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Trauma PP Flashcards

1
Q

The following wounds should not be closed by primary (MCQ)

  1. intent Inflamed wound
  2. Bite wound
  3. Gunshot wound
  4. Older than 24 hours
A

All of the above

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2
Q

Laparotomy is not mandatory in penetrating abdominal injury in the following situations

  1. There is no such situation
  2. Normal white blood cell count
  3. No free air in the stomach
  4. If the greater omentum closes the wound
  5. If the wound is close to the liver
A
  1. There is no such situation
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3
Q

How do you preserve an amputated organ in the field?

  1. Sterile physiological solution
  2. In sterile gauze and put in a waterproof plastic bag which is placed in an other plastic bag containing ice water
  3. In betadine solution or any other disinfectant
  4. In the patient’s pocket
  5. None of the above
A
  1. In sterile gauze and put in a waterproof plastic bag which is placed in an other plastic bag containing ice water
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4
Q

The following statements are true about pertrochanteric fractures (MCQ)

  1. Intracapsular fracture
  2. Symptoms are that the affected limb is shortened, is in external rotation, the patient cannot actively raise it
  3. Avascular necrosis is a common sequelae
  4. Primary stabilization can be done with skin or skeletal extension
A

2 and 4

  1. Symptoms are that the affected limb is shortened, is in external rotation, the patient cannot actively raise it
  2. Primary stabilization can be done with skin or skeletal extension
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5
Q

Weber type classification of ankle fractures are graded as to how the level of the fibular fracture relates to the the syndesmosis (1), therefore type A fractures are supination injuries and type B and C fractures are pronation injuries (2)

a. 1 and 2 are correct and related
b. 1 and 2 are correct but not related
c. 1 is true, 2 is false
d. 1 is false, 2 is true
e. 1 and 2 are both false

A

b. 1 and 2 are correct but not related

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6
Q

The following statements are true about acute compartment syndrome: (MCQ)

  1. Early symptoms are pain, paresthesia, tenderness upon muscle extension
  2. Typically the injury of the thoracic cavity necessitating drainage
  3. Treated by acute decompression by performing fasciotomy
  4. Often due to an intercostal artery bleeding
A

1 and 3

  1. Early symptoms are pain, paresthesia, tenderness upon muscle extension
  2. Treated by acute decompression by performing fasciotomy
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7
Q

Which of the following is innervated by the median nerve? (MCQ)

  1. M. Abductor pollicis
  2. M. Flexor pollicis
  3. M. Flexor digitorum profundus
  4. M. Opponens pollicis
A

All

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8
Q

What kind of injuries would you look for when you find a deep laceration wound at the flexor surface a finger? (MCQ)

  1. Flexor tendon injury
  2. Extensor tendon injury
  3. Digital nerve injury
  4. Nail injury
A

1 and 3

  1. Flexor tendon injury
  2. Digital nerve injury
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9
Q

An elderly woman is brought into the ER after she fell and a hip fracture is suspected. She cannot bear weight on the affected side. There is no visible fracture on the x-ray. What to do? (MCQ)

  1. Painkillers are given, no further treatment is needed
  2. MRI because occult primary fractures often does not show up on x-ray
  3. Send her to rehabilitation, no further treatment is needed
  4. Do a follow up x-ray in 10 days, meanwhile give her pain med and try to mobilize the patient
A

4

  1. Do a follow up x-ray in 10 days, meanwhile give her pain med and try to mobilize the patient
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10
Q

After dull lumbar injury, the CT exam shows laceration and rupture of the left kidney. The kidney must be removed. The following exams are needed before surgery (multiple)

  1. Ultrasound
  2. Angiography
  3. MRI
  4. Urography to check the function of the opposite kidney
A

4

  1. Urography to check the function of the opposite kidney
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11
Q

Functional hand position: (MCQ)

  1. The MP joints are bent in 60-90 degrees
  2. The wrist is in 90 degree flection
  3. The PIP joints are bent in 20-30 degree flexion
  4. The wrist is in 30 degree ulnar duction
A

1 and 3

  1. The MP joints are bent in 60-90 degrees
  2. The PIP joints are bent in 20-30 degree flexion
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12
Q

Intraosseous infusion into the bone marrow (MCQ)

  1. Is appropriate for the urgent administration of medicine and liquids when venous access is not possible
  2. Is the recommended way for blood transfusion in infants
  3. Is usually accessed through the tibia
  4. Is a routine daily method for venous access in adults
A

