilation operations

A

Carbide-tipped wood cutting blade

506
Q

The minimum engine displacement for a chain saw should be

A

4 cubic inches (65 cc)

507
Q

The guide bar on a chain saw should be about ___ to ___ inches

A

18” to 20”

508
Q

A chain pitch of ___ inches has proven to be durable

A

.404 inches

509
Q

Spraying commercially available ___ on a clean engine has proven to reduce maintenance and cleanup operations

A

Vegetable shortening

510
Q

Use ___ viscosity chain oil in clod climates and ___ viscosity oil in warmer climates

A
  • Cold = light viscosity

- Warm = heavier viscosity

511
Q

Replace chain if any of the following are found (4)

A
  • 3 missing teeth in a row
  • 6 total missing teeth
  • Cracked or broken tie straps
  • Dull teeth
512
Q

Replace a bullet chain if any of the following are present (2)

A
  • 50% of the carbide is missing on a cutter

- 30-40% of the cutters are damaged or broken

513
Q

Blowers are powered by (4)

A
  • Water
  • Hydraulics
  • Electricity
  • Gasoline
514
Q

Training + experience + pre-fire planning =

A

SOPs

515
Q

Prior to performing ventilation on any roof you must evaluate a number of variables (4)

A
  • Age
  • Type of roof
  • Location of fire
  • Likely benefit of operation
516
Q

Expect one layer of asphalt shingles for every ___ to ___ years of age

A

10 to 15 years of age

517
Q

Axe bounce

A

Used to determine the direction of the wood sheathing on a roof

518
Q

Coffin cut

A

Cutting four sides (rectangular) in wood decking and a knockout at one of the corners by the head

519
Q

Most effectively used on roofs with sheathing or space sheathing

A

Dicing

520
Q

45 degree inspection cut can be used to determine

A

Direction and spacing of rafters

521
Q

The removal of sheathing is enhanced by using this motion

A

J-hook motion

522
Q

Pullback method should only be used on decking of this type

A

Wood sheathing and space sheathing

523
Q

Use a chainsaw at ___ degrees to feel (roll) for a rafter

A

90º

524
Q

When a chainsaw is used for operations other then rolling a rafter it should be used at this angle

A

45º

525
Q

A trench cut should be this wide

A

3’

526
Q

Cutting wet =

Cutting dry =

A

Cutting wet = cutting with visible smoke/fire

Cutting dry = cutting with no visible smoke/fire

527
Q

Conventional construction gains its strength from

A

The size of its members

528
Q

Using the pullback method for ventilation, the head cut should be this far from the roof ridge

A

1 foot

529
Q

Ventilation method that requires less effort than the pullback, dicing, or coffin cut methods

A

Louvering

530
Q

Ventilation method based on the 7- 9- and 8- cut sequence

A

Coffin cut method

531
Q

Strong areas of a panelized roof (3)

A
  • Beams
  • Purlins
  • Perimeter
532
Q

4 major exterior styles of buildings that use panelized roofs

A
  • Exterior pilaster
  • Interior pilaster
  • Frame stucco and masonry
  • Concrete tilt-up wall
533
Q

Area of a panelized roof that can be used for laddering

A

8’ feet from any corner (spacing of purlins is consistent at 8’)

534
Q

Joists run parallel to

A

Beams

535
Q

Kerf cuts should be about ___ ft apart

A

10 feet apart

536
Q

Recommended that a minimum of ___ personnel be used for ventilation

A

4

537
Q

Minimum number of personnel needed to perform the Fold-back method

A

4 (5)

538
Q

Steel looses its strength at ___ to ___ degrees

A

800º to 1000º

539
Q

Prefabricated from calcite concrete and wood chips and then molded into planks that are 2” thick, 2’ wide and 8’ long

A

Gypsum roof decking

540
Q

When cutting a roof deck and a white or gray powder residue emits

A

Gypsum roof deck is present

541
Q

Panels that are 2 layers of fiberboard separated by foam and insulated over roof structural members to form a roof decking and then covered with composition

A

TECTUM

DRIVER PROMOTION (2 decks)

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