reproductive trivia Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What kind of kidney for turner syndrome?

A

horse shoe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What do the mullerian ducts develop into?

A

uterus and upper 2/3 of vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does the urogenital sinus develop into in girls ?

A

lower 1/3 of vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Wolffian ducts grow into what?

A

boy parts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does the urogenital sinus develop into in boys?

A

prostate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the eponym for Mullerian Agenesis?

A

mayer rokitansky kuster hauser

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What abdominal organ has issues during mullerian agenesis/MRKS?

A

kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the most common type of unicornuate uterus?

A

isolated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What happens in the abdomen ipsilateral to the rudimentary horn?

A

renal agenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is uterine didelphys? What is present 75% of time?

A

complete uterine duplication

vaginal septum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does the term ‘cornus’ refer to?

A

cornus = uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does the term ‘collis’ refer to?

A

cervix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What shape of uterus does DES cause?

A

T shaped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the two types of uterus septae?

A

muscular and fibrous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

On what days of menstrual cycle should HSG be performed?

A

days 7-10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is Salpigitis Isthmica Nodusa? What are the two associations?

A

nodular scarring of proximal 2/3 of fallopian tube

infertility and ectopics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the most common cause of uterine AVM?

A

prior D/C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What would Asherman Syndrome look like on MR?

A

bunch of T2 dark bands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What two entities can cause a venetian blind type shadowing?

A

adenomyosis and fibroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the most common type of histological fibroid?

A

hyaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What type of fibroid occurs during pregnancy?

A

red/carneous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does a red/carneous fibroid look like on MRI?

A

peripheral T1 bright band

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What part of the uterus is spared during adenomyosis?

A

cervix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Generally, thickening of the junctional zone of the uterus beyond what size is seen with adenomyosis?

A

> 12 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What does adenomyosis look like on MRI?

A

T2 bright cystic changes throughout junctional zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Post-menopausal endometrial thickness should not be greater than what?

A

5 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Tamoxifen therapy increases the growth of what two entities within the endometrium?

A

endometrial cysts and polyps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Uterine cancer is almost always what subtype?

A

adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Will endometrial adenocarcinoma enhance more or less than surrounding myometrium?

A

less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is stage 2 endometrial cancer defined as? Supposedely this is high risk for what?

A

cervical stromal invasion

lymph node mets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Stage IIb cervical cancer is defined as?

A

para-metrial involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Mets to the anterior vaginal wall usually come from where?

A

upper genital tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Mets to the posterior vaginal wall usually come from where?

A

GI tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Are bartholin cysts found above or below the pubic symphysis?

A

below

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Where are Gartner Duct Cysts located? What causes them?

A

anterior/lateral wall of vagina

“incomplete regression of Wolffian ducts”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the eponym for the peri-urethral glands?

A

skene glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Does hemorrhage in a cystic mass usually indicate a benign or malignant process?

A

benign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Pre-menopausal ovarian size is less than what volume in mL?

A

15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Post-menopausal ovarian size is less than what volume in mL?

A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

To call it an ovarian cyst, it has to be larger than what size?

A

> 3 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome can cause what type of shock?

A

hypo-volemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

When should a PET be done in regards to menstrual cycle?

A

first week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

‘Ring of Fire’ can refer to what two entities?

A

corpus luteal cyst

ectopic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What will the range of RI’s be for an ectopic?

A

less than 0.4 or greater than 0.7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the most common location for an endometrioma?

A

uterosacral ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Endometriomas are most likely to undergo malignant transformation in which two settings?

A

age greater than 45 years

greater than 6-9 cm in size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is a decidualized endometrioma?

A

endometrioma in a pregnant patient with a mural nodule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What will an endometrioma look like on MRI? WIll they fat-sat?

A

T1 bright and T2 dark

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How many menstrual cycles does it take for a hemorrhagic cyst to go away?

A

1-2 cycles

50
Q

Tip of the iceberg sign refers to what ovarian lesion?

A

dermoid

51
Q

What type of cancer can a dermoid degenerate into?

A

squamous

52
Q

What part of a dermoid has the highest propensity to degenerate into cancer?

A

rokitansky

53
Q

PCOS has to have how many peripheral cysts? What size?

A

greater than 10

<5mm in size

54
Q

What is a known risk factor for mucinous ovarian cystadenocarcinoma?

A

smoking

55
Q

What ovarian tumor can produce estrogen?

A

granulosa thecal

56
Q

Which ovarian tumor is T1 and T2 dark?

A

fibroma/fibrothecoma

57
Q

What is the triad of Meigs Syndrome?

A
  1. ascites
  2. pleural effusion
  3. ovarian fibroma/fibrothecoma
58
Q

Brenner tumors of the ovary are similar histologically to what other tumor?

A

transitional cell

59
Q

What do struma ovarii look like on MR?

A

multilocular cystic mass with enhancing internal solid component

60
Q

Para-ovarian cysts arise from the remnants of what?

A

wolffian ducts

61
Q

What do para-ovarian cysts not do?

A

do NOT distort adjacent ovary

62
Q

What are the two locations of an ovary in regards to a peritoneal inclusion cyst?

A

within or abutting

63
Q

What type of cyst is present in a MOLAR pregnancy?

A

Theca Lutein cysts

64
Q

What is the name of the covering of the corpus cavernosum?

A

tunica albuginea

65
Q

What is stage T2 prostate cancer?

A

confined by capsule

66
Q

What is stage T3 prostate cancer?

