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NCE Prep > Trivia > Flashcards

Trivia Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three positions in Karpman’s drama triangle?

A

Victim, persecutor, and rescuer

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2
Q

What, according to Carl Rogers, are the three conditions for effective helping?

A

The therapist must show empathy; be genuine/congruent; and display unconditional positive regard (UPR)

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3
Q

The notion that behavior is motivated primarily by future opportunities rather than the past

A

Fictional finalism/ guiding fiction (from Alfred Adler’s Individual Psychology)

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4
Q

Research illuminates that the therapeutic relationship contributes to _____% of the client outcome

A

30%

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5
Q

What are the five stages of Atkinson, Morten, and Sue’s Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model (R/CD)?

A
  1. conformity
  2. dissonance
  3. resistance and immersion
  4. introspection
  5. synergetic articulation and awareness
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6
Q

What is the order of Freud’s psychosexual stages?

A

Oral (birth to 1 year), anal (1-3 years), phallic (Oedipal/Electra complex, 3-6 years), latency (7-12 or puberty), and genital (puberty/adolescence and adulthood)

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7
Q

What are Kohlberg’s three levels of moral development?

A

Preconventional (behavior governed by consequences); conventional (a desire to conform to socially acceptable rules); and postconventional (self-accepted moral principles guide behavior). Each level has two stages.

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8
Q

Object permanence happens during which of Piaget’s stages of cognitive development?

A

Sensorimotor (birth to 2 years)

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9
Q

Logical thinking emerges during which of Piaget’s stages of cognitive development?

A

Concrete operational (7-12 years)

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10
Q

Conservation is associated with which of Piaget’s stages of cognitive development?

A

Concrete operational (7-12 years)

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11
Q

What year was the American Personnel and Guidance Association established?

A

1952

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12
Q

In what year did APGA become AACD?

A

1983

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13
Q

In what year did the American Association for Counseling and Development (AACD) change its name to American Counseling Association (ACA)?

A

1992

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14
Q

What are the major eras of Daniel Levinson’s theory of adult development?

A

childhood and adolescence (pre-adulthood), early adulthood, middle adulthood, and later adulthood. A major life transition happens between each of these stages.

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15
Q

William Glasser created which therapy and theory?

A

Reality therapy with choice theory

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16
Q

According to Glasser, psychological needs include what four needs?

A

belonging, power, freedom, and fun

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17
Q

What is Robert Wubbolding’s WDEP and what theory does it expand on?

A

Wubbolding expanded the theory of reality therapy with his introduction of WDEP.
W = wants (belonging, freedom, fun, power, and independence)
D = direction and doing (is the client doing something to take them in the best direction?)
E = evaluation/self-evaluation (how is the behavior working for the client?)
P = plan. Plan should be immediate, attainable, and measurable

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18
Q

What are the three elements of Lynn P. Rehm’s Self-Control Therapy?

A

Self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement. This is a self-control behavioristic paradigm of therapy.

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19
Q

Brief therapy and narrative therapy are ___________ approaches

A

constructivist

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20
Q

Michael White and David Epston are associated with which form of therapy?

A

narrative therapy (NT)

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21
Q

Externalizing the problem is a technique commonly used in which type of therapy?

A

Michael White and David Epston’s narrative therapy (NT)

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22
Q

What is a formula first session task (FFST)?

A

A homework assignment prescribed after the first session, often used in solution-focused brief therapy (SFBT)

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23
Q

Family therapists believe in _________ causality

A

circular (as opposed to linear)

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24
Q

In family therapy, a first-order change occurs when…

A

a client makes a superficial change to deal with a problem, but the change does not alter the underlying structure of the family

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25
Q

Which type of feedback loops induce change in the family system as opposed to maintaining homeostasis?

A

positive feedback loops

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26
Q

What are the four patterns of communication described by experimental conjoint family therapist Virginia Satir?