1 and 3

  1. Is appropriate for the urgent administration of medicine and liquids when venous access is not possible
  2. Is usually accessed through the tibia
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13
Q

Which statement(s) is/are true about pediatric trauma? (MCQ)

  1. Not different than adult fracture care
  2. After conservative treatment, children experience more severe stiffness of joints
  3. There are more surgical indications than in adults
  4. After epiphyseal separations, the child needs to be monitored long enough to diagnose a possible growth arrest
A

4

  1. After epiphyseal separations, the child needs to be monitored long enough to diagnose a possible growth arrest
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14
Q

Treatment principles of pediatric diaphyseal injuries are (MCQ)

  1. Do not stimulate or damage the periosteum and the function of the epiphyseal cartilage
  2. Kill the macromovements
  3. Elastic stable intramedullary nailing is a treatment possibility
  4. Open reduction is mandatory to restore rotational and lateral dislocation
A

1, 2 and 3

  1. Do not stimulate or damage the periosteum and the function of the epiphyseal cartilage
  2. Kill the macromovements
  3. Elastic stable intramedullary nailing is a treatment possibility
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15
Q

What is the Wallace rule?

  1. Classification of lateral malleolar fractures
  2. Provides a quick, approximation of the blood loss in polytrauma
  3. Provides a quick, approximation of the area of skin burnt
  4. Determines the survivorship of spine injury
  5. . Advice for wound treatment
A
  1. Provides a quick, approximation of the area of skin burnt
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16
Q

What is true for pathological bone healing? (MCQ)

  1. It can be a result of poor blood supply
  2. Non-union can be treated by improving fixation, removing the end layer of bone to provide raw ends for healing, and the use of bone grafts
  3. Patients who smoke have a higher incidence of non-union
  4. If non-union is still evident 2 months post injury, it will remain unhealed without specific treatment
A

1, 2 and 3

  1. It can be a result of poor blood supply
  2. Non-union can be treated by improving fixation, removing the end layer of bone to provide raw ends for healing, and the use of bone grafts
  3. Patients who smoke have a higher incidence of non-union
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17
Q

Which of the following is/are typical for concussion (commotio cerebri) (MCQ)

  1. Blow to the head
  2. Transient loss of consciousness
  3. Complete recovery
  4. Incomplete recovery
A

1, 2 and 3

  1. Blow to the head
  2. Transient loss of consciousness
  3. Complete recovery
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18
Q

What is forbidden to do with a bite wound?

  1. Clean up the wound
  2. Excise the wound
  3. Give antibiotics
  4. Suture the wound
  5. Use plaster
A
  1. Suture the wound
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19
Q

Which of thefollowing is/are true concerning distal fractures of the radius? (MCQ)

  1. Smith fracture is an extraarticular, palmar dislocated fracture of the radius
  2. Barthon fracture is an intraarticular fracture of the radius
  3. Colles fracture is an extraarticular, dorsal dislocated fracture of the radius
  4. Rolando fracture Is an intraarticular, palmar dislocated fracture of the radius
A

1, 2 and 3

  1. Smith fracture is an extraarticular, palmar dislocated fracture of the radius
  2. Barthon fracture is an intraarticular fracture of the radius
  3. Colles fracture is an extraarticular, dorsal dislocated fracture of the radius
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20
Q

Which of the following is/are true for avulsion fractures? (MCQ)

  1. They are caused by traction, a bony fragment is torn off by a tendon or a ligament
  2. They are fractures in cancellous bones as a result of compression
  3. Examples include Weber A fracture, olecranon fracture
  4. They are typical for distal radius fractures
A

1 and 3

  1. They are caused by traction, a bony fragment is torn off by a tendon or a ligament
  2. Examples include Weber A fracture, olecranon fracture
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21
Q

Which is the first phase of the bone healing process?

