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145 Final > Trauma And Mobile Exam > Flashcards

Trauma And Mobile Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Which imaging modality is often used to diagnose an ectopic pregnancy

A

Ultrasound

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2
Q

Which of the following terms best describes a partial dislocation of a joint

A

Subluxation

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3
Q

A bruise type of injury with a possible avulsion fracture is termed a

A

Contusion

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4
Q

Which term describes a misalignment of a distal fracture fragment that is angled toward the midline

A

Varus deformity

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5
Q

Which type of fracture is defined as being crushed at the site of impact, producing two or more fragments

A

Comminuted

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6
Q

Which of the following fractures is described as an incomplete fracture with the cortex broken on one side of the bone

A

Green stick

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7
Q

Which of the following is not a fracture but a subluxation

A

Nursemaids elbow

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8
Q

Which of the following fractures is often called a reverse Colles’ with anterior displacement of the distal radius

A

Smiths

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9
Q

Which of the following fractures involves the distal fifth metacarpal

A

Boxers

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10
Q

Which of the following fractures usually involves the spine

A

Compression

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11
Q

Which type of procedure would be performed in surgery to realign a fracture

A

Open reduction

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12
Q

A fracture in which the bone is broken into three pieces, with the middle fragment, fractured at both ends, is termed_____ fracture

A

Segmental

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13
Q

A fracture that occurs through the pedicles of the axis(C2) , with or without displacement of C2, or C3, is termed

A

Hangman’s

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14
Q

Which fracture is also called a “March fracture”

A

Stress

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15
Q

A fragment of bone that is separated, or pulled away by the attached, tendon or ligament is termed a______ fracture

A

Avulsion

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16
Q

T/F The maximum fluoroscopic KV of most C – arms is 120 KVP

A

True

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17
Q

_____ is used to create an x-ray beam that activates at timed increments to reduce exposure during C – arm fluoroscopy

A

Pulse mode

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18
Q

A self propelled, battery, driven mobile x-ray unit will generally go up a Maximum incline of

A

7°

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19
Q

What is the minimum distance a technologist should stand away from the x-ray tube during an exposure when using a mobile x-ray unit

A

6 feet

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20
Q

Which one of the three cardinal rules of radiation protection is the most effective means of reducing exposure during mobile and surgical procedures

A

Distance

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21
Q

Which of the C-arm orientations is generally results in the greatest exposure to the operators, head region if the distance from the patient is unchanged

A

AP projection (X-ray tube above anatomy)

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22
Q

A radiographer receives 400mR/hr standing on 1 foot from a C-arm fluoroscopy unit. What is the exposure rate if the radiographer moves to a distance of 3 feet?

A

25 to 50mR/hr

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23
Q

Where should the operator for surgeon stand when using a C arm fluoroscopy unit in a horizontal central ray position

A

Intensifier end of the C-arm

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24
Q

A 30° tilt of the C-arm x-ray tube from the vertical position will increase radiation exposure to the face and neck region of the operator standing next to the C-arm by approximately a factor of

A

4

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25
Q

A patient enters the emergency department with a possible pneumothorax of the right long. The patient is unable to stand or sit erect. Which specific position should be performed to diagnose this condition.

A

Left lateral decub

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26
Q

A patient enters the ED with a possible fractured sternum. The patient is supine and unable to lie prone, which of the following routines, best demonstrates the sternum.

A

LPO and horizontal beam lateral

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27
Q

How much rotation is required for an AP oblique projection of the sternum on a hypersthenic patient

A

15°

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28
Q

What type of “holding breath” instructions should be given for an AP projection of the ribs located above the diaphragm?

A

Expose upon inspiration

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29
Q

A patient enters the ED with severe trauma to the abdomen. The ED physician is concerned about bleeding in the abdomen with associated possible free intra- abdominal air. The patient is unable to stand, or sit erect, which position best demonstrates the condition.

A

Lateral decubitus

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30
Q

Which of the following positions or projections best demonstrates free, intra-abdominal air on the patient who cannot sit or stand erect

A

Left lateral decubitus

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31
Q

A patient comes to the ED with a possible abdominal aortic aneurysm, which of the following projections of the abdomen, best demonstrates it

A

Dorsal decubitus

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32
Q

What is the primary disadvantage of performing a portable PA thumb over an AP projection

A

Results in an increase in object image receptor distance(OID)

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33
Q

T/F Post reduction projections of the upper and lower limbs generally require only the joint nearest to the fracture site

A

True

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34
Q

A patient enters the ED with a fractured forearm. The physician reduces the fracture in place is a fiberglass cast on the forearm. The initial analog technique was 55 KV and five mAs, which of the following technical factors is best for the post production study.

