Treatments and Prescriptions Flashcards

1
Q

Post-stroke anticoagulation therapy

A

14 days high dose aspirin (300mg) followed by life long clopidorgel (75mg) unless patient has AF where you give anticoagulation (DOAC). Do not give anticoagulation in the first 14 days due to risk of haemorrhagic transformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Mode of action of saline (i.e. principle of giving IV saline)

A

saline contains Na which increases the amount of sodium in the interstitial. This stimulates an increase in net movement of water OUT of the cells thereby increasing the amount of fluid in the interstitial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Why do we give fluids? (three main reasons)

A

Maintenance
Resuscitation - short term / emergent or long term (e.g. diuretic use)
Electrolyte imbalances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

General rules for fluid replacement:

* Replace blood with .....
* Replace plasma with ..... 
* Resuscitate with .... 
* Replace ECF depletion with .....
* Rehydrate with ......
A

Replace blood with blood

Replace plasma with colloids

Resuscitate with colloids

Replace ECF depletion with saline (crsytalloid)

Rehydrate with dextrose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Why do we use colloids for resuscitation?

A

Shock requires fluids to be in the IV area which is why we use colloids as there is no movement of fluid into the interstitium, just into the IV space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Why do we use crystalloids (dextrose) for dehydration?

A

Dehydration is in all compartments before you want an increase in fluids in all compartments - crystalloids allow for an increase in net movement out of the cells into both IV and interstitium thereby rehydrating the patient more effectively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the calculation for “drip rate” (IV drug administration)

A

Drip rare = (volume (ml) / time (mins)) x drop factor = drops/minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define: drop factor (part of drip rate calculation)

A

Drop factor on back of giving set but it is:

    * 20 for fluid 
    * 15 for blood
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Osteoporosis

A

Bisphosphonates - if appropriate, max 5-8 years

Denosumab - must have adequate Vit D levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Stat treatment for HTN crisis (not ITU situation)

A

Amlodipine 5mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Long term management of peripheral vascular disease (lower limb ischaemia)

A

anti platelet therapy, stop smoking, exercise, diabetic control, HTN, statin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Indications for dual antiplatelet therapy

A

12 months after a stent (then swap to aspirin alone)
Stroke
Post-stent MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What MUST you do with pre operative patients who are on oral steroids? Why?

A

Stop oral steroids and replace with IV - this is because long term steroid therapy will suppress natural adrenal function therefore the patient would go into crisis if the steroids are not replaced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

First line antibiotic for UTI

A

Nitrofurantoin - 100mg, QDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

First line Abx for skin infections

A

Flucloxacillin - 500mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the indications for therapeutic drug monitoring?

A

Lack of drug efficacy
Suspicion of poor compliance
Toxicity - suspected or for prevention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the essentials for drug prescriptions? (HINT: think PReSCRIBER)

A
Patient details 
REaction (allergies)
Signature 
Contraindications (for each drug)
Route of administration (for each drug)
IV fluids required?
Blood clot prophylaxis required?
anti-Emetic required?
pain Relief required?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How many items of patient information are required on a drug chart?

A

3 - name, DOB and hospital number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

List the three major contraindications for anticoagulation?

A

Active bleeding
Suspected bleeding
Risk of bleeding - eg chronic liver disease causing increased PT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

List the main contraindications for NSAID prescription? (HINT: think NSAID)

A
No urine (renal failure)
Systolic dysfunction (heart failure)
Asthma
Indigestion 
Dyscrasia (clotting abnormality)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the only two indications for fluid prescription?

A

Maintenance - for NBM patients

Replacement - for dehydrated or acutely unwell patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which fluid should you prescribe in most cases? What class of fluid is it?

A

0.9% (normal) saline - crystalloid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

If a patient is hypernatraemic which fluid should you prescribe?

A

5% dextrose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

If a patient is hypoglycaemic which fluid should you prescribe?

A

5% dextrose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

If a patient has ascites which fluid should you prescribe?

A

Human albumin solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

If a patient is shocked with low systolic BP which fluid should you prescribe?

A

Gelufusine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

If a patient is shocked from blood loss which fluid should you prescribe?

A

Blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

If a patient is tachycardia or hypotension, how should you prescribe fluids?

A

500ml bolus then reassess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

If a patient is oliguric without obstruction, how do you prescribe the fluid?