  1. Remodeling phase
  2. Reparative phase
  3. Inflammatory phase
  4. Catabolic phase None of the above
A
  1. Inflammatory phase
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22
Q

What are the solid signs of bone fracture? (MCQ)

  1. Pathological immobility
  2. Pain
  3. Crepitation
  4. Elastic fixation
A

1, 2 and 3

  1. Pathological immobility
  2. Pain
  3. Crepitation
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23
Q

The following statements are true about knee dislocations (MCQ)

  1. Relative rare
  2. Acute reduction is needed
  3. Circulation has to be controlled
  4. Early or late ligament reconstruction is needed
A

All

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24
Q

The following statements apply for femur diaphysis fractures: (MCQ)

  1. Since the injury is intracapsular, the blood loss is minimal
  2. Best treatment is intramedullary nailing
  3. Conservative treatment is recommended
  4. External fixation is an option in case of polytraumatized patients (ARDS etc)
A

2 and 4

  1. Best treatment is intramedullary nailing
  2. External fixation is an option in case of polytraumatized patients (ARDS etc)
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25
Q

The following statement(s) is/are true about plaster application (MCQ)
1. Circular plaster should be applied in case of fresh trauma and postoperatively
2. After applying a cast on a fresh trauma patient, observation is necessary, especially for the symptoms of
compartment syndrome, pain, capillary filling, sensation, range of motion
3. Use hot water, so that the cast can be remodeled for a longer time
4. Thrombosis prophylaxis is necessary in lower extremity casts

A

2 and 4

  1. After applying a cast on a fresh trauma patient, observation is necessary, especially for the symptoms of
    compartment syndrome, pain, capillary filling, sensation, range of motion
  2. Thrombosis prophylaxis is necessary in lower extremity casts
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26
Q

Case with dull thoracic injury: the patient is battling for breath, has dilated cervical veins. What do you think? (MCQ)

  1. Injury to the aorta
  2. Tension PTX
  3. Tracheal injury
  4. Pericardial tamponade
A

2 and 4

  1. Tension PTX
  2. Pericardial tamponade
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27
Q

What is the correct treatment of femoral neck fractures? (MCQ)

  1. Bed rest for 6 weeks
  2. Prosthesis implantation
  3. Extension for 3 weeks followed by plaster application
  4. Acute osteosynthesis (screwing)
A

2 and 4

  1. Prosthesis implantation
  2. Acute osteosynthesis (screwing)
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28
Q

The following can be determined by the Glasgow coma scale (MCQ)

  1. Motor response
  2. Verbal response
  3. Eye opening
  4. Pupillary response
A

1, 2 and 3

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29
Q

How can you diagnose a spleen injury? (MCQ)

  1. Ultrasound
  2. CT
  3. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage
  4. Scintigraphy
A

1, 2 and 3

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30
Q

A case of dull abdominal trauma. CT shows a 3cm intraparenchymal hematoma in the spleen. What to do? (MCQ)

  1. Splenectomy as soon as possible
  2. Laparoscopy
  3. Observe for 48 hours and do a follow-up CT
  4. 3 weeks of observation with ultrasound, labs and CT if needed
A

4

  1. 3 weeks of observation with ultrasound, labs and CT if needed
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31
Q

What is a red line on the lower arm after a hand infection

  1. Sepsis
  2. Lymphangitis
  3. Phlegmone
  4. Thrombophlebitis
  5. Bacteremia
A
  1. Lymphangitis
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32
Q

What injuries are typical for elderly age? (MCQ)

  1. Femoral neck fracture
  2. Distal radius fracture
  3. Pertrochanteric fracture
  4. Tear of the medial meniscus
A

1, 2 and 3

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33
Q

What is the name of the partial fracture of the periosteum in childhood resulting only in bending?

  1. Pathological fracture
  2. Stress fracture
  3. Pseudoarticulation
  4. Greenstick fracture
  5. Prefracture state
A
  1. Greenstick fracture
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34
Q

Where is “no mans land”?

  1. At the fingertips
  2. In the palm
  3. At the dorsal surface of the hand
  4. Along the hand’s flexor tendon sheaths
  5. At the volar surface of the wrist
A
  1. Along the hand’s flexor tendon sheaths
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35
Q

What is the proper treatment of simple rib fractures? (MCQ)

  1. Bed rest
  2. Antibiotics
  3. Bandage of the broken rib
  4. Pain medication, expectorants
A

4

  1. Pain medication, expectorants
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36
Q

The following is true for reamed intramedullary nailing (MCQ)
1. There is a risk of fat embolism
2. Exhaustion fracture of the implant occurs more often than in case of unreamed intramedullary nailing
3. Promotes upsetting at the fracture site and results in greater stability than unreamed nailing due to better
fitting index
4. It is used for fixation of lumbar vertebral fractures

A

1 and 3

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37
Q

What to do in case of a wound infection?

