Treatments Quiz 5 (final week) Flashcards

1
Q

Carvedilol

A

Selective Beta blocker

Improves survival in CHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Ethacrynic acid

A

Loop diuretic that blocks NKCC in ascending loop of Henle.

Same as furosemide.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Apresoline

A

Arterial Vasodilator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Treatment for Diastolic CHF

A

Beta-blocker (more time for filling) and ACEI’s (decrease afterload and preload, but still has shown efficacy)

Not diuretics or Nitro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Nesiritide (Natrecor)

A

MOA: drug form of BNP –> decrease in systemic vascular resistance and central venous pressure as well as an increase in natriuresis (sodium excretion). Thus, the net effect of BNP is a decrease in blood volume, which lowers systemic blood pressure and afterload, yielding an increase in cardiac output, partly due to a higher ejection fraction.

Needs to be infused IV

For stage IV HF. Improved dyspnea

Side effect - hypotension, cost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Metolazone (Zaroloxyn)

A

Quinazoline diuretic (similar to thiazides except PCT not DCT)

Inhibits Na/Cl cotransporter in PCT.

Side effects = hypokalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Ace Inhibitors (-pril)

A

MOA: Inhibit conversion of Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II
-Angiotensin II on the VSM results in an increase in intracellular Ca++ leading to vasoconstriction (increased BP)
-Angiotensin II on the proximal tubule results in increased Na+ reabsorption (H2O follows) → increased fluid volume → increased CO → increased BP
-Angiotensin II also results in an increased H+ excretion → increased Bicarbonate reabsorption → increased pH
Angiotensin II also acts on the adrenal cortex to cause an increase in aldosterone → sodium retention and potassium excretion (too much ACEI→ not enough potassium excretion = HYPERKALEMIA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Angiotensin Receptor Blocker

A

MOA - Block receptors of Angiotensin II (AT1) on both the Vascular Smooth Muscle and the proximal tubule of the kidney.

  • Angiotensin II on the VSM results in an increase in intracellular Ca++ leading to vasoconstriction (increased BP)
  • Angiotensin II on the proximal tubule results in increased Na+ reabsorption (H2O follows) → increased fluid volume → increased CO → increased BP
  • Angiotensin II also results in an increased H+ excretion → increased Bicarbonate reabsorption → increased pH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Clonidine

A

MOA: Stimulates alpha 2 receptors à block adenylyl cyclase à decrease norepinephrine release à decrease blood pressure

  • Use in hypertensive urgency
  • Adverse effects – fatigue, sedation, dry mouth, salt/water retention
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Aliskiren

A

Direct Renin Inhibitor

Rarely used due to its severe side effects but it does exist.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

HCTZ (thiazide diuretics)

A

Blocks Sodium Reabsorption in the DCT of the kidney → decreased water reabsorption

Specifically blocks the Na/Cl co-transporter by competing for the binding of the chloride site

In an unrelated mechanism, thiazides increase Calcium reabsorption

Side effects: hypokalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Furosemide

A

Inhibits the NKCC pump on ascending Loop of Henle→ decreased sodium transport → decreased H2O reabsorption

Side effects: hypokalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Spironolacone

A

MOA: aldosterone receptor antagonist –> decreased sodium resorbtion (increased potassium resorbtion)

Positive effects in treating CHF.

Potassium sparing –> can cause hyperkalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Terazosin (-zosins)

A

Antagonism of alpha receptors leads to decreased constriction of VSM → decreased TPR → decreased BP

*for final just remember the various effects of adrenergic agonists on BP given adrenergic antagonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Hydralazine

A

MOA unknown –> arteriolar specific vasodilation.

Used in pregnancy and for African Americans w/ CHF (along w/ isosorbide dinitrate = BiDil)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Clonidine

A

Alpha 2 agonist –> decreased NE release

17
Q

Alpha-methyl dopa

A

Alpha 2 agonist –> decreased NE release

Safe in pregnancy

18
Q

Guanabenz

A

Alpha 2 agonist –> decreased NE release

19
Q

Polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)

A

Gastrointestinal excretion of potassium is accomplished using sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate), which binds potassium in the colon in exchange for sodium.

It can be given orally or as a retention enema. The enema form is faster

20
Q

Dextrose/Insulin

A

Elevated insulin levels induce rapid transport of potassium from the extracellular space into cells via cellular sodium-potassium adenosine triphosphatase.

The dextrose is to prevent hypoglycemia w/ insulin injection.

A beta-2 agonist nebulizer can have additional effects of lowering potassium.

21
Q

DASH diet

A

Dietary Approach to Stop Hypertension

The DASH diet encourages you to reduce the sodium in your diet and eat a variety of foods rich in nutrients that help lower blood pressure, such as potassium, calcium and magnesium.

Plant-focused diet, rich in fruits and vegetables, nuts, with low-fat and non-fat dairy, lean meats, fish, and poultry, mostly whole grains, and heart healthy fats.

Limit of 2,300mg of Na.