A

59KV. 5 mas

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35
Q

How should the CR be aligned for a trauma PA projection of the elbow?

A

Perpendicular to the interepicondyle plane

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36
Q

A patient enters the ED with a possible shoulder dislocation because of his multiple injuries. The patient is unable to stand or sit erect, which of the following routines best demonstrates the dislocation.

A

AP and horizontal beam transthoracic lateral projection

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37
Q

A patient enters the ED with a possible fractured scapula because of her multiple injuries. The patient is on a backboard, which of the following techniques is most helpful in providing a lateral view of the scapula if the patient is unable to rotate the affected shoulder adequately.

A

Angle the CR mediolateral and perpendicular to the scapular body

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38
Q

How much rotation of the body is generally required for an AP oblique, lateral scapular Y projection

A

25 to 30° from AP projection

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39
Q

What CR angulation should be used for an AP axial projection of the clavicle on a aesthetic patient

A

20° cephalic

40
Q

T/F and ankle series would best demonstrate a pott fracture

A

True

41
Q

A patient’s lower leg is in a traction in the hospital bed, the orthopedic surgeon orders, and AP, mortise projection of the ankle because of the traction, the lower leg cannot be rotated. The leg is in a straight “foot up” position. What can the radiographer do to achieve this AP Mortise projection

A

Perform a CR 15 to 20° lateromedial angle, AP projection

42
Q

A patient enters the ED on a backboard with multiple injuries, including an injury to the knee region with a possible stellate fracture noted on the examination requisition, which of the following routines best demonstrates this injury safely.

A

AP and horizontal beam lateral projections of the knee and patella without knee flexion

43
Q

Which of the following projections best produces an unobstructed view of the fibular head and neck without rotation of the lower leg

A

AP projection with a CR 45° lateromedial angle

44
Q

How is the CR aligned for an axiolateral inferiosuperior projection

A

Perpendicular to femoral neck

45
Q

Which of the following projections best demonstrates the C1-2 region if a pt is unable to open his/her mouth or flex/extend the neck

A

AP axial projection with the CR parallel to MML

46
Q

A pt enters the ED with a possible cervical spine fracture. The initial AP and lateral projections were negative for fx. The ED physician wants a projection to demonstrate the vertebral pedicles. Which of the following projections would demonstrate these structures safely

A

AP axial projection using 45° lateromedial and 15° cephalic angle

47
Q

T/F Focused grids are recommended for mobile chest studies

A

False

48
Q

Ideally, the horizontal beam lateral projections for the cervical spine require a ___source image receptor distance

A

60-70”

49
Q

The horizontal beam lateral lumbar spine projection requires a CR position that is

A

Perpendicular to the image receptor

50
Q

Which of the following projections will best demonstrate an air-fluid level within the skull with the pt recumbent

A

Horizontal beam lateral

51
Q

The AP reverse Caldwell projection for a trauma skull examination requires the CR to be

A

15° cephalad to the orbitomeatal line

52
Q

How is the CR aligned for the acanthiomeatal (reverse waters) projection for the facial bones

A

Parallel to the lips-meatal line

53
Q

A pt enters the ED with a possible greenstick fx. Which age group does this type of fx usually affect

A

Pediatric

54
Q

Subluxation is best described as a

A

Partial dislocation

55
Q

A pt enters the ED with a possible monteggia fx. Which of the following positioning routines should be performed

A

Horizontal beam PA and lateral forearm projections

56
Q

A pt enters the ED with a possible blow-out fx involving the orbits. The pt is restricted to a backboard because of trauma. Which of the following positioning routines should be performed

A

AP modified acanthioparietal and horizontal beam lateral facial bone projections

57
Q

A pt enters the ED with a radial head fx and dislocation. The ED physician orders an elbow series. The elbow is flexed near 90° and is unable to extend it farther. Which of the following positioning routines would work best for this pt.