  1. Antibiotics
  2. Wet wrapping
  3. The treatment depends on the patient’s body temperature
  4. Remove a few stitches
  5. Early wound exposure, open treatments, bacterial culture
A
  1. Early wound exposure, open treatments, bacterial culture
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38
Q

Definition of polytrauma (MCQ)
1. The same cause of injury leads to the lesion of multiple body regions or organs
2. At least 5 persons are injured at the same time
3. Multiple extremities are injured at the same time
4. Injury of one or more body cavities accompanied by limb injury. The accompanying injuries aggravate the
leading injury making it life threatening

A

4?

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39
Q

What type of hand immobilization is NOT correct? (MCQ)

  1. Fist bandage
  2. Finger immobilization by aluminum splint
  3. Volar plaster splint
  4. MP joints splinted in extended position
A

All

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40
Q

What belongs to the rotator cuff? (MCQ)

  1. Supraspinatus tendon
  2. Biceps long head tendon
  3. Subscapularis tendon
  4. Quadriceps tendon
A

1 and 3

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41
Q

What is Hangman’s fracture?

  1. Odontoid fracture
  2. C1 fracture
  3. Compression fracture of C3-C7
  4. C7 spinal process fracture
  5. C2 pedicle fracture
A
  1. C2 pedicle fracture
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42
Q

Traumatic hip dislocation, which statement is true? (MCQ)

  1. Posterior dislocation is the most common form
  2. It can be complicated with acetabular posterior wall fracture
  3. Femur head fracture may occur
  4. Late complications include aseptic femoral head necrosis
A

All

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43
Q

Following chest trauma, there is crepitation on the chest wall. What is the most likely cause?

  1. Anaerobe infection
  2. Subcutaneous emphysema
  3. Tension PTX
  4. Air is in the subcutaneous tissues after lidocaine injection
  5. Hematoma and PTX
A
  1. Subcutaneous emphysema
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44
Q

What kind of diagnostic procedure is appropriate to localize an intracranial bleed? (MCQ)

  1. CSF exam
  2. Glasgow coma scale
  3. Fundus examination
  4. CT
A
  1. CT
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45
Q

What cranial injury is the most urgent?

  1. Scalp laceration
  2. Epidural hematoma
  3. Contusion
  4. Intracerebral bleeding
  5. Impression cranial fracture
A
  1. Epidural hematoma
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46
Q

What is the therapy of upper thoracic vertebral fractures with no neurological symptoms, and less than 50% vertebral compressions?

  1. Pain relief, early mobilization
  2. Surgery
  3. Crutchfield extension
  4. Decompression
  5. Immobilization by plaster
A
  1. Pain relief, early mobilization
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47
Q

Case: explosion, burn wounds on face and chest, hoarseness and coughing. What to do FIRST?

  1. Intubate due to burn injury of the trachea
  2. Intubate because of serious lung damage
  3. Don’t intubate, give IV fluids due to the burns
  4. Don’t intubate, the breathing is satisfactory
  5. Give major pain relief (morphine)
A
  1. Intubate due to burn injury of the trachea
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48
Q

NO neurological focal signs are seen in

  1. Concussion
  2. Contusion
  3. Epidural hematoma
  4. Subdural hematoma
  5. Intracerebral bleeding
A
  1. Concussion

Concussion - LOC and negative CT

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49
Q

Possible complications of diaphragm rupture (MCQ)

  1. Herniation of the abdominal organs
  2. Abdominal bleeding
  3. Cardiorespiratory failure symptoms
  4. Obstruction, strangulation
50
Q

Significance of soft tissue injury around the fracture

  1. Risk of inflammation
  2. Prolonged healing
  3. Leads to pseudo-articulation
  4. Leads to osteoporosis No significance
A
  1. Prolonged healing
51
Q

What is RARE in case of a flail chest?

  1. Paradoxical breathing motion
  2. Increased dead space
  3. Atelectasis
  4. Productive coughing
  5. Decreased maximal breathing volume
A
  1. Productive coughing
52
Q

The following statements are true in case of anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) rupture (MCQ)

  1. The most common ligament injury acquired during sport
  2. Posterior drawer sign is positive
  3. MRI might be useful in diagnostics, particularly in chronic injuries
  4. Acute surgical treatment is direct suture
A

1 and 3

  1. The most common ligament injury acquired during sport
  2. MRI might be useful in diagnostics, particularly in chronic injuries
53
Q

A 8-year old boy has a splenic rupture with intraparenchymal hematoma diagnosed on CT. He got 100mL Ringer lactate, BP is 100/60, and pulse is 100. What should we do?

