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1
Q

Is a schatzki ring an A ring or B ring?

A

B ring

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2
Q

What is located in the hypopharynx, a zenker or KJ diverticulum?

A

zenker

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3
Q

What is located in the cervical esophagus, a zenker or KJ diverticulum?

A

KJ

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4
Q

What muscle represents the true upper esophageal sphincter? What cervical vertebra level?

A

cricopharyngeus

C5/C6

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5
Q

What type of mucosal pattern will Barretss have on esophagram?

A

Reticular

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6
Q

Feline esophagus has an association with what entity?

A

‘Reflux Esophagitis’

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7
Q

What is T3 esophageal cancer? T4?

A

T3 = invasion into adventitia

T4 = invasion into adjacent structures

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8
Q

What is the most common reason for recurrent reflux after a Nissen?

A

slipped nissen

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9
Q

What is the most common reason for a slipped Nissen?

A

short esophagus

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10
Q

What two classes of patients are at an increased risk of esophageal candidiasis?

A

immunosuppressed

motility disorders

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11
Q

What type of esophageal ulcer is small with a peripheral halo of edema?

A

herpes

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12
Q

What two types of esophageal ulcers are large and flat?

A

CMV and HIV

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13
Q

Varices within the upper esophagus should make you think what?

A

SVC obstruction

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14
Q

What type of diverticulum is a zenker?

A

pulsion

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15
Q

Where in the esophagus do Zenker diverticulum occur?

A

posterior

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16
Q

What is the name of the site of weakness in a zenker diverticulum?

A

killian dehiscence

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17
Q

Where do KJ diverticula occur?

A

anterior and lateral

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18
Q

What type of diverticula occur in the mid-esophagus?

A

traction

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19
Q

What type of diverticula occur just above the diaphragm?

A

epiphrenic

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20
Q

What is the cause of esophageal pseudo-diverticulosis?

A

chronic reflux esophagitis

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21
Q

What is an esophageal web a risk factor for?

A

cancer

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22
Q

What is the Carney’s Triad?

A

Chondroma (pulmonary)

Extra Adrenal pheo

GIST

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23
Q

Does aspirin cause duodenal ulcers?

A

no

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24
Q

What part of the stomach does Menetrier’s Disease favor?

A

fundus

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25
Q

What type of Billroth has an end to end anastomosis with the duodenum?

A

billroth 1

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26
Q

Where is the stomach re-attached with a Billroth 2?

A

jejunum

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27
Q

What type of Billroth has an increased risk of gastric cancer? When?

A

Billroth 2

10-20 years down the road

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28
Q

Is a billroth or roux-en-y at an increased risk of gallstones?

A

roux en y

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29
Q

Jejunogastric intussecption has a risk risk of what in the acute form?

A

mortality

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30
Q

Which polyposis syndrome develops osteomas, desmods and papillary thyroid cancer?

A

Gardner

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31
Q

What are the two components of Turcot Syndrome?

A

FAP and brain tumors (glioma and medulloblastoma)

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32
Q

Other than the GI tract, where do Peutz Jeghers get cancer?

A

pancreatic and GYN

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33
Q

What two cancers do Cowdens Syndrome pt get?

A

breast and thyroid

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34
Q

What polyposis syndrome can present with Lhermette Duclos syndrome?

A

Cowden

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35
Q

What polyposis can have ectodermal issues?

A

Cronkhite Canada

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36
Q

What is the most common GI location for sarcoid?

A

stomach

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37
Q

What should be suspected if a Roux-En-Y pt develops weight gain years later?

A

gastro-gastric fistula

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38
Q

Clover leaf sign on fluoro should make you think?

A

healed peptic ulcer

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39
Q

Pseudo-whipples is caused by what bug?

A

MAI

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40
Q

Celiac disease is associated with what lung findings?

A

idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis (lane hamilton syndrome)

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41
Q

Celiac disease is associated with what lung findings?

A

idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis (lane hamilton syndrome)

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42
Q

What bowel wall pathology can celiac disease cause?

A

bowel wall lymphoma

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43
Q

Fold reversal between the duodenum and jejunum should make you think what disease?

