Trauma And Mobile Exam Flashcards
Which imaging modality is often used to diagnose an ectopic pregnancy
Ultrasound
Which of the following terms best describes a partial dislocation of a joint
Subluxation
A bruise type of injury with a possible avulsion fracture is termed a
Contusion
Which term describes a misalignment of a distal fracture fragment that is angled toward the midline
Varus deformity
Which type of fracture is defined as being crushed at the site of impact, producing two or more fragments
Comminuted
Which of the following fractures is described as an incomplete fracture with the cortex broken on one side of the bone
Green stick
Which of the following is not a fracture but a subluxation
Nursemaids elbow
Which of the following fractures is often called a reverse Colles’ with anterior displacement of the distal radius
Smiths
Which of the following fractures involves the distal fifth metacarpal
Boxers
Which of the following fractures usually involves the spine
Compression
Which type of procedure would be performed in surgery to realign a fracture
Open reduction
A fracture in which the bone is broken into three pieces, with the middle fragment, fractured at both ends, is termed_____ fracture
Segmental
A fracture that occurs through the pedicles of the axis(C2) , with or without displacement of C2, or C3, is termed
Hangman’s
Which fracture is also called a “March fracture”
Stress
A fragment of bone that is separated, or pulled away by the attached, tendon or ligament is termed a______ fracture
Avulsion
T/F The maximum fluoroscopic KV of most C – arms is 120 KVP
True
_____ is used to create an x-ray beam that activates at timed increments to reduce exposure during C – arm fluoroscopy
Pulse mode
A self propelled, battery, driven mobile x-ray unit will generally go up a Maximum incline of
7°
What is the minimum distance a technologist should stand away from the x-ray tube during an exposure when using a mobile x-ray unit
6 feet
Which one of the three cardinal rules of radiation protection is the most effective means of reducing exposure during mobile and surgical procedures
Distance
Which of the C-arm orientations is generally results in the greatest exposure to the operators, head region if the distance from the patient is unchanged
AP projection (X-ray tube above anatomy)
A radiographer receives 400mR/hr standing on 1 foot from a C-arm fluoroscopy unit. What is the exposure rate if the radiographer moves to a distance of 3 feet?
25 to 50mR/hr
Where should the operator for surgeon stand when using a C arm fluoroscopy unit in a horizontal central ray position
Intensifier end of the C-arm
A 30° tilt of the C-arm x-ray tube from the vertical position will increase radiation exposure to the face and neck region of the operator standing next to the C-arm by approximately a factor of
4
A patient enters the emergency department with a possible pneumothorax of the right long. The patient is unable to stand or sit erect. Which specific position should be performed to diagnose this condition.
Left lateral decub
A patient enters the ED with a possible fractured sternum. The patient is supine and unable to lie prone, which of the following routines, best demonstrates the sternum.
LPO and horizontal beam lateral
How much rotation is required for an AP oblique projection of the sternum on a hypersthenic patient
15°
What type of “holding breath” instructions should be given for an AP projection of the ribs located above the diaphragm?
Expose upon inspiration
A patient enters the ED with severe trauma to the abdomen. The ED physician is concerned about bleeding in the abdomen with associated possible free intra- abdominal air. The patient is unable to stand, or sit erect, which position best demonstrates the condition.
Lateral decubitus
Which of the following positions or projections best demonstrates free, intra-abdominal air on the patient who cannot sit or stand erect
Left lateral decubitus
A patient comes to the ED with a possible abdominal aortic aneurysm, which of the following projections of the abdomen, best demonstrates it
Dorsal decubitus
What is the primary disadvantage of performing a portable PA thumb over an AP projection
Results in an increase in object image receptor distance(OID)
T/F Post reduction projections of the upper and lower limbs generally require only the joint nearest to the fracture site
True
A patient enters the ED with a fractured forearm. The physician reduces the fracture in place is a fiberglass cast on the forearm. The initial analog technique was 55 KV and five mAs, which of the following technical factors is best for the post production study.
59KV. 5 mas
How should the CR be aligned for a trauma PA projection of the elbow?
Perpendicular to the interepicondyle plane
A patient enters the ED with a possible shoulder dislocation because of his multiple injuries. The patient is unable to stand or sit erect, which of the following routines best demonstrates the dislocation.
AP and horizontal beam transthoracic lateral projection
A patient enters the ED with a possible fractured scapula because of her multiple injuries. The patient is on a backboard, which of the following techniques is most helpful in providing a lateral view of the scapula if the patient is unable to rotate the affected shoulder adequately.
Angle the CR mediolateral and perpendicular to the scapular body
How much rotation of the body is generally required for an AP oblique, lateral scapular Y projection
25 to 30° from AP projection
What CR angulation should be used for an AP axial projection of the clavicle on a aesthetic patient
20° cephalic
T/F and ankle series would best demonstrate a pott fracture
True
A patient’s lower leg is in a traction in the hospital bed, the orthopedic surgeon orders, and AP, mortise projection of the ankle because of the traction, the lower leg cannot be rotated. The leg is in a straight “foot up” position. What can the radiographer do to achieve this AP Mortise projection
Perform a CR 15 to 20° lateromedial angle, AP projection
A patient enters the ED on a backboard with multiple injuries, including an injury to the knee region with a possible stellate fracture noted on the examination requisition, which of the following routines best demonstrates this injury safely.