  1. Peritoneal lavage
  2. Splenectomy
  3. Laparotomy and splenic reconstruction
  4. Observe and re-examine the patient
  5. Outpatient treatment, follow-up in one week
A
  1. Observe and re-examine the patient
54
Q

Which of the following is/are true concerning shock? (MCQ)

  1. Inadequate tissue perfusion and oxygenation
  2. Does not result from isolated brain injury
  3. Hemorrhage is the most common cause
  4. Vasopressors are contraindicated
55
Q

Avascular necrosis is common in the following fractures: (MCQ)

  1. Talus
  2. Os scaphoideum
  3. Femoral neck
  4. Proximal tibia
A

1, 2 and 3

56
Q

Which of the following belong to extensor system injuries of the knee? (MCQ)

  1. Quadriceps rupture
  2. Unhappy triad (medial meniscus rupture, ACL and LCL)
  3. Patellar ligament rupture
  4. PCL rupture
57
Q

What might be the treatment of closed transversal tibial and fibular diaphysis fractures in adults? (MCQ)

  1. Reduction and plaster immobilization for 8-12 weeks
  2. Cerclage
  3. Intramedullary nails
  4. Extension for 3 weeks and then cast for 8-10 weeks
58
Q

What is true for a Pilon fracture?

  1. Intraarticular fracture of the distal tibia
  2. Dislocated fracture of the first metacarpal bone
  3. The first cervical vertebral fracture
  4. Special calcaneus fracture
  5. Sacrum fracture
A
  1. Intraarticular fracture of the distal tibia
59
Q

Which of the following does not belong to the primary survey of a severely injured patient?

  1. Airway + C-spine
  2. Breathing/ventilation/oxygenation
  3. Circulation – stop the bleeding, restore volume
  4. Drug test
  5. Exposure/environment/body temperature
60
Q

Which of the following does not belong to the secondary survey of a severely injured patient?

  1. Allergies
  2. Medications
  3. Last menstruation
  4. Past illnesses
  5. Events/environment
A
  1. Last menstruation
61
Q

Which is/are considered definitive airways?

  1. Nasopharyngeal tube
  2. Laryngeal mask airway (LMA)
  3. Bad and mask ventilation
  4. Orotracheal tube with inflated cuff
A
  1. Orotracheal tube with inflated cuff
62
Q

Which of the following belong to the primary survey of a severely injured patient? (MCQ)

  1. Removal of foreign body obstructing the airway
  2. Percussion of the thorax
  3. Assessment of pulse
  4. Obtaining C-spine, chest and pelvic radiographs
63
Q

hich of the following is/are life threatening chest injuries? (MCQ)

  1. Traumatic aortic injury
  2. Massive hemothorax
  3. Tension PTX
  4. Flail chest
64
Q

Which treatments is/are recommended for a simple rib fracture? (MCQ)

  1. Antibiotics
  2. Physiotherapy
  3. Fixation with adhesive plasters
  4. NSAIDs and expectorants
A
  1. NSAIDs and expectorants
65
Q

Which of the following are true concerning abdominal compartment syndrome? (MCQ)

  1. Intraabdominal pressure rises
  2. It is usually due to retro-infraperitoneal bleeding
  3. It leads to deterioration of abdominal blood flow
  4. It leads to toxinema, SIRS, MOF
66
Q

What is the desired procedure in case of compartment syndrome?

  1. Rest, ice, compression, elevation, NSAID
  2. Fasciotomy to release the muscle compartments
  3. Splint and diuretic treatment
  4. Close observation
  5. Perform a venous section distal of the affected compartment
A
  1. Fasciotomy to release the muscle compartments
67
Q

Which laboratory results have diagnostic values for infections? (MCQ)

  1. CRP
  2. WBC
  3. PCT
  4. ESR
68
Q

Which of the following are supination (eversion) injuries of the ankle and foot? (MCQ)

  1. Weber A fracture
  2. Talofibular ligament rupture/sprain
  3. Chopart joint distortion
  4. V. metatarsal base avulsion fracture
69
Q

Which infection has the best prognosis?