A

1L over 2-4 hours then reassess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Assuming a patient requires 3L of maintenance over 24 hours, which fluids and how much should you prescribe?

A

2 salty, 1 sweet… 2L normal saline plus 1L dextrose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

If a patient has normal electrolytes, how much potassium should be added to saline?

A

40 mmol KCL over 24 hours - note, dextrose contains potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the normal maintenance fluid requirement for an adult? Is this the same in the elderly?

A

3L over 24 hours

No - the elderly require 2L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

analgesia in mild pain

A

Paracetamol 1g 6 hourly (to a max of 4G in 24 hours)

Give PRN codeine 30mg up to 6 hourly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Analgesia in severe psi

A

Cocodamol 30/500 2 tablets 6 hourly

Give PRN morphine sulphate 10mg up to 6 hourly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

First line treatments for neuropathic pain

A

Amitriptyline 10mg P.O. nightly
OR
Pregabalin 75 mg P.O. 12 hourly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

List some drugs should you use brand names for rather than generic names?

A

Insulin
Inhalers
Certain psychiatric drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

When should an inpatient antibiotic prescription be reviewed?

A

48 hours - when cultures are back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the general dosage rule for PRN analgesia dosing?

A

1/6th of regular dose up to 4-hourly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the target TSH for treated hypothyroid patients

A

0.5 - 5 mIU/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

If TSH is LESS THAN 0.5 in an hypothyroid patient on levothyroxine, what should you do?

A

Lower levothyroxine dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

If TSH is MORE THAN 5 in an hypothyroid patient on levothyroxine, what should you do?

A

Increase levothyroxine dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which drugs have a narrow therapeutic window and require monitoring?

(HINT: “guys with large dongles totally make perfect internet connections”)

A
Gentamicin (+ vancomycin)
Warfarin 
Lithium 
Digoxin
Theophylline 
Methotrexate 
Phenytoin 
Insulin
Cyclosporine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the normal dose and regimen for gentamicin in patients with good renal function?

A

5 - 7 mg/kg IV OD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the dose regimen for patients requiring gentamicin with concurrent AKI?

A

1 mg/kg IV divided daily dosing every 12 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the dose regimen for patients requiring gentamicin with concurrent endocarditis?

A

1 mg/kg IV divided daily dosing every 8 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How do you treat major bleeds in warfarinised patients?

A

Stop warfarin
Give 5-10mg vitamin K IV
Give prothrombin complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What should you do in the following situations in warfarinised patients?

1) INR < 6
2) INR 6-8
3) INR > 8

A

1) reduce dose
2) omit dose for 2 days then recommence on reduced dose
3) only dose and give 1-5mg ORAL vitamin K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Acute management of a STEMI

A

1) ABC approach
2) O2 (15L non rebreather) if low sats
3) Aspirin 300mg P.O.
4) Morphine (5-10mg) IV with metoclopramide (10mg) IV
5) GTN spray
6) Primary PCI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Acute management of NSTEMI

A

1) ABC approach
2) O2 (15L non rebreather) if low sats
3) Aspirin 300mg P.O.
4) Morphine (5-10mg) IV with metoclopramide (10mg) IV
5) GTN spray
6) Clopidogrel (300 mg) PO and LMWH (enoxaparin) (1mg/kg) BD SC
7) b blocker (atenolol 5mg P.O.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Acute management of LVF

A

1) ABC approach
2) O2 (15L non rebreather)
3) SIT PATIENT UP
4) Morphine (5-10mg) IV with metoclopramide (10mg) IV
5) GTN spray
6) Furosemide (40-80 mg) IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Initial acute management of adult tachycardia

A

1) ABC approach
2) O2 (15L non rebreather) if low sats
3) IV access (2x large bore cannulae)
4) Monitor - ECG, BP, SpO2, 12-lead ECG
5) Identify and treat reversible causes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Acute management of the unstable adult tachycardia patient (i.e. presence of shock / syncope / myocardial ischaemia / HF)

A

1) Initiate basic management of tachycardia (ABC, O2, IV access, monitor)
2) Synchronised DC shock - up to 3 attempts
3) Amiodarone (300 mg) IV over 10-20 mins
4) Repeat shock
5) Amiodarone (900 mg) IV over 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Acute management of stable narrow complex adult tachycardia patient

A

1) Initiate basic management of tachycardia (ABC, O2, IV access, monitor)
2) Determine if regular or irregular rhythm

