Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

Denosumab

A

Monoclonal antibody
RANK-L
Alternative to bisphosphonates
Used in treatment of osteoporosis

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2
Q

Pirfenidone

A

Anti-fibrotic agent given in (idiopathic) lung fibrosis

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3
Q

Oxybutinin (type of drug, mode of action, usage, side effects)

A

Anti-muscarinics
Work on receptors in the bladder (bladder has M3 receptors but it is a non specific drug)
Treatment for urinary incontinence
Side effects - dry eyes, dry mouth, confusion, constipation

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4
Q

Phenylephrine

A

Drops
Dilates the pupil
Alpha 1 adrenergic agonist

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5
Q

Tropicamide

A

Eye drops
Dilates the pupil
Anti-muscarinic

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6
Q

Name the most common enzyme inducers (HINT: think PC BRAS)

A
Phenytoin
Carbamazepine 
Barbiturates 
Rifampicin 
Alcohol XS
Sulphonylureas
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7
Q

Name the most common enzyme inhibitors (HINT: think AO DEVICES)

A
Allopurinol 
Omeprazole 
Disulfiram
Erythromycin 
Valproate
Isoniazid 
Cirprofloxacin 
Ethanol - acute intoxication 
Sulphonamides
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8
Q

Name the drugs which should be stopped before surgery, and when. (HINT: think I LACK OP)

A

Insulin - variable

Lithium - 24 hours before

Anticoagulants - variable

COCP (and HRT) - 4 weeks

K-sparing diuretics - day of surgery

Oral hypoglycaemic - variable, usually from when patient is NBM to prevent hypo

Perindopril (ACEi) - day of surgery

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9
Q

Give some examples of drugs that require therapeutic drug monitoring

A
Lithium
Vancomycin 
Aminoglycosides 
Phenytoin 
Carbamazepine 
Digoxin 
Cyclosporine 
Theophylline
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10
Q

What is the maximum dose of paracetamol in 24 hours?

A

4G

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11
Q

Cyclizine - uses, dose and contraindications

A
Antiemetic
Prescribed if a patient is feeling nauseous
50mg 8 hourly 
IM/IV/P.O.
Do not use of patient had heart failure
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12
Q

Name the antiemetic and doss prescribed for patients that cannot have cyclizine (eg heart failure patients)

A

Metoclopramide 10mg 8 hourly

IM/IV

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13
Q

What is the target INR in patients on warfarin?

A

2.5

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14
Q

What is target INR in warfarin patients with metallic heart valves?

A

3.5

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15
Q

Furosemide / Bumetanide

  • MOA
  • SE
  • CI
A

Loop diuretics
SE - LOW Na, K, Ca + postural hypotension
CI - LOW K, anuric AKI

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16
Q

Bendrofluazide

  • MOA
  • SE
  • CI
A

Thiazide-like diuretics
SE - LOW Na, K + postural hypotension + inc glucose in DM
CI - LOW K, gout, severe CKD/AKI

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17
Q

Spironolactone

  • MOA
  • SE
  • CI
A

Aldosterone antagonist
SE - HIGH K + gynaecomastia
CI - Addison’s

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18
Q

What is the MOA of thrombolytics (such as stretokinase or tPA)?

A

Convert plasminogen to plasmic which assists in the breakdown of fibrin

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19
Q

Linsopril / Captopril / Ramipril

  • MOA
  • SE
  • CI
  • Interactions and monitoring
A
ACE inhibitor 
SE - HIGH K+, dry cough, angioedema 
CI - RAS, angioedema
Interactions - 
- ACEi + NSAIDs = RF
- ACEi + Diuretics = hypotension 
Monitoring - U&Es
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20
Q

Candesartan / Lorsartan

  • MOA
  • Indication
  • SE
A

ARB - angiotensin II receptor antagonist (blocker)
Indication - often reserved for those that cannot tolerate ACEi
SE - HIGH K+

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21
Q

List some of the indications for ACEi (or ARB) prescription

A
HF
HTN
Post-MI
Angina
Diabetic neuropathy
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22
Q

List some of the indications for B-blocker prescription

A
Angina 
HF (not severe)
Acute MI
Arrhythmias
HTN
Long QT
Anxiety 
Migraine prophylaxis
Glaucoma
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23
Q

Name two cardioselective b-blockers

A

Bisoprolol

Atenolol

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24
Q

Name two non-selective b-blockers

A

Propranolol

Labetolol

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25
Q

Which two b-blockers are lipophilic? What is the implication of this?