  1. Intraarticular
  2. Epifascial
  3. Tendovaginal
  4. Body-cavity
  5. Peri-implant
A
  1. Epifascial
70
Q

Which of the following is/are injured in a Weber C fracture? (MCQ)

  1. Supramalleolar fracture of the fibula
  2. Syndesmosis
  3. Interosseous membrane
  4. Compression fracture of the articular surface of the distal fibula
A

1, 2 and 3

71
Q

Pilon fractures (MCQ)
1. Are direct fractures caused by vertical compression
2. Are subcapital fractures of the fibula with injury to the interosseous membrane
3. Involve the distal tibial articular surface with significant soft tissue injury
4. Are distal intraarticular radius fractures with a palmar displacement of a dorsally based triangular segment of
the radius

72
Q

In pelvic fractures, the associated blood loss is around

  1. 100-250 mL
  2. 250-500 mL
  3. 500-1000 mL
  4. 1000-1200 mL
  5. 1500-2000 mL
A
  1. 1500-2000 mL
73
Q

A common complication after femur diaphysis fractures in childhood

  1. Osteomyelitis
  2. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head
  3. Overgrowth
  4. Stopped growth
A
  1. Overgrowth
74
Q

Indications of thoracotomy (MCQ)

  1. Serial rib fracture
  2. Drainage volume is more than 1500 mL
  3. Cardiac contusion
  4. Diaphragmatic injury
75
Q

Which statements are true concerning pelvic fractures? (MCQ)

  1. 3% of all injuries
  2. Mortality is 2%
  3. Classifications are Tile AO, Young-Burgess
  4. Type C-fracture: rotational instability only
76
Q

Which type of x-ray should be done in the case of a pelvic fracture? (MCQ)

  1. AP view
  2. Ala view
  3. Obturator view
  4. 30 internal rotation view
A

1, 2 and 3

77
Q

Which are true concerning the Pipkin classification of femoral head fractures (MCQ)

  1. Type I: fracture inferior to fovea centralis
  2. Type II: fracture superior to fovea centralis
  3. Type III: type 1+2 and femoral neck fracture
  4. Type IV: type 1+2 and intertrochanteric fracture
A

1, 2 and 3

78
Q

which of the following are clinical symptoms of femoral neck fractures? (MCQ)

  1. Abduction
  2. Internal rotation
  3. Shortening
  4. Ability of active lower extremity elevation
79
Q

A patient falls with an extended wrist. The patient complains of pain to pressure on the dorsal side of the wrist, distal to the radius. AP and lateral radiographs shows no signs of fracture. Which can be a next possible step in diagnosis/treatment? (MCQ)

  1. 10-14 days Bennet splint, then follow-up x-ray
  2. 4 directional wrist x-ray
  3. Wrist CT scan
  4. Wrist arthrography
A

1, 2 and 3

80
Q

When should femoral neck fractures be treated with arthroplasty? (MCQ)

  1. Garden type IV fracture, subcapital fracture
  2. Garden type II fracture, when the time between injury and surgery is less than 5 hours
  3. Impossible reduction
  4. Garden type I fracture
81
Q

Which implant in which situation should be used for femoral shaft fractures? (MCQ)

  1. Monotrauma: undreamed nailing with interlocking
  2. Intraarticular fracture: plate fixation
  3. Polytrauma: reamed nailing with locking
  4. Compartment syndrome: plate fixation
82
Q

Possible reasons for pneumothorax (MCQ)

  1. Rib fracture
  2. Diaphragm rupture
  3. Lung injuries
  4. Oesophagus injuries
A

1 and 3

All?

83
Q

Examinations of abdominal injuries, except (MCQ)

  1. Rectal digital examination
  2. FAST
  3. CT-scan
  4. Acute colonoscopy
A

4

  1. Acute colonoscopy
84
Q

Which are the treatment options for clavicule fractures? (MCQ)

  1. Sling
  2. Figure 8 bandage
  3. Plate OS
  4. Titan elastic nail (TEN)
85
Q

What type of injury requires a sling for 1 week?

  1. Brachial plexus injury
  2. Dislocated fracture of the neck of the humerus
  3. Impacted fracture of the neck of the humerus
  4. Proximal epiphyseal separation
  5. Fracture of the humerus shaft
A
  1. Impacted fracture of the neck of the humerus
86
Q

The best way to distinguish a scaphoid fracture?

  1. Clinical signs
  2. Clinical signs and 2-way x-ray
  3. 4-view x-ray
  4. Tomography
  5. Functional examination under x-ray
A
  1. 4-view x-ray
87
Q

What is Bennet’s fracture?

  1. Stable fracture of first metacarpal
  2. Communitive fracture of the first metacarpal
  3. Stable fracture of the metacarpal into the carpometacarpal joint
  4. Fracture of the first metacarpal into the first carpometacarpal joint with dislocation
  5. Unstable fracture of the first metacarpal
A
  1. Fracture of the first metacarpal into the first carpometacarpal joint with dislocation
88
Q

What is included in so-called “dashboard injuries”?

