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My MRCP > Treatment of cancer & Oncology Emergencies > Flashcards

Treatment of cancer & Oncology Emergencies Flashcards

1
Q

What systemic therapy can be offered for cancer

A

Chemotherapy
Biologics
Hormonal therapy
Immunotherapy

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2
Q

What are aims of Rx

A

Adjuvant
Neoadjuvant
Palliative
Curative or radical

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3
Q

What is adjuvant

A

After definite and curative rx to eradicate micromets

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4
Q

What is neoadjuvant

A

Adjuvant Rx given before to improve chance of cure

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5
Q

What are SE of chemotherapy

A 
Relate to rapidly dividing tissue as that is what is attacked
Alopecia
Mouth ulcer
Diarrhoea
Neutropenia
Thrombocytopenia
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6
Q

What are 7 major classes of systemic chemotherapy

A
  • Alkylating agent - disrupt DNA integrity
  • Anti-metabolites - disrupt DNA synthesis
  • Mitotic inhibitor (vinca alklaloid) disrupt microtubule function
  • Toposomerase inhibitor - regulate DNA unwinding
  • Platinums cause cross linking of DNA strands
  • Taxanes disrupt microtubule function
  • Anthracyclines intercalate between base pairs in RNA/DNA thereby preventing synthesis.
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7
Q

What are anti-metabolites

A
  • Purine (fludarabine)
  • Pyrimidine (5-fluorouracil,
  • gemcitabine)
  • Folate (methotrexate, pemetrexed)
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8
Q

what are aklyating agent

A

Cyclophosphamide
Ifosfamide

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9
Q

Give examples of mitotic inhibitor or vinca alklaloids

Name one common side effect

A
  • Vincristine
  • Vinblastine
  • SE: neuropathy
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10
Q

What is topoisomerase inhibitor / Ax

A

Etoposide
Irontecan

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11
Q

What is a common SE of alkylating agents

A

Haemorrhagic cystitis

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12
Q

What are common SEs of anthracyclines [3]

A

What are 2 examples: doxorubicin, epirubicin
Side effects
* Myelosuppression
* Cardiotoxicity
* Leukaemia (doxorubicin)

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13
Q

SE of bleomycin

A

Lung fibrosis

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14
Q

SE of Anti-metabolites

SE of methotrexate

A
  • Hepatotoxicity
  • Ulcerative stomatitis
  • Pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis (methotrexate).
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15
Q

SE of 5-FU

A

Myelosuppression
Mucositis
Dermatitis

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16
Q

What does vinblastine / docetaxel do and what are SE

A 
Inhibit formation of microtubule
Peripheral neuropathy
Paralytic ileus
Myelosuppression 
Neutropenia = docetaxel
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17
Q

SE of cisplatin

A

Ototoxicty
Peripheral neuropathy
HypoMg

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18
Q

SE of hydroxyurea

A

Myelosuppresson

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19
Q

What do biologic agents do and what are there categories

A

Inhibit orogenic stimulus that is driving cancer growth
Monoclonal Ab - imab
Tyrosine kinase inhibitors - inib

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20
Q

What is ritixumab useful for

A

Anti-CD20 so useful in B cell lymphoma which express

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21
Q

What has revolutionised CML Philadelphia chromosome +ve

A

Imatinib

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22
Q

What causes ligand inactivation

A

Bevacilumab

Stops VEGF which is over expressed in many cancer

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23
Q

What cause receptor inactivation

A

Tratuzumab against HER-2

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24
Q

What hormone therapy in breast

A

Anti-oestrogen - tamoxigen
Aromatose inhibitor
GnRH agonist (goserelin)

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25
Q

What hormone therapy in prostate cancer

A

Androgen suppression - goserelin or orchidectomy

Anti-androgen

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26
Q

What hormone therapy in endometrial

A

Progesterone

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27
Q

What is systemic immunotherapy

A

Stimulates whole immune system
Interferon
Interluekin

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28
Q

What are toxicity interferon

A 
Flu like
Nausea
Lethargy
Anorexia
LFT
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29
Q

What are toxicity IL

A

Hypotension
Renal failure
Cardiac - may need ITU

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30
Q

How do many cancers evade detection

A

Suppress T cell function through PD-1 on T cell or PDL-1 on tumour

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31
Q

What Ab target this

A

PD-1 Ab - nivolumab / pemprolizumab

PDL-1 Ab - atezolizumab

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32
Q

What are SE related to overactive T cells which are key in killing cancer

A 
Dry / itchy skin = most common
N+V
Decreased appettite
Diarrhoea 
Fatigue
SOB
Dry cough
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33
Q