Irregular rhythm = fast AF
A - rate control with b-blocker or diltiazem
B - if HF + digoxin or amiodarone

Regular rhythm
A - vagal manoeuvres
B - adenosine (6mg) IV bolus (repeat 2x if nec with 12 mg)
C - continuous ECG monitoring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Acute management of stable broad complex adult tachycardia patient

A

1) Initiate basic management of tachycardia (ABC, O2, IV access, monitor)
2) Determine if regular or irregular rhythm

Irregular = AF with BBB or Polymorphic VT
A - seek expert help
B - if in AF, rate control (b-blocker or diltiazem)
B - if polymorphic, give magnesium (2g) IV

Regular = VT
A - amiodarone (300 mg) IV over 20 - 60 min
B - amiodarone (900 mg) IV over 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Outline the hypertension management guidelines in patients < 55 years old

A

1) ACEi (or ARB if not tolerated) - eg: lisinopril 10mg OD (or candesartan 8mg)
2) + CCB - eg: nifedipine 30 mg OD
3) + Diuretic (thiazide-like) - eg: indapimide
4) Refer to expert - can add b-blocker

56
Q

Outline the hypertension management guidelines in patients > 55 years old (or afro-carribean)

A

1) CCB (or thiazide-like if not tolerated) - eg: nifedipine 30 mg OD (or indapimide)
2) + ACEi (or ARB if not tolerated) - eg: lisinopril 10mg OD (or candesartan 8mg)
3) + Diuretic (thiazide-like) - eg: indapimide
4) Refer to expert - can add b-blocker

57
Q

What kind of information should you give patients regarding treatments? (HINT: think ATHLETICS)

A
Action - MOA
Timeline - when to take drug
How to take - tablet/injection etc
Length of treatment
Efficacy window - how long before beneficial effects are seen
Important side effects
Complications 
Contraindications 
Supplementary advice - drug specific
58
Q

Outline the stepwise management of chronic heart failure

A

1) ACEi (lisinopril 2.5mg) + B-blocker (bisoprolol 2.5mg)
2) + ARB (candesartan 4mg)
3) + Hydralazine (25 mg 8-hourly) + isosorbide mononitrate (20 mg 8-hourly)
4) + Spironolactone (25 mg)
5) Digoxin
6) Surgical intervention

59
Q

What are the two methods of rhythm control in AF patients?

A

Electrical - synchronised cardioversion

Pharmacological - amiodarone 5mg/kg IV over 20-120 mins

60
Q

At what HR should AF patients be rate controlled?

61
Q

What are the drugs used to rate control AF patients?

A

1) B-blocker (propranolol 10mg 6-hourly)
OR
1) CCB (diltiazem 120mg)

2) Digoxin (if required or both above are CI)

62
Q

What are the contraindications for b-blocker use in stable angina?

A

Hypotension
Bradycardia
Asthma
Acute heart failure

63
Q

What are the contraindications for CCB use in stable angina?

A

Hypotension
Bradycardia
Peripheral oedema

64
Q

Outline the stepwise management of stable angina?

A

1) GTN spray PRN
2) Secondary prevention: aspirin, statin, lifestyle modification
3) B-blocker (or CCB if CI)
4) + CCB (or nitrate - ISMN)
5) Refer for CABG

65
Q

What is the prophylactic dose of LMWH (eg: enoxaparin)?

A

20-40 mg pre and post operative

66
Q

What is the treatment dose of LMWH (eg: enoxaparin)?

A

1.5 mg / kg / 24 hours

67
Q

Which anti-platelet drugs should be prescribed in the following situations:

(1) ACS
(2) Secondary prevention following stroke
(3) Secondary prevention following TIA

A

(1) Aspirin (300 mg) + Clopidogrel (300mg)
(2) Clopidogrel
(3) Aspirin

68
Q

Describe the treatment for aspirin overdose

A

(1) Establish time of OD
(2) SAlicylate and paracetemol levels
(3) If within 1 hour = gastric lavage
(4) If high levels = haemodialysis

69
Q

What is the only paediatric indication for treatment with aspirin?

A

Kawasaki’s disease

70
Q

What is the maximum dose of aspirin in 24 hours?

71
Q

How long before surgery should aspirin be stopped if there is a significant bleeding risk?