  1. Posterior cruciate ligament
  2. Patella fracture
  3. Tibia fracture
  4. Femoral condyle fracture
89
Q

Diagnosis of AC (acromioclavicular) joint dislocation: (MCQ)

  1. Comparative x-ray under weight
  2. Organ string sign
  3. Coracoclavicular space increased
  4. Shoulder lateral view
A

1 and 3

*Piano key sign is the correct one

90
Q

Which statement is false regarding shoulder dislocations?

  1. Apprehension test helps diagnose the injury
  2. Hippocrates maneuver can be used for reduction
  3. After the first dislocation there is a 5% chance of recurrent cases in adults
  4. Hill-Sachs lesion is the impression fracture of the humeral head
  5. Bankart lesion is the damage of the glenoid rim
A
  1. After the first dislocation there is a 5% chance of recurrent cases in adults
91
Q

Which muscle is NOT a part of the rotator cuff?

  1. Supraspinatus
  2. Infraspinatus
  3. Subscapularis
  4. Teres minor
  5. Teres major
A
  1. Teres major
92
Q

Which epiphyseal injuries may lead to growth disturbances?

  1. Salter-Harris I and II
  2. Salter-Harris II and IV
  3. Salter-Harris III and IV
  4. Salter-Harris I and IV
A
  1. Salter-Harris III and IV
93
Q

Indications of revision hip arthroplasty (MCQ)

  1. Cup, stem malposition
  2. Dislocation, instability
  3. Aseptic – septic loosening
  4. Pertrochanterical fracture
A

1, 2 and 3

94
Q

Classification of femoral periprosthetic fractures:

  1. Paprosky classification
  2. Vancouver classification
  3. Stuart Hansen classification
  4. Mayo classification
  5. Pauwels classification
A
  1. Vancouver classification
95
Q

What are the indications of plate synthesis?

  1. Intraarticular fractures and fractures near the joint
  2. Pediatric diaphyseal fractures
  3. Non-union, mal-union
  4. Patella fracture
96
Q

The therapy of post-operative deep tissue infection (MCQ)

  1. Immediate revision, debridement
  2. Suction drainage (vacuum sealing)
  3. Septopal chain or antibiotic cement
  4. RICE (rest, ice, compression, elevation)
A

1, 2 and 3

97
Q

Which is not a sign of compartment syndrome?

  1. Pain
  2. Erythema
  3. Paraesthesia
  4. Paresis
98
Q

Which classification is used for proximal humeral fractures?

  1. Weber
  2. Galeazzi
  3. Gardner
  4. Neer
  5. Tossy
99
Q

Which of the following is/are true concerning injuries to the elbow? (MCQ)

  1. Radial head fractures should be operated if the dislocation is more than 3mm
  2. Olecranon fractures can be fixed by tension band wiring
  3. Comminuted fractures of the olecranon should be fixed by plate synthesis
  4. Non-surgical treatment is long cast for 6 weeks
A

1, 2 and 3

100
Q

Following total knee arthroplasty, periprosthetic fracture of the femur can occur because? (MCQ)

  1. Malpositioning of femoral component (Notching)
  2. Osteoporosis, RA, chronic steroid administration
  3. Trauma
  4. Reduced ROM
101
Q

Which statement is correct regarding ACL rupture?

  1. The ruptured ligament should be sutured within 24 hours
  2. Chronic ACL deficiency leads to chondral degeneration
  3. Conservative treatment is immobilization in a cast/brace for 6 weeks It is not a very common injury, and usually caused by direct trauma
  4. All of the above
A
  1. Chronic ACL deficiency leads to chondral degeneration
102
Q

Which treatment(s) is/are used for distal radius fractures? (MCQ)

  1. Pins + plaster for 6 weeks
  2. External fixation
  3. Plate osteosynthesis
  4. Interlocking nail
A

1, 2 and 3

103
Q

Which tests are used for the diagnosis of ACL rupture? (MCQ)

  1. Lachmann test
  2. Thompson test
  3. Anterior drawer test
  4. Posterior drawer test
104
Q

Which graft type is recommended for ACL reconstruction? (MCQ)

  1. Hamstring tendons
  2. Synthetic ACL graft
  3. Bone-tendon-bone graft
  4. Plantaris tendon
105
Q

The most commonly used bone marrow stimulation technique in cartilage repair is?