What is radiation dose

A

Energy deposited per unit mass = absorbed dose (Gray)

1 gray = 1 joule of energy in 1kg

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34
Q

What is radiation tolerance

A

Amount of radiation tissue can receive and still remain functional

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35
Q

What is tolerance dose

A

Dose that there is a high probability of serious Rx compliction

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36
Q

What is external beam

A

Most common

Linear accelerator delivers X-ray

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37
Q

What is sealed source

A

Radioactive need or wile implanted into or next to cancer for extremely high dose

38
Q

What does a PET scan do

A

Uses FDG radio tracer allowing 3D image of metabolic activity / uptake of glucose
Combines images with CT

39
Q

Radiotherapy early side effects [7]

A 
Tiredness
Skin reactions eg erythema, ulceration
Mucositis
Nausea and vomiting, diarrhea
Dysphagia
Cystitis
Bone marrow suppression (large areas)
40
Q

Targeting radiotherapy

Describe the difference between conformal radiotherapy and intensity modulated radiotherapy.

A
  • Conformal radiotherapy- the target volume and normal tissues are delineated on a CT scan. The position of the radiotherapy beams is then chosen to optimise the radiation dose to the tumour and limit radiation to normal tissue thus reducing toxicity. Lead shielding may be used to help reduce the dose to normal tissues.
  • Intensity modulated radiotherapy (IMRT) uses advanced computer programmes to modulate intensity of the radiation beam at different sites, helps to shape the radiation beam more accurately, particularly around concave structures.
41
Q

What is stereotactic radiotherapy and when is it used?

A
  • Stereotactic radiotherapy involves combining highly conformal radiotherapy, usually with multiple radiation beams, with very precise treatment delivery.
  • This type of radiotherapy gives a high dose of radiation in a small number of treatments (≤5).
  • In tumours that are small and well-defined, stereotactic radiotherapy may result in long-term efficacy (e.g. small brain metastases, liver metastases).
42
Q

What is most common cause of spinal cord compression [6]

A 
Breast
Lung
Prostate
Renal 
Thyroid
Myeloma
43
Q

Where in spine is affected [2]

A

** vertebral collapse or extradural vertebral body mets.
** MSCC occurs in up to 5% of patients with cancer, and is the presenting feature in up to 20% of patients with an underlying malignancy.
* The risk of MSCC is higher in cancers with a known propensity for bone metastases

usually thoracic spine (can also get due to tumour extension from vertebral body)

44
Q

Presentation of malignant spinal cord compression [4]

A
  • thoracic back pain in a radicular distribution worsening over preceding weeks or months
  • worse on coughing, sneezing and weight bearing, or lying flat, localised spinal tenderness
  • bladder/bowel dysfunction
  • new weakness climbing stairs
45
Q

If above L1

A

UMN signs + sensory

46
Q

Immediate management [5]

A
  • lie flat until spinal stability determined
  • catheter if retention
  • prophylactic DALTEPARIN
  • bisphosphonates in breast cancer or myeloma
  • DEXAMETHASONE + PPI
  • Urgent MRI 24 hours and spinal surgical referral
47
Q

Definitive management of Malignant SCC

A

Decompression and stabilisation

= gold standard

48
Q

When is radiotherapy and what type is used for MSCC?

A

External beam radiotherapy represents the treatment of choice when surgical decompression is not possible and should be commenced as soon as possible.

49
Q

How do you investigate spinal cord compression [4]

A

MRI whole spine = gold standard
Isotope bone
FBC, U+E, LFT, Ca, PSA, LDH
Myeloma screen

50
Q

What is most common cause of SVC obstruction [3]
What is the test used in examination to identify?

A

SCLC
NSCLC
Lymphoma

Pemberton’s test: lifting arms above head for >1 min causes facial plethora or cyanosis, elevated JVP and inspiratory stridor

51
Q

Superior vena cava obstruction

Aetiology of SVCO

A

Superior vena cava obstruction (SVCO) occurs when there is obstruction of blood flow though the superior vena cava (SVC) due to
* internal thrombosis, tumoural invasion or external compression.
* The consequent increase in venous pressure in the upper body results in tissue oedema with airway obstruction and cerebral swelling.
* If gradual compression of the SVC occurs then development of collateral vessels draining into the inferior vena cava system may compensate for the obstruction
* Central venous access devices are also a risk factor; thrombotic occlusions are more frequently related to PICC lines due to inadequate catheter tip placement than portacath/Mediport devices.