A

Celiac

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44
Q

Which class of patient can get severly thickened duodenal folds?

A

chronic dialysis

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45
Q

What is jejunal diverticulosis caused by?

A

bacterial overgrowth and malabsorption

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46
Q

Does duodenal lymphoma obstruct?

A

no

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47
Q

WHat type of hernia is caused by a defect is Hasselbach triangle?

A

direct

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48
Q

What type of hernia is caused by the failure of the processus vaginalis?

A

indirect

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49
Q

What is a Littre hernia?

A

hernia with a meckels in it

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50
Q

What is an Amyand hernia?

A

hernia with appendix in it

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51
Q

What type of hernia is high risk for strangulation? WHy?

A

richter

only one wall of bowel contained

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52
Q

Is laproscopic or open roux-en-y more likely to cause internal hernia?

A

laproscopic

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53
Q

What is more common, a right sided or left sided paraduodenal hernia?

A

left

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54
Q

What fossa do left sided paraduodenal hernias occur through?

A

fossa of landzert

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55
Q

What fossa do right sided paraduodenal hernias occur through?

A

fossa of waldeyer

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56
Q

What hepatiobiliary entities does Crohns increase the risk of?

A

fatty liver and gallstones

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57
Q

Coned cecum should make you think what disease?

A

E. histolytica

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58
Q

What two bugs like the duodenum/proximal small bowel?

A

giardia

strongyloides

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59
Q

What two bugs like the terminal ileum?

A

TB

yersinia

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60
Q

What is the ‘Accordion Sign’? With what process is this see?

A

contrast within mucosal folds

C. diff bitch

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61
Q

Large bowel intuss. should make you think what?

A

colon cancer

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62
Q

At what stage does rectal cancer break into the perirectal fat? Why is this important?

A

T3

neoadjuvant chemo/rads

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63
Q

What is McKittrick WHeelock Syndrome?

A

villous adenoma resulting in electrolyte imbalance and dehydration

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64
Q

Which portal vein supplies the caudate?

A

both

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65
Q

What happens to arterial flow to the liver then portal venous flow decreases?

A

inverse relationship

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66
Q

What does degeneration of an HCC look like on MRI?

A

T2 bright lesion with new T2 dark rim

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67
Q

On what phase is Eovist most intense? What transporter?

A

delayed

OATP

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68
Q

What is the mechanism of action of manganese for MRI?

A

T1 shortening

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69
Q

Core or FNA for hepatic hemangioma?

A

Core

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70
Q

What part of FNA do you need to hit in order to have a diagnostic biopsy?

A

scar

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71
Q

What is the radiotracer for FNH?

A

sulfur colloid

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72
Q

Multiple hepatic adenomas should make you think of what two diseases?

A

glycogen storage

liver adenomatosis

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73
Q

Can imaging reliably differentiate HCC from hepatic adenoma?

A

no

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74
Q

Hepatic adenomas often contain what macroscopically?

A

fat

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75
Q

A hepatic adenoma greater than what size usually get resected?

A

5cm

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76
Q

Fibrolamellar HCC will be avid for what radiotracer?

A

gallium

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77
Q

What two genetic diseases have a slightly increased risk of hepatic angiosarcoma?

A

NF and hemochromatosis

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78
Q

Calcified mets should make you think of what type of tumor?

A

mucinous secreting

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79
Q

Which hepatic lesion can be a “stealth lesion” on T1 and T2 weight MR?

A

FNH

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80
Q

What disease can have a massively dilated hepatic artery?

A

HHT

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81
Q

HCC can occur in the acute setting of what infection?

A

Hep B

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82
Q

Bulls Eye Sign is indicative of what type of hepatic infection?

A

Candida

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83
Q

Which infection can have “Extra Hepatic Extension”?

A

amoeba

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84
Q

“Water Lily” or “Sand Storm” are indicative of what disease?

A

hyatid cyst

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85
Q

“Tortoise Shell” is indicative of what disease?

A

schistosomiasis

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86
Q

What is a potential complication of an amebic abscess in the left hepatic lobe?