A

The placator; the blamer; the reasonable analyzer; and the irrelevant distracter

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27
Q

Which approach to family therapy did Nathan Ackerman utilize?

A

psychoanalytic/psychodynamic

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28
Q

Who’s name is most associated with intergenerational therapy/ extended family systems therapy?

A

Murray Bowen

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29
Q

In family therapy, what is differentiation?

A

the ability to control reason over emotion. The opposite of fusion. People often secure their level of differentiation via a multigenerational transmission process

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30
Q

Who is the leading figure behind structural family therapy?

A

Slavador Minuchin

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31
Q

The technique of joining by utilizing mimesis is associated with which type of therapy?

A

Minuchin’s structural family therapy

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32
Q

Jay Haley and Cloe Madanes are powerful names in _________________________.

A

Strategic family counseling (aka the MRI model and the communications model).

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33
Q

The therapist gives directives or prescriptions which are often paradoxical and reframes and relabels problems in which type of family therapy?

A

Strategic family counseling, associated with Jay Haley and Cloe Madanes

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34
Q

Which model of family therapy uses a treatment team with a one-way mirror?

A

The Milan Model

35
Q

Who is considered the father of mental health consultation?

A

Gerald Caplan

36
Q

Besides the doctor-patient model of consultation, Edgar Schein is known for which other two models?

A

the purchase of expertise model and the process consultation model

37
Q

Milton H. Erickson, Steven de Shazer, Bill O’Hanlon, Paul Watzlawick, Don Jackson, and Michelle Weiner Davis are all…

A

brief strategic therapists that champion paradox or prescribing the symptom in individual or family therapy

38
Q

In excess this brain chemical is thought to fuel schizophrenia, while very low levels are implicated in Parkinson’s disease

A

Dopamine

39
Q

It has been said that the _____ hemisphere of the brain is logical, verbal, and analytic.

A

left

40
Q

The emotional, creative, and artistic hemisphere is said to be on the _________ side of the brain.

A

right

41
Q

In Linda S. Gottfredson’s career development theory, what does she call the process of narrowing the acceptable alternatives?

A

circumscription

42
Q

The role of self-efficacy beliefs, outcome expectations, goals, and cognitive processes is emphasized in which career theory?

A

Social Cognitive Career Theory (SCCT) by Robert Lent, Steven Brown, and Gail Hackett. Relies on Albert Banduras’ general social cognitive theory as a unifying framework.

43
Q

Mark Savickas uses techniques popularized by _________ therapy to create a postmodern constructivist approach to career theory.

A

narrative therapy

44
Q

The DOT has been replaced by _______

A

O*NET

DOT = Dictionary of Occupational Titles

45
Q

Who wrote “What Color is Your Parachute” and what does it help with?

A

Richard Bolles. The book is a job hunting tool.

46
Q

What does “the hidden job market” refer to?

A

80% of all jobs are not advertised, and thus job seekers need to network.

47
Q

Woman make $_____ for each dollar earned by men.

A

$0.80

African American women earn $0.68 and Latina women $0.60 for every dollar earned by white men

48
Q

A person who is unemployed due to downsizing, a company relocation, or the fact that the company closed the business is called a ______________.

A

dislocated worker

49
Q

The average worker has how many jobs by age 36?

A

nine

50
Q

What is the difference between dual earner and dual career families?

A

Dual earner: no chance for advancement

Dual career: managerial or professional position with possibility for advancement

51
Q

When a supervisor erroneously rates the majority of workers as average, it is called the _________________ bias.

A

central tendency bias

52
Q

T-scores have a mean of ____ and a standard deviation of ____.

A 
mean = 50
SD = 10
53
Q

_____% of scores will fall between +/- 1 SD from the mean under a normal curve

A

68%

54
Q

_____% of scores will fall between +/- 2 SD from the mean under a normal curve

A

95%

55
Q

_____% of scores will fall between +/- 3 SD from the mean under a normal curve

A

99.7%

56
Q

Rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true is called a _______ error.