52
Q

SVC obstruction
Symptoms [6]
Signs [4]

A

Symptoms:

  • SOB
  • Facial swelling/head fullness
  • Arm swelling
  • Dysphagia
  • Orthopnoea
  • Headache

Signs:

  • Distention of neck and chest wall veins
  • Fixed elevated JVP
  • Plethora/cyanosis
  • Peripheral cyanosis
53
Q

How do you investigate SVC obstruction [4]

A

CXR
Contrast enhanced CT is imaging modality of choice
Doppler ultrasound - thrombus in axillary/subclavian veins
FBC, clotting profile (extensive thrombosis assoc with platelet sequestration)

54
Q

How do you manage SVC obstruction [3]

depends on the cause

A
  • caused by lines then anticoagulation
  • shrink mass and reduce compression
  • unknown primary then biopsy
  • symptomatic measures: dexamethasone, diuretics, sit up to reduce orthostatic pressure.
55
Q

What is most common life threatening disorder associated with malignancy

A

Hyperclacaemia

Bad prognostic indicator

56
Q

Two mechanisms of hypercalcaemia in cancer

A 
Bone mets increasing osteolytic activity 
- Breast
- MM
Or production of PTH by tumour
- SCC
- T cell lymhpoma
57
Q

What are the features of hypercalcaemia [6]

A

‘bones, stones, abdominal groans and psychic moans’

  • polydipsia, polyuria
  • peptic ulceration/constipation/pancreatitis
  • bone pain/fracture
  • renal stones
  • depression
  • hypertension
58
Q

What can hypercalcaemia be mistaken for

A

Terminal feature of cancer

59
Q

What does chemo result in

A

Neutropenia

Often day 7-14 days but can be 6 weeks

60
Q

What causes increase risk

A

<1 x10 ^9 but extreme = -.5

61
Q

What is neutropenic sepsis

A

Evidence of sepsis - hypo / tachy
Neutrophil <1
With or without fever

62
Q

How do you investigate

A 
FBC, U+E, LFT, CRP
Bone bloods
Coag if DIC suspected 
Blood culture 
MSSU
Stool culture if diarrhoea
Throat swab
Sputum culture
Skin swab 
CXR
LP / CT 
ECG
63
Q

How do you manage [5]

A 
As emergency 
IV access
Fluid resus
O2
Broad spec Ax
64
Q

Neutropenic sepsis

Management of persistent pyrexia
Management of prolonged neutropenia

A
  • If persistent pyrexia occurs despite appropriate treatment, second-level investigations may be considered, for example, HRCT scan of the chest ± broncho-alveolar lavage.
  • (e.g. haematopoietic transplant patients) who are at risk of fungal infections, and who do not respond to broad spectrum antibiotics, but who remain febrile after 3–5 days should receive empiric anti-fungal therapy
65
Q

When do you change to oral [2]

A

3 days IV Ax and improving

Oral ciprofloaxicin

66
Q

What can you consider

A

G-CSF

reduce duration of neutropenia and length of hospital stay.

67
Q

Tumor lysis syndrome Ax

Name 4 cancers that are high risk of TLS, 4 risk factors.

A
  • Tumour lysis syndrome (TLS) occurs when a large number of rapidly proliferating cells die leading to release of high volumes of intracellular components such as nucleic acids and other intracellular metabolites.
  • TLS usually occurs during the first cycle of chemotherapy, but may arise spontaneously.
  • The malignancies that are most commonly affected are high-grade haematological malignancies
  • Other risk factors include high LDH, bulky disease, high white cell count, high uric acid and pre-existing renal impairment.
  • Burkitt lymphoma
  • Leukemia
  • Myeloma
  • Germ cell tumours
68
Q

TLS mx [3]

Prevention [2]

A
  • IV RASBURICASE
  • CALCIUM GLUCONATE (if symptomatic hypocalcaemia)
  • renal dialysis if intractable

Prevention
IV ALLOPURINIOL or IV RASBURICASE (recombinant urate oxidase which metabolises uric acid to allantoin)

69
Q

SVCO

Emergency management of SVCO if patients are at high risk of sudden respiratory failure or symptomatic cerebral oedema

A

endovascular stent placement will provide more immediate relief of pressure than radiotherapy or chemotherapy.

70
Q

What is the Cairo-Bishop criteria

Diagnosis of TLS

A

The Cairo–Bishop criteria for diagnosis of biochemical TLS requires the presence of ≥2 of the following abnormalities in a patient with cancer, or undergoing treatment for cancer, within 3 days prior to and up to 7 days after initiation of treatment:
Uric acid, potassium, phosphate, calcium if 25% increase from baseline.