A

rupture into the pericardium

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87
Q

What part of the liver enhances with Fitz Hughes Curtis Syndrome?

A

anterior hepatic capsule

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88
Q

On a 1.5 T magnet, TE for out of phase is what?

A

2.2 ms

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89
Q

On a 1.5 T magnet, TE for in phase is what?

A

4.4 ms

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90
Q

What visceral organ is only involved with congenital hemochromatosis?

A

pancreas

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91
Q

What visceral organ is only involved on acquired hemochromatosis?

A

spleen

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92
Q

What is the most common cause of Budd Chiari?

A

idiopathic

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93
Q

What lobe is the liver can become massive with Budd Chiari?

A

caudate

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94
Q

What does the liver look like on arterial phase images during flip flop?

A

centrally enhancing

peripherally hypoattenuating

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95
Q

What does the liver look like on portal venous phase images during flip flop?

A

central washout

peripheral enhancement

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96
Q

Will hepatic veins and IVC be patent during budd chiari?

A

yes

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97
Q

Where is hepatic VOD endemic?

A

jamaica

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98
Q

How long does it take for the portal vein to undergo cavernous transformation?

A

12 months

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99
Q

Treated mets to the liver from what primary can mimmic cirrhotic liver morphology?

A

breast cancer mets

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100
Q

Which lobes of the liver are usually donated in an adult? In a child?

A

adult = 5-8

kids = 2- 3

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101
Q

How peripheral is peripheral for portal venous gas in relation to the hepatic capsule?

A

<2cm

102
Q

Dilated intrahepatic ducts is rare in all types of cirrhosis excluding what?

A

PSC

103
Q

What bug causes AIDS cholangiopathy? What classic finding is seen 60% of the time?

A

Cryptosporidium parvum

ampullary stenosis

104
Q

What disease has saccular deformities of the ducts, PSC or AIDS cholangiopathy?

A

PSC

105
Q

Is Oriental Cholangitis more often effecting the right or left ductal system?

A

left

106
Q

Does PBC effect the intra or extra-hepatic ducts?

A

intra

107
Q

A Long Common Channel (CBD and pancreatic duct) predisposes to what pathological happening? Why?

A

recurrent pancreatitis

reflux

108
Q

What is the most common type of choledochal cyst?

A

Type 1

109
Q

What is a Type 1 choledochal cyst?

A

fusiform dilation of the CBD

110
Q

What Todani classification is Caroli?

A

Type 5

111
Q

Are the intrahepatic, extrahepatic or both affected by Caroli disease?

A

intrahepatic only

112
Q

What two renal abnormalities is Caroli Disease associated with?

A

ARPKD

medullary sponge kidney

113
Q

The likelihood of what malignancy is increased with Caroli?

A

cholangio

114
Q

What is the eponym for an accessory cystic duct?

A

duct of luschka

115
Q

Mirizzi syndrome is associated with what other gallbladder pathology?

A

gallbladder carcinoma

116
Q

Does Mirizzi syndrome occur more often in people with a low or high duct insertion?

A

low

117
Q

Comet Tail artifact is highly associated with what gallbladder finding? What specifically causes this?

A

adenomyomatosis

cholesterol polyps

118
Q

What size cholesterol polyp needs to be followed?

A

5-10 mm

119
Q

What is the order of waves on hepatic doppler?

A

A - S - V - D

120
Q

On hepatic doppler, above the midline represent antegrade or retrograde flow?

A

above line = retrograde

121
Q

What does the A-wave represent on hepatic doppler?

A

A = atrial contraction

122
Q

What does the S-wave represent on hepatic doppler?

A

tricuspid opening

123
Q

What does the V-wave represent on hepatic doppler?

A

atria filling

124
Q

D wave deeper than an S wave may be indicative of what?

A

tricuspid regurg

125
Q

S wave deeper than a D wave may be indicative of what?

A

right heart failure

126
Q

What are the three causes of a pulsatile portal vein spectral wave?

A

right heart failure

tricuspid regurgitation

cirrhosis

127
Q

What part of the pancreas may be intra-peritoneal?