72
Q

Outline the management of anaphylaxis

A

1) ABC approach
2) 15 L O2 (non re-breather)
3) Remove cause
4) Adrenaline 500 ug 1:1000 IM
5) Chlorpehnamine 10 mg IV
6) Hydrocortisone 200 mg IV
7) Bronchodilators if wheeze

73
Q

Outline the management of acute exacerbation of asthma

A

1) ABC approach
2) 15 L O2 (non re-breather)
3) Salbutamol: 2 puffs every 10 minutes up to 10 puffs
4) Salbutamol neb (5mg with O2)
5) Prednisolone (40-50 mg PO) or Hydrocortisone (100 mg IV)
6) Ipratropium bromide neb (500 ug)
7) Magnesium sulfate (1-2 g IV)
8) Theophylline (5mg/kg IV loading dose then 0.5mg/kg/hr IV)

74
Q

What major treatment varies between acute exacerbation of asthma and COPD?

A

Oxygen therapy - unless the patient is peri-arrest, it is safer to start known COPD patients on 28% oxygen to prevent hypercapnia.

75
Q

What should be added to management of acute exacerbation if it is an infective cause?

A

Antibiotic therapy - IV

76
Q

What is the treatment for secondary pneumothorax?

A

Chest drain if >2cm, pt is SOB or >50 years

Aspiration otherwise

77
Q

What is the treatment for tension pneumothorax?

A

1) Emergency aspiration (i.e. needle decompression)

2) Insertion of chest drain

78
Q

When should you treat a primary pneumothorax?

A

If it is >2cm or patient feels SOB

79
Q

What is the management for primary pneumothorax <2cm?

A

Outpatient f/u in 4 weeks

80
Q

What is the management for primary pneumothorax >2cm?

A

Aspiration (max 2x attempts)

Chest drain if unsuccessful

81
Q

What CURB-65 score is required for patients to be admitted?

82
Q

Outline the management of PE

A

1) ABC approach
2) 15 L O2 (non-rebreather)
3) Morphine 5-10 mg IV + metoclopramide 10mg IV
3) LMWH (eg: tinzaparin 175 U/kg SC)

83
Q

Outline the management of chronic asthma

A

1) Inhaled SABA PRN
2) + ICS daily
3) + Inhaled LABA or increase ICS dose
4) + fourth drug (eg: leukotriene receptor antagonist: montelukast)
5) + daily steroid tablet + referral to specialist care

84
Q

What % FEV1 determines long-term COPD management?

A

50% - patients with an FEV1 >50% do not require daily inhaled steroids

85
Q

Outline the management of COPD patients with FEV1 >50%

A

1) SABA / SAMA PRN
2) Add in LABA
3) Add in LAMA - must discontinue SAMA

86
Q

Outline the management of COPD patients with FEV1 <50%

A

1) SABA / SAMA PRN
2) Add in LABA + ICS
3) Addin LAMA - must discontinue SAMA

87
Q

Outline the management of acute GI bleeds (HINT: think 8 Cs)

A

1) ABC approach
2) 15 L O2 (non re-breather)
3) Cannulae - 2x large bore
4) Catheter - strict fluid monitoring
5) Crystalloid
6) Cross match - 6 units of blood
7) Correct clotting abnormalities
8) Camera - endoscopy
9) Culprit - stop culprit drugs (eg NSAIDs, aspirin, warfarin, heparin)
10) Call the surgeons

88
Q

What is the Rx of bacterial meningitis in the community?

A

1g benzylpenicillin

89
Q

What is the Rx of bacterial meningitis in hospital?

A

2g cefotaxime IV

90
Q

Outline the management of status epilepticus

A

1) ABC approach
2) Place patient in recovery position + O2
3) Lorazepam (2-4mg IV) or Diazepam (10mg IV) or midazolam (10mg buccal)
4) Repeat if still fitting at 2 mins
5) Call for anaesthetic support
6) Phenytoin infusion
7) RSI - intubation + propofol

91
Q

What is the first and most important step in the acute management of stroke?

A

CT head to see if there are any signs of haemorrhage

92
Q

Outline the acute management of ischaemic stroke

A

1) ABC approach
2) CT head
3) If no evidence of bleeding + within 4.5 hours of symptom onset - thrombolysis
4) Aspirin (300mg PO)
5) Transfer to stroke unit

93
Q

What is the major difference between the management of DKA and HONK?