71
Q

Testicular cancer & biomarkers

Seminomas
Non-seminoma

A

seminomas: seminomas: hCG may be elevated in around 20%
non-seminomas: AFP and/or beta-hCG are elevated in 80-85%

72
Q

Psoriasis treatment

What kind of skin cancer is caused by psoralen + ultraviolet A light therapy?

A

PUVA therapy, which involves the use of psoralen (a photosensitizing medication) and ultraviolet A light, has been associated with an increased risk of squamous cell carcinoma. This is due to the mutagenic effect of UVA radiation on keratinocytes when used in conjunction with psoralen. The risk is particularly high in patients who have received a high cumulative dose of PUVA or those who have fair skin.

73
Q

What is the most common type of Hodgkins lymphoma?

A

Nodular sclerosing

74
Q

Management of gastric MALT lymphoma

A

Gastric MALT (mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue) lymphoma is a type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the mucosal lymphoid tissue of the stomach. It has been found to be strongly associated with chronic H. pylori infection, which induces a local inflammatory response and subsequent development of MALT in the gastric mucosa. According to UK guidelines, initial treatment for localised gastric MALT lymphoma should be aimed at eradicating H. pylori, irrespective of the patient’s H. pylori status. This can lead to regression of the tumour in a significant proportion of patients.

75
Q

Acanthosis Nigricans

A

Associated Malignancy: Gastric Cancer

76
Q

Acquired Ichthyosis

A

Associated Malignancy: Lymphoma

77
Q

Acquired Hypertrichosis Lanuginosa

A

Associated Malignancies: Gastrointestinal and Lung Cancer

Acquired hypertrichosis lanuginosa is also referred to as ‘hypertrichosis lanuginosa acquisita’, ‘paraneoplastic hypertrichosis lanuginosa’ and ‘malignant down’.

78
Q

Dermatomyositis

A

Associated Malignancies: Ovarian and Lung Cancer

79
Q

Erythema Gyratum Repens

A

Associated Malignancy: Lung Cancer

Erythema gyratum repens is a rare paraneoplastic type of annular erythema with a distinctive figurate ‘wood-grain’ appearance. It has a strong association with malignancy.

80
Q

Erythroderma

A

Associated Malignancy: Lymphoma

81
Q

Migratory Thrombophlebitis

A

Associated Malignancy: Pancreatic Cancer

82
Q

Necrolytic Migratory Erythema

Necrolytic migratory erythema may affect any site but it most often affects the genital and anal region, the buttocks, groin and lower legs. The rash fluctuates in severity. Initially there is a ring-shaped red area that blisters, erodes and crusts over. It can be quite itchy and painful. As it heals, it may leave behind a brown mark.

A

Associated Malignancy: Glucagonoma

83
Q

Pyoderma Gangrenosum (Bullous and Non-bullous Forms)

A

Associated Malignancy: Myeloproliferative Disorders

84
Q

Sweet’s Syndrome

Acute febrile neutrophilic dermatosis is an uncommon skin condition characterised by fever and inflamed or blistered skin and mucosal lesions. Neutrophilic dermatoses are autoinflammatory conditions often associated with systemic disease.

A

Associated Malignancy: Haematological Malignancy (e.g., Myelodysplasia - tender, purple plaques)

85
Q

Tylosis

Focal keratodermas are palmoplantar keratodermas (PPK) that involve only some areas of the palms or soles, usually over pressure points. Some types are associated with abnormalities in organs other than the skin.

A

Associated Malignancy: Oesophageal Cancer

86
Q

Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN)
MEN type 1
MEN type IIa
MEN type IIb

Describe the genetic mutation of each

A
87
Q

Describe MEN type I

A

3 P’s
Parathyroid (95%): hyperparathyroidism due to parathyroid hyperplasia
Pituitary (70%)
Pancreas (50%): e.g. insulinoma, gastrinoma (leading to recurrent peptic ulceration)

Also: adrenal and thyroid

Most common presentation = hypercalcaemia

88
Q

Describe MEN type II and MEN type IIb

A
89
Q

cytogenetics of haematological malignancies
?CML
APML
AML - poor prognosis
NHL

A

BCR-ABL fusion gene

APML Ch 15, 17

Ch5 carries poor prognosis in AML

Ch 9 and 14 translocation - NHL

90
Q

Paraneoplastic features of lung cancer
squamous cell?
small cell?

A

Paraneoplastic features of lung cancer
squamous cell: PTHrp, clubbing, HPOA
small cell: ADH, ACTH, Lambert-Eaton syndrome

My MRCP (43 decks)

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