A

Metorpolol and Propranolol

More likely to cause nightmares as can cross the BBB

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26
Q

List two considerations when treating diabetics or pre-diabetics with b-blockers (HINT: think about drug interactions)

A

Increased risk of new onset DM if concurrent thiazide therapy
Increase risk of unnoticed hypoglycaemia if concurrent insulin therapy

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27
Q

Phentolamine

A

Alpha blocker - used mainly to treat HTN in phaeochromocytoma patients

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28
Q

Doxazosin

A

Alpha blocker - used mainly to treat BPH but has anti-HTN effects

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29
Q

Methyldopa

A

alpha-2 agonist - used mainly to treat HTN in pregnancy

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30
Q

Name two dihydropyridine CCBs

A

Nifedipine

Amlodipine

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31
Q

Name two non-dihydropiridine CCBs

A

Diltiazem

Verapamil

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32
Q

What is the main mode of action of dihydropyridine CCBs

A

Vasodilation - acts on arterial smooth muscle

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33
Q

What is the main mode of action of non-dihydropyridine CCBs

A

Negative ionotropic effect to decrease contractility

34
Q

List some of the indications for treatment with dihydropiridine CCBs

A

Angina

HTN

35
Q

List some of the indications for treatment with non-dihydropiridine CCBs

A

Angina
HTN
Arrhythmias

36
Q

What class of drugs are Class I Vaughan-Williams anti-arrhythmics?

A

Sodium channel blockers (i.e. local anaesthetics)

37
Q

Name one drug from each of the following Vaughan-Williams classes:

  • 1a
  • 1b
  • 1c
A
1a = procainamide
1b = lignocaine
1c = flecanide
38
Q

What are the MOAs for the Vaughan-Williams drugs (HINT: think “some block potassium channels)

A

Class I - Sodium channel blockers
Class II - B-blcokers
Class III - Potassium channel blockers
Class IV - Calcium channel blockers

39
Q

Name a Class 1a anti-arrhythmic drug and describe (a) how it works and (b) its indication

A

Procainamide - works by prolonging repolarisation thereby increasing action potential duration

Indication - ventricular arrhythmias

40
Q

Name a Class 1b anti-arrhythmic drug and describe (a) how it works and (b) its indication

A

Lignocaine - works by shortening reploarisation

Indication - post-MI ventricular arrhythmias

41
Q

Name a Class 1c anti-arrhythmic drug and give its indication

A

Flecanide - Wolff-Parkinson-White, acute AF

42
Q

Name some Class II anti-arrhythmic drugs

A

B-blockers = metoprolol, propranolol, atenolol

43
Q

Describe how Class II anti-arrhythmic drugs work

A

Increase refractory period at AVN thereby slowing conduction and preventing arrhythmias due to sympathetic discharge

44
Q

List some of the indications for Class II anti-arrhythmic drugs

A

Post-MI arrhythmias
AF - rate control
SVT

45
Q

Name some Class III anti-arrhythmic drugs

A

Potassium channel blockers - amiodarone, sotalol

46
Q

Describe how Class III anti-arrhythmic drugs work

A

Block potassium channels therby increasing the refractory period, this increases the QT interval

47
Q

List some of the indications for Class III anti-arrhythmic drugs

A

Ventricular arrhythmias
Supraventricular arrhythmias
Wolff-Parkinson-White

48
Q

Name some Class IV anti-arrhythmic drugs

A

Calcium channel blockers - non-dihydropyridines: verapamil, diltiazem

49
Q

Are Class IV anti-arrhythmic drugs dihydropyridines or not?

A

Non-dihydropyridine CCBs

50
Q

List some of the indications for Class IV anti-arrhythmic drugs

A

Prevention of SVt recurrence
AF - rate control
Acute SVT

51
Q

Describe how Class IV anti-arrhythmic drugs work

A

Slow AVN conduction

52
Q

How does digoxin work?

A

(1) Positive inotropic effect - increases force of contraction by inhibiting Na/K ATPase (therefore increasing their concentration)
(2) Negative chronotropic effect - increases HR at rest by increasing AVN refractory period

53
Q

How does adenosine cause transient AV block?