  1. Autologous chondrocyte implantation
  2. Periosteal flapping
  3. Microfracture
  4. Osteochondral allograft transplantation
  5. Mosaic plasty
A
  1. Microfracture
106
Q

Autulogous osteohondral mosaic plasty is awidely used treatment option for cartilage repair. What is an optimal indication?

  1. Elderly patient, over the age of 50, osteoarthritic changes of the knee
  2. Extended grade II chondropathy of the patella
  3. Symptomatic focal (1-4 square centimeter in size) chondral or osteochondral defects of the weight bearing articular surfaces
  4. Extended grade I chondropathy of the non-weight-bearing articular surfaces of the knee
  5. “Kissing chondropathy” of the femoropatellar joint
A
  1. Symptomatic focal (1-4 square centimeter in size) chondral or osteochondral defects of the weight bearing articular surfaces
107
Q

Which of the following injuries to the extensor mechanism of the knee? (MCQ)

  1. Fractures of the patella
  2. Avulsion fracture of the tibial tubercle
  3. Quadriceps tendon rupture
  4. PCL rupture
A

1, 2 and 3

108
Q

Which statement is true for cartilage defects?

  1. Chondral damages will never lead to osteoarthritis
  2. Osteochondral defects are more frequent than chondral damages
  3. Cartilage damages have poor healing capacity
  4. Outerbridge classification of chondral damages contains six categories
  5. None of them
A
  1. Cartilage damages have poor healing capacity
109
Q

Which statement(s) is/are not correct for tibial plateau fractures? (MCQ)

  1. Depression of the articular surface can be present
  2. They can cause hemoarthrosis of the knee joint
  3. Posttraumatic osteoarthritis is a possible late onset complication
  4. In most cases they can be successfully treated by traction and immobilization
A
  1. In most cases they can be successfully treated by traction and immobilization
110
Q

Which cannot be the source of knee hematoma?

  1. Distal femoral fracture
  2. Proximal tibial fracture
  3. ACL rupture
  4. Fracture of femoral shaft
  5. PCL rupture
A
  1. Fracture of femoral shaft
111
Q

Which statement is NOT correct? (MCQ)
Treating post-traumatic arthritis of acetabular fractures means…
1. Unsegmented component MUST NOT be used
2. Bone grafting has to be considered
3. Reconstruction of the cranial posterior console of the acetabulum is mandatory
4. Reinforcement cage always has to be used

A

1 for sure

2 maybe?

112
Q

Which vasopressors + volume expanders are used to treat hemorrhagic shock?

  1. None
  2. Isoproterenol
  3. Adrenaline
  4. Voluven (HES - Colloid solution)
A
  1. Voluven (HES - Colloid solution)
113
Q

What is a Maissoneuve injury (Weber C)?

  1. Subcapital fibular fracture, interosseous membrane and syndesmosis rupture
  2. Posterior humoral head luxation
  3. Proximal radius head luxation
  4. Fracture of the ulna associated with proximal radius head luxation
  5. Proximal femoral fracture
A
  1. Subcapital tibular fracture, interosseous membrane and syndesmosis rupture
114
Q

What makes problems for extensor function? (MCQ)

  1. Quadriceps tear
  2. Biceps tear
  3. Patella fracture
  4. Non-dislocated patella fracture
  5. Achilles-tendon tear
A

1, 3 and 4

  1. Quadriceps tear
  2. Patella fracture
  3. Non-dislocated patella fracture
115
Q

What is true for direct healing?

  1. Heals faster than indirect
  2. Looks the same as before the injury
  3. Callus formation
  4. Requires periosteal blood flow
A

1 and 4

  1. Heals faster than indirect
  2. Requires periosteal blood flow
116
Q

Soft callus formation, how long does it take?

  1. 3-4 weeks
  2. 3-4 months
  3. 3-4 days
117
Q

When should non-union be considered? (MCQ- no answers)

A
  1. Bone healing over 6 months

2. Absolute operative indication

118
Q

What is keloid? (MCQ- no answers)

A
  1. Malignant potential

2. Excessive scar formation

119
Q

Humoral fracture, what conditions are taken into consideration? (MCQ- no answers)

A

Possible options:

  • Age
  • General condition (osteoporosis)
  • Neer classification
120
Q

Post-traumatic operation with infection, what is the most important thing to do?

  1. Parenteral antibiotics
  2. Post-op revision
  3. Ice-bag cooling
  4. Elevation
A
  1. Parenteral antibiotics

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