A

abutting or extending capsule

67
Q

What is the strongest congenital association with a seminal vesicle cyst?

A

ADPKD

68
Q

Does a Mullerian cyst communicate with the urethra?

A

no

69
Q

What are the two most common associations with a prostatic utricle cyst?

A

hypospadias

unilateral renal agenesis

70
Q

What is the name of the serous covering of the testicles?

A

tunica vaginalis

71
Q

What wouold loss of venous outflow look like on doppler?

A

loss of diastolic flow or reversal

72
Q

What wouold loss of venous outflow look like on doppler?

A

loss of diastolic flow or reversal

73
Q

What is the pathophysiology behind tubular ectasia of the rete testis?

A

blockage of efferent ducts

74
Q

Multiple hypoechoic masses of the testicle should make you think of what pathology?

A

lymphoma

75
Q

Which two testicular neoplasms will have an elevated AFP?

A

mixed germ cell

yolk sac

76
Q

What lab is elevated with a seminoma?

A

HCG

77
Q

What can happen to the bowel with cryptorchidism?

A

incarcerated hernia

78
Q

What are the two components of zinner syndrome?

A

renal agenesis

ipsilateral seminal vesicle cyst

79
Q

What is a missed abortion?

A

dead fetus in uterus

80
Q

WHat is the yolk sac connected to?

A

umbilicus of embryo by vitelline duct

80
Q

WHat is the yolk sac connected to?

A

umbilicus of embryo by vitelline duct

81
Q

The yolk sac should be seen when the GS is greater than what?

A

8mm

82
Q

What is the double bleb sign?

A

when yolk sac and amion abutt with fetal disc in middle

82
Q

What is the double bleb sign?

A

when yolk sac and amion abutt with fetal disc in middle

83
Q

What are the four criteria for diagnosing a failed pregnancy?

A
  1. CRL > 7mm and no FHR
  2. MSD > 25mm and no FHR
  3. No embryo 2 weeks after GS seen
  4. No embryo with FHR 11 days after GS and YS seen
84
Q

What is an known complication of interstitial ectopic?

A

massive hemorrhage

85
Q

What level of HCG should a yolk sac be seen?

A

5k

86
Q

What is a heterotopic pregnancy?

A

two babies, one in uterus and one in tube

87
Q

Biparietal Diameter is measured at what level?

A

thalamus

88
Q

Abdominal circumference is measured at what level?

A

junction of umbilical vein and portal vein

89
Q

Asymmetric growth restriction occurs from an insult in what trimester?

A

3rd

90
Q

What connective tissue disease can cause an asymmetric growth restriction?

A

ED

91
Q

The systolic to diastolic ratio should not be greater than what at 34 weeks?

A

3

92
Q

Aplastic humeral head and/or glenoid should make you think what neonatal issue?

A

erb palsy

93
Q

What does rhombencephalon mean?

A

hindbrain

94
Q

When is a cystic rhomboencephalon present?

A

6-8 weeks

95
Q

What weeks of gestation does the midgut herniate?

A

9-11 weeks

96
Q

Full or empty bladder to diagnose placenta previa?

A

empty

97
Q

Full or empty bladder to diagnose placenta previa?

A

empty

98
Q

A low lying placenta is within what distance of the cervix?

A

within 2 cm

99
Q

What are the two risk factors for placenta creta spectrum?

A

prior c-section

placenta previa

100
Q

What is a placental chorioangioma?

A

placental chorioangioma = placental hamartoma

101
Q

Where is a placental chorioangioma located?

A

near the cord insertion

102
Q

How does a placental chorioangioma relate to FHR?

A

will pulse at FHR

103
Q

Multiple chorioangiomas can do what?

A

sequester platelets

lead to fetal hydrops

104
Q

What are the normal vessels of the umbilical cord?

A

two arteries and one vein

105
Q

In what two situations does a two vessel cord most often occur?

A

maternal diabetes and twin pregnancies

106
Q

What is vasa previa?

A

fetal vessels that cross cervical os

107
Q

Umbilical cord cysts that persist into the 3rd trimester may be indicative of what?

A

trisomy

108
Q

Nuchal translucency should be less than what size/thickness?

A

3mm

109
Q

What are the three most common findings with fetal hydrops?

A
  1. ascites
  2. pleural effusion
  3. pericardial effusion
110
Q

What is the banana sign? What condition will it be seen?

A

loss of normal bilobed shape of cerebellum

Chiari II/NTD

111
Q

What is the lemon sign? What condition will it be seen?

A

flat/concave frontal bones

Chiari II/NTD

112
Q

The size of the ventricular atrium greater than what size would be considered hydrocephalus?

A

10 mm

113
Q

The incidence of a choroid plexus cyst is increased in what three diseases?

A

trisomies

turners

klinefelter

114
Q

What is the most often location of an echogenic intracardiac focus? In what group of diseases are they most often seen?

A

calcification of the papillary muscle

trisomes

115
Q

A shortened cervix is less than what length?

A

< 2.5 cm

116
Q

What type of pregnancy is a twin peak sign seen? Is it composed of chorion or amnion?

A

dichorionic and diamniotic

chorion

117
Q

Does twin twin transfusion occur in monochorionic or dichorionic twins?

A

mono

118
Q

Regarding twin/twin transfusion, which twin does better, fat or skinny?

A

skinny

119
Q

Twin Embolization Syndrome can only occur in a monochorionic or dichorionic pregnancy?

A

mono