A

Amount of fluid - HONK patients need 1/2 the rate of fluid of DKA patients

94
Q

Outline the management of hyperglycaemia in the acute setting

A

1) ABC approach
2) IV fluids (0.9% saline) - if in DKA and BP < 90 systolic, give bolus
3) IV insulin - 0.1 unit / kg / hour
4) Look for trigger (infection, missed insulin etc.)
5) Monitor BM, pH and K - give dextrose and potassium after first hour

95
Q

Outline the management of AKI

A

1) ABC approach
2) Cannulae - IV fluids
3) Catheter - strict fluid monitoring
4) Monitor

96
Q

What are the three methods used to reduce absorption in cases of acute poisoning?

A

Gastric lavage - stomach pumping
Whole bowel irrigation - for lithium or iron
Activated charcoal

97
Q

What are the conditions for gastric lavage?

A

Acute poisoning within 1 hour

98
Q

In the following cases of acute poisoning, what treatments are given to increase elimination?

(1) Paracetemol
(2) Opioids
(3) Benzodiazepines

A

(1) IV fluids + NAC (N-acetyl cystine)
(2) IV fluids + naloxone
(3) IV fluids + flumazenil

99
Q

What are the 4 basic principles of diabetes management (according to NICE guidelines)?

A

1) Education + diet/exercise advice
2) CV risk factor management
3) Annual review for complications
4) Blood glucose lowering therapy

100
Q

What are the principles for CV risk factor management in diabetes?

A

If significant risk OR T2DM aged >40 (statin) / >50 (aspirin)

1) Aspirin - 75 mg daily
2) Statin - 20-40 mg daily

101
Q

Why is the albumin-creatinine ratio good in monitoring for diabetic complications?

A

It is an early indicator for diabetic nephropathy and predictor of CV disease

102
Q

What is the cut off for HbA1c in T2DM requiring hypoglycaemic medications?

A

> 48 mmol/mol (6.5%)

103
Q

Outline the management of T2DM (in terms of blood glucose lowering therapy)

A

1) Diet and exercise

If HbA1c remains > 48 mmol/mol

2) Metformin 500mg
3) Increase dose to max tolerated
4) Add in sulphonylurea (gliclazide)
5) Add gliptin
6) Insulin

104
Q

What are the treatment options for Parkinson’s disease?

A

In mild cases -

1) Dopamine agonists (eg: ropinirole)
2) MOA inhibitors (eg: rasagiline)

In moderate to severe cases -
2) Levodopa + peripheral dopa decarboxylase inhibiotr (eg: co-beneldopa or co-careldopa)

105
Q

Name the anti-epileptic most commonly used in each of the following types of seizure disorder:

(1) generalised tonic clonic
(2) absence
(3) myoclonic
(4) tonic
(5) focal

A

(1) sodium valproate
(2) sodium valproate or ethosuximide
(3) sodium valproate
(4) sodium valproate
(5) carbamazepine or lamotrigine

106
Q

What class of drug is used to treat mild Alzheimer’s disease?

A

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors

107
Q

Name the 3 acetylcholinesterase inhibitors are licensed for use in Alzheimer’s disease

A

Donepezil
Rivastigmine
Galantamine

108
Q

What class of drug is used to treat severe Alzheimer’s disease?

A

NMDA antagonist

109
Q

Outline the management of a mild acute flare up of Crohn’s disease

A

Prednisolone 30 mg PO daily

110
Q

Outline the management of a severe acute flare up of Crohn’s disease

A

Hydrocortisone 100 mg IV 6-hourly

111
Q

What is TPMT and why is it important? (hint: Crohn’s disease)

A

TPMT is the enzyme that metabolises 6-mercaptopurine (active agent of azathioprine) - 10% of the population have congenitally low levels therefore would experience toxicity on azathioprine treatment

TPMT levels must be checked before Rx with azathioprine is commenced

112
Q

What is the major drug used to maintain remission in Crohn’s disease?

A

Azathioprine

113
Q

If a Crohn’s patient has low TPMT levels, what alternative to azathioprine is used?

A

Methotrextate

114
Q

What are the conditions for initiating TNFa inhibitors in RA?