A

tail

128
Q

What should be more echogenic, pancreas or liver?

A

pancreas

129
Q

Lipomatous hypertrophy of the pancreas should make you think of what two diseases?

A

CF

Schwachman Diamond

130
Q

Dorsal agenesis of the pancreas is associated with what visceral organ abnormality?

A

polysplenia

131
Q

IE pancreatitis with fluid collections less than 4 weeks old is called?

A

acute peripancreatic collection

132
Q

IE pancreatitis with fluid collections greater than 4 weeks old is called?

A

pseudocyst

133
Q

Necrotizing pancreatitis with fluid collections less than 4 weeks old is called?

A

acute necrotic collection

134
Q

Necrotizing pancreatitis with fluid collections older than 4 weeks old is called?

A

walled off necrosis

135
Q

Is an edematous pancreas hypo or hyper-echoic?

A

hypo

136
Q

What is the eponym for the major pancreatic duct?

A

wirsung

137
Q

What is the eponym for the minor pancreatic duct?

A

Santorini

138
Q

Under normal anatomy, does the major duct drain within the superior or inferior papilla?

A

inferior

139
Q

Under normal anatomy, does the minoir duct drain within the superior or inferior papilla?

A

superior

140
Q

What is pancreas divisum?

A

when the main pancreatic duct is drained by the minor papilla

141
Q

Strictures/stenosis of what two anatomic structures occur 50% of the time with groove pancreatitis?

A

duodenum or CBD

142
Q

What is the cause of tropic pancreatitis presumed to be related to?

A

malnutrition

143
Q

What form of pancreatitis can have stones and obstruction in the main pancreatic duct?

A

tropic

144
Q

What form of pancreatitis is associated with the SPINK1 gene?

A

hereditary

145
Q

IgG 4 disease should make you say what five disease?

A

autoimmune pancreatitis

RP fibrosis

sclerosing cholangitis

inflammatory pseudotumor

riedil thyroiditis

146
Q

Serous cystadenoma is typically found in what patient class? What does it look like?

A

grandma tumor

bunch of little cysts

147
Q

Where is a serous cystadenoma of the pancreas usually located?

A

head

148
Q

Does a pancreatic serous cystadenoma communicate with the duct?

A

nein

149
Q

Mucinous cystic neoplasm is typically found in what patient class? Where is it usually located?

A

moms

body or tail

150
Q

Which pancreatic neoplasm can fill in like a hemangioma?

A

solid pseudopapillary

151
Q

How many seconds is pancreatic phase?

A

40 seconds

152
Q

What visceral organ can get planted in the pancreas?

A

spleen

153
Q

What vessel to the transplanted pancreas supplies the pancreatic head?

A

SMA

154
Q

What vessel to the transplanted pancreas supplies the pancreatic body/tail?

A

splenic artery

155
Q

What venous vessels drain the transplanted pancreas?

A

donor portal vein and RECIPIENT SMV

156
Q

What are Gamna Gandy bodies? What causes them?

A

small foci of hemorrhage

portal HTN

157
Q

What is peliosis?

A

multiple blood filled cystic spaces in a solid organ

158
Q

According to Lionheart, what two situations are the most common to manifest splenic peliosis?

A

AIDS

renal transplant pts

159
Q

Other than TB or histo, what bug can cause a calcified splenic lesion?

A

Brucella

160
Q

Littoral cell angioma often presents with clinical signs of what? How do these look on MR?

A

hyper-splenism

low T1 and T2

161
Q

Does renal scarring overly the columns or pyramids?

A

pyramids

162
Q

Which type of RCC is associated with VHL?

A

clear cell

163
Q

What is the three entity differential for T2 dark renal lesion?

A

papillary RCC

lipid poor AML

hemorrhagic cyst

164
Q

Does a transplanted kidney more often get papillary or clear cell RCC?

A

papillary

165
Q

Chromophobe RCC is associated with what syndrome?

A

Burt Hogg Dube

166
Q

Is renal lymphoma unilateral or bilateral?

A

bilateral

167
Q

Does renal leukemia cause the kidneys to be enlarged or small?