A

Type I error/ alpha error

57
Q

Accepting the null hypothesis when it should have been rejected is called a ________ error.

A

Type II error/ beta error

58
Q

The significance level (e.g. 0.05) gives you the probability of a _______ error.

A

Type I / alpha

59
Q

When subjects in a study have cues regarding what the researcher desires or does not desire that influence their behavior, we say that ________________ is/are evident

A

demand characteristics

60
Q

When research subjects know they are being observed, we refer to the process as a(n) _____________ measure

A

obtrusive or reactive (as opposed to an unobtrusive measure)

61
Q

A _________ is a popular parametric test for comparing two means in a normally distributed population.

A

t test

62
Q

The ___________, originally developed by Ronald Fisher, is a parametric measure for normally distributed populations that is used when there are two or more means to compare

A

ANOVA, or analysis of variance

63
Q

An ANOVA provides _______ that help one determine if significant differences are present.

A

F values

64
Q

When investigating more than one DV, one can use a(n) ____________.

A

MANOVA, or multivariate analysis of variance

65
Q

Use _________________ when you are investigating two or more IVs/experimental variables.

A

Factorial analysis of variance, aka factorial ANOVA.

If you have two IVs it would be a two-way ANOVA (splitting the sample into 4 or more groups), three IVs requires a three-way ANOVA, etc.

66
Q

A one-way ANOVA has ___ IV(s) that splits the sample into ___ or more groups.

A

one IV, two or more groups

67
Q

The most common non-parametric test that can be used if the population is not necessarily normal is the __________.

A

chi-quare

Think “chi” for “categorical data”

68
Q

A test that is similar to the one-way ANOVA but which is used in its stead with nonparametric data is the _____________.

A

Kruskal-Wallis

69
Q

Another name for an ex post facto research design is _____________.

A

causal-comparative design

70
Q

Summative or outcome evaluation occurs at the end of a program or treatment, while __________ evaluation takes place during treatment or while a program is going on.

A

formative evaluation

71
Q

The interquartile range (IQR) refers to what percentile range?

A

25th-75th percentile

72
Q

How is the IQR calculated?

A

Q3-Q1 = IQR

73
Q

Another name for the within groups design or within-subject design in which each subject is their own control is _____________.

A

the repeated measures design.

74
Q

A distribution curve that is flatter and more spread out than the normal curve is a ___________ distribution.

A

platykurtic

75
Q

A distribution that is taller, skinnier, and has a greater peak than the normal curve is a ___________ distribution.

A

leptokurtic

76
Q

The DV is plotted on the ___ axis

A

Y

77
Q

____________ graphically depict the Pearson Product-Moment Correlation Coefficient (r)

A

Scattergrams, aka scatter plots/diagrams

78
Q

The ___________ tests two or more groups while controlling for extraneous variables

A

ANCOVA

79
Q

Another name for extraneous variables is __________

A

covariates

80
Q

What test is used in place of the t test when the data are nonparametric and you wish to test whether two correlated means differ significantly?

A

Wilcoxon signed-rank test

Mnemonic: “co” for “correlated”

81
Q

The Mann-Whitney U test is used to determine _______________ when data are ___________.

A

whether two uncorrelated means differ significantly when data are nonparametric
Mnemonic: “u” for “uncorrelated

82
Q

The __________ is used in place of the Pearson r when parametric assumptions cannot be utilized.

A

Spearman’s rho or Kendall’s tau

83
Q

The __________ is a nonparametric test that examines whether obtained frequencies differ significantly from expected frequencies.

A

chi-square

84
Q

Experimental designs are often diagrammed. The most popular appreviations are O, X, E, C, R, and NR. What do these stand for?

A 
O = observation, measurement, or sore. O is the DV
X = treatment
E = experimental group
C = control group
R = random sampling
NR = no random sampling of groups

NCE Prep (5 decks)

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