A

Failure to respond to 2x DMARD

115
Q

Outline the basic management of RA

A

Methotrexate + DMARD (eg: sulfasalazine)

116
Q

Outline the management of RA during an acute flare

A

1) Short-term glucocorticoids (eg IM methylpred 80 mg)

2) Short-term NSAIDs (eg: ibuprofen 400 mg PO 8 hourly) with gastric protection (eg: lasoprazole)

117
Q

What is the management of confirmed non-infectious diarrhoea

A

Loperamide 2mg PO up to 3 hourly

OR

Codeine 30mg PO up to 6 hourly

118
Q

What is the first line antibiotic for skin infections?

A

Flucloxacillin (500 mg PO 6 hourly for 7 days)

119
Q

Outline the management of acute pulmonary oedema

A

1) ABC approach
2) Sit patient up
3) Oxygen
3) Morphine (diamorphine 2.5-5mg) + metoclopramide
4) Furosemide (40-80 mg IV)
5) GTN (2 puffs)
6) Isosorbate mononitrate (2-10mg / hour IV)

120
Q

What is malignant hypertension and how is it treated?

A

BP > 220 / 120 + signs on fundoscopy (haemorrhages, exudates, papilloedema)

Reduce BP to 100-115 mmHg systolic over 4-6 hours using b-blockers (or alpha blockers if phaeochromocytoma is suspected)

121
Q

Treatment for hyperkalaemia

A

1) Actrapid (10 units in 100ml 20% dextrose) over 30 mins IV

2) Calcium gluconate

122
Q

What must you check before starting a patient on vancomycin?

A

Serum creatinine - vancomycin is renally cleared therefore clearance is reduced in patients in renal failure

123
Q

What must you check before starting a patient on a statin?

A

Serum ALT - statins are metabolised in the liver therefore must be used with care in patients with liver disease

CK - this should be checked in patients who have risk factors for myopathy

124
Q

What must you check before starting a patient on methotrexate?

A

LFTs - abnormal LFTs are CI for treatment with methotrexate due to risk of cirrhosis

125
Q

What must you check before starting a patient on olazapine (or other antipsychotics)?

A

Fasting blood glucose - risk of hyperglycaemia and diabetes

126
Q

What test should be run before starting a patient on amiodarone?

A

Chest X-ray due to risk of pulmonary toxicity

127
Q

What must you check before starting a patient on carbimazole?

A

Neutrophil count - risk of BM suppression (agranulocytosis) therefore must have good baseline

128
Q

Why should patients on carbimazole immediately report a sore throat?

A

Sore throat is a sign of infection and carbimazole has high risk of BM suppression

129
Q

What must you check before starting a patient on sodium valproate?

A

ALT - valproate is associated with hepatotoxicity therefore baseline and regular ALT is required

130
Q

What conditions are required for a patient to be started on clozapine and what are the monitoring requirements?

A

Shchizophrenic patients must have failed on two other antipsychotics before clozapine can be started

Monitoring includes:

  • Registration with clozapine monitoring services
  • Baseline full blood count and regular monitoring (weekly for 18 weeks then less frequently) due to risk of fatal agranulocytosis)
131
Q

What are the normal requirements for an average 70kg patient over 24 hours: fluid, sodium, potassium?

A

Fluid - 2.5 L
Sodium - 70 - 140 mmol
Potassium - 35 - 70 mmol

132
Q

What is the generic rule for fluid maintenance for NBM patients over 24 hours?

A

1 salty + 2 sweet:

  • 1L 0.9% saline + 20 mmol KCL (over 8 hours)
  • 2 x 1L 5% dextrose + 20 mmol KCL (over 8 hours each)
133
Q

What should you check before starting patients on IV fluids?

A

1) If there is any oral intake
2) Determine if there is any deficit or if this is solely maintenance
3) U&Es

134
Q

Which fluids should you use in the following situations:

1) Extracellular loss (eg: due to D&V)
2) Normal dehydration (eg: due to pyrexia)
3) Blood loss

A

1) Hartmann’s (if not available - saline)
2) Normal saline (if not available - dextrose with salts)
3) Blood

135
Q

With regards to fluids, describe the management of an acutely hypotensive patient

A

1) ABC approach
2) Fluid challenge - 250 - 500 ml saline (or Hartmann’s)
3) Monitor BP, UO and JVP

If the patient responds - put onto maintenance
If the patient initially responds but falls again - another challenge

136
Q

Which fluid should you NOT give to brain haemorrhage patients?

A

Dextrose - osmotic therefore can cause swelling

137
Q

Which fluid should you give to liver failure patients?

A

5% dextrose