A

AP partial flexion, lateral, and trauma axiolateral (coyle method) projections

58
Q

Which of the following is not an essential attribute for the surgical radiographer

A

Mastery of essential nursing skills

59
Q

A health professional who prepares the operating room by supplying it with the appropriate supplying it with the appropriate supplies and instruments is a

A

CST certified surgical technologist

60
Q

An individual who prepares the sterile field and scrubs and gowns the members of the surgical team is a

A

Scrub

61
Q

What should a technologist do if the sterile environment is violated during a surgical procedure

A

Notify a member of the surgical team immediately

62
Q

Which one of the following devices is best during a C-arm hip pinning procedure to protect the sterile environment

A

Shower curtain

63
Q

Asepsis is defined as a

A

Absence of infectious organisms

64
Q

T/F OR tables are considered sterile only at the level of the tabletop

A

True

65
Q

The entire sterile gown, worn by the surgeon is considered sterile

A

False

66
Q

T/F Only sterile items are allowed within the sterile field

A

True

67
Q

Which one of the following methods will best reduce pt dosage during a fluoroscopic procedure in surgery

A

Use intermittent fluoro

68
Q

“Boost” exposures used during C-arm procedures are intended to

A

Increase brightness of image

69
Q

The primary clinical indication for an operative cholangiogram is

A

Biliary calculi

70
Q

When performing conventional imaging during an operative cholangiogram, the IR is placed in a special metal tray called a

A

Pizza pan

71
Q

Typically how much contrast media is injected by the surgeon during an operative cholangiogram

A

6-8 mL

72
Q

Which of the following modification must be made if the OR table is tilted while imaging during an operative cholangiogram using analog imaging

A

Turn grid crosswise

73
Q

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of laparoscopic cholecystectomy

A

The procedure is performed without anesthetic in radiology

74
Q

From which workstation monitor can an image be saved

A

Active monitor

75
Q

When does the fluoro timer alarm sound on the C-arm

A

Every 5 min of fluoro time

76
Q

When does the urologist withdraw the urethral catheter when performing a retrograde pyelogram

A

After the images have been taken

77
Q

What is the newer type of prosthetic device being used for total hip replacements

A

Modular bipolar endoprosthesis

78
Q

A surgical procedure to remove a small portion of the bone that is impinging the nerve root is termed

A

Laminectomy

79
Q

Which of the following devices is an alternative to traditional spinal fusion procedures

A

Interbody fusion cage

80
Q

Which of the following procedures uses a high powered stereoscopic microscope to provide illumination and magnification of the impinged nerve and surrounding structures

A

Microdiskectomy

81
Q

Which procedure may require the use of luque or Harrington rods

A

Scoliosis corrective procedure

82
Q

Which procedure introduces orthopedic cement directly into the weakened vertebrae

A

Vertebroplasty

83
Q

An orthopedic wire that tightens around a fx site to reduce shortening of a limb is a ____wire

A

Cerclage

84
Q

Electrohydraulic shock wave used to break apart calcifications in the urinary system is the definition for

A

ESWL

85
Q

Soaking of moisture through a sterile or no sterile drape, cover, or protective barrier permitting bacteria to reach sterile areas is generally termed

A

Strike- through

86
Q

In orthopedic terms, CR refers to

A

Closed reduction

87
Q

T/F An internal pacemaker implantation can be performed under local anesthetic

A

True

88
Q

Arthroplasty is a formed term describing a

A

Total hip replacement

89
Q

What type of orthopedic fixator is commonly used to reduce midhumeral fx

A

Intramedullary rod

90
Q

The abbreviation ORIF refers to

A

Open reduction internal fixation

91
Q

Which of the following procedures is a nonsurgical procedure

A

Closed reduction

92
Q

The retrograde pyelogram is intended to demonstrate the

A

Kidneys and collecting system

93
Q

Which one of the following devices is classified as an external fixator

A

Ilizarov device

94
Q

T/F retrograde urography is classified as a nonfunctioning study of the urinary system

A

True

95
Q

Which device is commonly used during a hip pinning to reduce a shaft fx of the proximal fermur

A

Intramedullary nail

96
Q

Which one of the following structures is not typically visualized during an operative cholangiogram

A

Stensen duct

97
Q

T/F A laparoscope is used during the retrograde urogram

A

False

145 Final (6 decks)

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