AP and horizontal beam lateral projections of the knee and patella without knee flexion
Which of the following projections best produces an unobstructed view of the fibular head and neck without rotation of the lower leg
AP projection with a CR 45° lateromedial angle
How is the CR aligned for an axiolateral inferiosuperior projection
Perpendicular to femoral neck
Which of the following projections best demonstrates the C1-2 region if a pt is unable to open his/her mouth or flex/extend the neck
AP axial projection with the CR parallel to MML
A pt enters the ED with a possible cervical spine fracture. The initial AP and lateral projections were negative for fx. The ED physician wants a projection to demonstrate the vertebral pedicles. Which of the following projections would demonstrate these structures safely
AP axial projection using 45° lateromedial and 15° cephalic angle
T/F Focused grids are recommended for mobile chest studies
False
Ideally, the horizontal beam lateral projections for the cervical spine require a ___source image receptor distance
60-70”
The horizontal beam lateral lumbar spine projection requires a CR position that is
Perpendicular to the image receptor
Which of the following projections will best demonstrate an air-fluid level within the skull with the pt recumbent
Horizontal beam lateral
The AP reverse Caldwell projection for a trauma skull examination requires the CR to be
15° cephalad to the orbitomeatal line
How is the CR aligned for the acanthiomeatal (reverse waters) projection for the facial bones
Parallel to the lips-meatal line
A pt enters the ED with a possible greenstick fx. Which age group does this type of fx usually affect
Pediatric
Subluxation is best described as a
Partial dislocation
A pt enters the ED with a possible monteggia fx. Which of the following positioning routines should be performed
Horizontal beam PA and lateral forearm projections
A pt enters the ED with a possible blow-out fx involving the orbits. The pt is restricted to a backboard because of trauma. Which of the following positioning routines should be performed
AP modified acanthioparietal and horizontal beam lateral facial bone projections
A pt enters the ED with a radial head fx and dislocation. The ED physician orders an elbow series. The elbow is flexed near 90° and is unable to extend it farther. Which of the following positioning routines would work best for this pt.
AP partial flexion, lateral, and trauma axiolateral (coyle method) projections
Which of the following is not an essential attribute for the surgical radiographer
Mastery of essential nursing skills
A health professional who prepares the operating room by supplying it with the appropriate supplying it with the appropriate supplies and instruments is a
CST certified surgical technologist
An individual who prepares the sterile field and scrubs and gowns the members of the surgical team is a
Scrub
What should a technologist do if the sterile environment is violated during a surgical procedure
Notify a member of the surgical team immediately
Which one of the following devices is best during a C-arm hip pinning procedure to protect the sterile environment
Shower curtain
Asepsis is defined as a
Absence of infectious organisms
T/F OR tables are considered sterile only at the level of the tabletop
True
The entire sterile gown, worn by the surgeon is considered sterile
False
T/F Only sterile items are allowed within the sterile field
True
Which one of the following methods will best reduce pt dosage during a fluoroscopic procedure in surgery
Use intermittent fluoro
“Boost” exposures used during C-arm procedures are intended to
Increase brightness of image
The primary clinical indication for an operative cholangiogram is
Biliary calculi
When performing conventional imaging during an operative cholangiogram, the IR is placed in a special metal tray called a
Pizza pan
Typically how much contrast media is injected by the surgeon during an operative cholangiogram
6-8 mL
Which of the following modification must be made if the OR table is tilted while imaging during an operative cholangiogram using analog imaging
Turn grid crosswise
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of laparoscopic cholecystectomy
The procedure is performed without anesthetic in radiology
From which workstation monitor can an image be saved
Active monitor
When does the fluoro timer alarm sound on the C-arm
Every 5 min of fluoro time
When does the urologist withdraw the urethral catheter when performing a retrograde pyelogram
After the images have been taken
What is the newer type of prosthetic device being used for total hip replacements
Modular bipolar endoprosthesis
A surgical procedure to remove a small portion of the bone that is impinging the nerve root is termed
Laminectomy
Which of the following devices is an alternative to traditional spinal fusion procedures
Interbody fusion cage
Which of the following procedures uses a high powered stereoscopic microscope to provide illumination and magnification of the impinged nerve and surrounding structures
Microdiskectomy
Which procedure may require the use of luque or Harrington rods
Scoliosis corrective procedure
Which procedure introduces orthopedic cement directly into the weakened vertebrae
Vertebroplasty
An orthopedic wire that tightens around a fx site to reduce shortening of a limb is a ____wire
Cerclage
Electrohydraulic shock wave used to break apart calcifications in the urinary system is the definition for
ESWL
Soaking of moisture through a sterile or no sterile drape, cover, or protective barrier permitting bacteria to reach sterile areas is generally termed
Strike- through
In orthopedic terms, CR refers to
Closed reduction
T/F An internal pacemaker implantation can be performed under local anesthetic
True
Arthroplasty is a formed term describing a
Total hip replacement
What type of orthopedic fixator is commonly used to reduce midhumeral fx
Intramedullary rod
The abbreviation ORIF refers to
Open reduction internal fixation
Which of the following procedures is a nonsurgical procedure
Closed reduction
The retrograde pyelogram is intended to demonstrate the
Kidneys and collecting system
Which one of the following devices is classified as an external fixator
Ilizarov device
T/F retrograde urography is classified as a nonfunctioning study of the urinary system
True
Which device is commonly used during a hip pinning to reduce a shaft fx of the proximal fermur
Intramedullary nail
Which one of the following structures is not typically visualized during an operative cholangiogram
Stensen duct
T/F A laparoscope is used during the retrograde urogram
False