Does renal leukemia hit the cortex, medulla or both?

A

enlarged

cortex

168
Q

What is another name for Bourneville Disease?

A

tuberous sclerosis ya dick

169
Q

What renal neoplasm has a central scar?

A

Oncocytoma

170
Q

Is RCC cold or hot compared to adjacent renal parenchyma? Is oncocytoma cold or hot compared to adjacent renal parenchyma?

A

rcc = cold

oncocytoma = hot

171
Q

Bilateral oncocytomas should make you think what diusease?

A

Burt Hogge Dube

172
Q

What part of the rectum is not RP?

A

lower 1/3

173
Q

What does Erdheim Chester look like on plain films?

A

bilateral sclerosis of metaphysis

174
Q

What size differentiates T1 vs T1 RCC?

A

7cm

175
Q

What size differentiates Bosniak 2 from 2F?

A

3cm

176
Q

How many HU must a renal cyst enhance to be called Bosniak 4?

A

> 15 cm

177
Q

What appearance can lithium nephropathy give to the kidney?

A

innumerable tiny cysts

178
Q

What happens to uremia induced cystic disease after liver transplant?

A

cysts resolve

179
Q

What two malignancies can VHL cause in the pancreas?

A

neuroendocrine and “serous microcystic adenoma”

180
Q

TS in the lung should make you think of what malignancy?

A

LAM

181
Q

TS in the heart should make you think of what malignancy? Where specifically?

A

rhabdomyosarcoma

septum

182
Q

TS in the brain should make you think of what malignancy? Where specifically?

A

SEGA

183
Q

What is the relationship between TS and RCC?

A

happens in younger pts

184
Q

What usually happens contralaterally from a MCDK?

A

some sort of obstruction or reflux

185
Q

Does MCDK have any sort of functioning renal tissue?

A

no

186
Q

Does a PARApelvic or PERIpelvic cyst originate from the renal parenchyma?

A

PARA = PARenchyma

187
Q

What are the three most common causes of a striated nephrogram?

A

acute pyelo

acute obstruction

acute renal vein thrombosis

188
Q

What are the wedged shaped areas of a striated nephrogram related to?

A

hypoperfusion

189
Q

What is the most common cause of renal papillary necrosis?

A

the diabetes

190
Q

What is almost always seen with xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis?

A

stone acting as nidus for infection

191
Q

Cavitary renal calyx should make you think what bug? What other abdominal pathology can be seen?

A

TB

calcified mesenteric nodes or adrena glands

192
Q

What will the kidneys look like with HIV nephropathy on US?

A

big and bright

193
Q

What kidney stone is invisible on Xray?

A

Uric acid = Unseen

194
Q

Which HIV medication can cause kidney stones?

A

Indinavir

195
Q

What is notable about indinavir induced kidney stones?

A

not visible on CT

196
Q

What type of stone is highly dependent on pH? High or low pH?

A

uric acid

high pH

196
Q

What type of stone is highly dependent on pH? High or low pH?

A

uric acid

high pH

196
Q

What type of stone is highly dependent on pH? High or low pH?

A

uric acid

high pH

197
Q

What are the lowest attenuating kidney stone?

A

uric acid

198
Q

What type of renal stone has minimal differences in attenuation with DECT?

A

uric acid

199
Q

What drug in kids can cause medullary nephrocalcinosis?

A

lasix

200
Q

What metabolic abnormality can cause medullary nephrocalcinosis?

A

RTA

201
Q

What three genetic diseases are associated with medullary nephrocalcinosis/sponge kidney?

A

ED

Caroli

Beckwith Wiedemann

202
Q

What are the two causes of a persistent nephrogram?

A

hypotension

ATN

203
Q

Does the cortical rim sign indicate arterial insult or pyelonephritis?

A

arterial insult

204
Q

Reversed arterial diastolic flow should make you think what disease?

A

renal vein thrombosis

205
Q

What is the formula for resistive index?

A

PSV - EDV / PSV

206
Q

What virus is a risk factor for renal artery stenosis?

A

CMV

207
Q

What is the pathophysiology for Renal Allograft Compartment Syndrome?