A

By hyperpolarising myocytes via A1 receptors in cardiac tissues

54
Q

Name a short-acting nitrate and (a) its MOA and (b) its indication

A

GTN

(a) vasodilation
(b) pain relief in angina and ACS

55
Q

Name a long-acting nitrate and (a) its MOA and (b) its indication

A

ISMN / ISDN (isosorbide mono/dinitrate)

(a) vasodilation
(b) CHF

56
Q

List some of the contraindications for nitrate prescription

A

Aortic stenosis
Mitral stenosis
Hypotension
Glaucoma

57
Q

Name a non-nitrate treatment for angina

A

Nicorandil

58
Q

What is a major contraindication for most anti-arrhythmic drugs?

A

Heart block

59
Q

List some of the indications for Rx with anti-platelet therapy

A

ACS
Secondary prevention in IHD, stroke, TIA, PVD
Primary prevention in those with high CVD risk and hypertension
Heart valve replacements

60
Q

How does aspirin work?

A

Aspirin is an irreversible non-selective COX inhibitor

(1) inhibition of COX enzymes
(2) prevention of platelet activation
(3) prevention of platelet adhesion and aggregation

61
Q

List some of the contraindications for aspirin Rx

A

Paediatrics (except Kawasaki’s)
Active peptic ulcer disease
Bleeding disorders

62
Q

How does clopidogrel work?

A

Irreversible adenosine receptor antagonist

(1) Binds to adenosine receptor
(2) Inhibits ADP-induced binding of fibrinogen to GP11b/IIIa

63
Q

List some of the indications for treatment with statins

A

Known CVD
Diabetes mellitus >40 years old
High 10 year CVD risk (>20%)

64
Q

How do statins work?

A

Statins are HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors - they block the rate limiting step in cholesterol synthesis

65
Q

What are the major (useful) downstream effects of statins?

A

Decrease LDL cholesterol
Increase HDL cholesterol
Decrease triglycerides

66
Q

Can statins be used in pregnancy?

A

No - pregnancy is CI

67
Q

What natural substance interacts with statins and should be avoided?

A

Grapefruit juice

68
Q

How do inhaled corticosteroids work?

A

They act over weeks to decrease inflammation and prevent long-term decline in lung function

69
Q

How do inhaled corticosteroids decrease inflammation?

A
Decrease cytokine production
Decrease prostaglandin synthesis
Decrease leukotriene synthesis
Decrease IgE secretion
Decrease leukocyte recruitment
70
Q

What is the MOA of theophylline?

A

Increases cAMP causing bronchodilation

71
Q

Which patients cannot be treated with antihistamines>

A

Hepatic Disease
Long QT
BPH
Closed angle glaucoma

72
Q

Name a non-sedating antihistamine

A

Certirizine

73
Q

Name a sedating antihistamine

A

Chlorphenamine (piriton)

74
Q

How do antihistamines work?

A

H1 (histamine 1 receptor) antagonists

75
Q

What kind of drug is montelukast and how does it work?

A

Leukotriene receptor antagonists - blocks leukotrienes and prevents inflammator response seen in asthma

76
Q

Name some osmotic laxatives

A

Laculose
Movicol / macrogol
Phosphate enema

77
Q

Name a stimulant laxative

78
Q

Is ramipril safe during pregnancy? If not, suggest a suitable alternative

A

No - ramipril is teratogenic

Labetolol is the first-line alternative

79
Q

How often is warfarin (INR) monitoring required?

A

Weekly until INR has stabilised, then monthly after that

80
Q

What affect does potassium have on warfarin?

A

Because of the MOA of warfarin (competitive binding for Na/K ATPase), changes to [K] can alter the drugs effectiveness:

  • High concentrations of potassium = limit drug effect
  • Low concentrations of potassium = augment drug effect
81
Q

List some drugs that interact with alcohol, explain the interaction

A

Metformin + alcohol = lactic acidosis

NSAIDs + alcohol = GI bleeds

Warfarin + alcohol = excessive anticogaulation

MAO inhibitors + alcohol = hypertensive crisis

Metronidazole + alcohol = sweating, nausea, vomiting

Opioids + alcohol = sedation

Benzos + alcohol = sedation

Barbiturates + alcohol = sedation

82
Q

Why should you not co-prescribe NSAIDs and ACEi?

A

NSAIDs have an effect on the afferent arteriole (cause constriction by inhibiting prostaglandins) thereby lowering renal perfusion

ACEi have an effect on the efferent arteriole (cause vasodilation) thereby lowering renal perfusion

Together, their effects are synergistic therefore renal perfusion is lowered to dangerous levels