A

transplanted kidney too big for extraperitoneal space

208
Q

What type of visceral malignancy are renal transplant patients at an increased risk of?

A

colon

209
Q

Does RCC tend to occur in native or transplanted kidney? Usually what subtype?

A

native

papillary

210
Q

What virus can cause a urothelial malignancy in a transplant pt?

A

BK

210
Q

What virus can cause a urothelial malignancy in a transplant pt?

A

BK

210
Q

What virus can cause a urothelial malignancy in a transplant pt?

A

BK

211
Q

What is the cause of ureteritis cystica? Specifically seen in what patient population?

A

chronic inflammation

diabetics with recurrent UTI

212
Q

Where is malakoplakia seea?

A

ureters and bladder

213
Q

What is the patient population for malakoplakia?

A

immunocompromised female patients

214
Q

What can make malakoplakia better?

A

abx

215
Q

What is associated with malignancy, leukoplakia or malakoplakia? What type of cancer?

A

leuko

squamous

216
Q

What is the eponym for RP fibrosis?

A

Ormond disease

217
Q

What is seen as a cause of RP fibrosis in about 10% of cases?

A

malignancy

218
Q

When is RP fibrosis FDG and gallium avid? When is it not?

A

early = hot

late = not hot

219
Q

Does RP fibrosis cause medial or lateral deviation of the ureters?

A

medial

220
Q

Subepithelial renal pelvis hematoma can mimmic what malignancy?

A

TCC

221
Q

What are the two causes for subepithelial renal pelvis hematoma?

A

anticoagulation or hemophilia

222
Q

Champage Glass Sign suggests what malignancy?

A

TCC

223
Q

Balkan Nephropathy can increase the likelihood of what malignancy?

A

TCC

224
Q

Calcifications in a urachal remnant should make you think what?

A

cancer

225
Q

What is a psoas hitch used for?

A

distal ureteral injury and reimplantation

226
Q

Is the molar tooth sign indicative of intraperitoneal or extraperitoneal bladder rupture?

A

extra

227
Q

Is pseudo-azotemia indicative of intra or extravesicular rupture? WHy?

A

intra

peritoneal lining absorbs urine

228
Q

What are the two components of the anterior urethra?

A

penile and bulbar

229
Q

What part of the urethra is below the pubic symphysis?

A

bulbar

230
Q

What are the two components of the posterior urethra?

A

memrbanous and prostatic

231
Q

Where in the urethra is the verumontanum located?

A

posterior wall of prostatic urethra

232
Q

What is a Type 1 urethral injury?

A

stretch

233
Q

What part of the urethra is injured with a Type 2 Injury?

A

membranous

234
Q

What structure needs to be damaged in order for contrast from a RUG to get into the scrotum?

A

Urogenital diaphragm

235
Q

What is a type 3 urethral injury?

A

membranous and bulbar

236
Q

Is the urogenital diaphragm injured during a type 3 urethral injury/?

A

yes

237
Q

What is a type 4 urethral injury?

A

bladded base injury extending into prostatic urethra

238
Q

What is a Type 5 urethral injury?

A

bulbar

239
Q

What part of the urethra is most commonly injured during a straddle injury?

A

bulbar

240
Q

What part of the urethra is effected by gonococcal disease? Long or short segment?

A

distal bulbar

long

241
Q

Multiple filling defects within the urethra on a RUG should make you think what?

A

Condyloma acuminatum

242
Q

What is the worry of instrumentation with urethral condyloma?

A

retrograde seeding

243
Q

What is almost always the cause of a urethral diverticulum in a male?

A

long term foley

244
Q

What part of the urethra can harbor TCC? What malignancy can occur throughout the remaining urethra?

A

prostatic urethra = TCC

all else = sequmous

245
Q

If a urethral diverticulum were to harbor malignancy, which type is it almost always?

A

adenocarcinoma

246
Q

What is almost always the cause of urethral diverticulum in females?

A

repeated UTI

247
Q

What type of cancer can manifest in a female urethral diverticulum?

A

adeno

GI trivia (2 decks)

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