Trauma Flashcards

1
Q

What is Level I trauma?

A

Provides comprehensive trauma care
Regional resource center that provides leadership in education, research, and systems planning
Providers immediately available, including trauma surgeon, anesthesiologist, physician specialists, and nurses

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2
Q

What is Level II trauma?

A

Provides comprehensive trauma care as a supplement to a Level I center
Meets the same provider expectations for care as a Level I center
Is not required to participate in education and research

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3
Q

What is Level III trauma?

A

Provides prompt, immediate emergency care and stabilization of patient with transfer to a higher level of care
Serves a community that does not have immediate access to a Level I or II center

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4
Q

What is Level IV trauma?

A

Provides advanced trauma life support prior to transfer

Primary goal is to resuscitate and stabilize the patient and arrange for immediate transfer to a higher level of care

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5
Q

What are the different levels of prevention?

A

Primary prevents the event i.e. driving classes, secondary minimizes the impact of the event i.e. seat belt use and tertiary maximizes patient outcomes after the event

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6
Q

What is Triage?

A

sorting the patients to determine which patients need specialized care for actual or potential injuries

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7
Q

What are the different classifications of disasters?

A

classified by the number of victims involved: multiple patient incident refers to fewer than 10 victims; multiple casualty incident refers to 10 to 100 victims; mass casualty incident refers to more than 100 victims. Disasters may also be classified as an institutional-based, internal disaster, occurring within a hospital and rendering the facility partially or totally inoperable

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8
Q

What is the most common mechanism of injury?

A

Blunt trauma

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9
Q

What are we assessing in penetrating injuries?

A

Examining entrance and exit wounds (if present) and must be monitored closely for subsequent complications, including organ damage, hemorrhage, and infection

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10
Q

What are the different classifications of blast injuries?

A

The primary explosive blast generates shock waves that create changes in air pressure, causing tissue damage.
Secondary injuries occur from increased negative pressure from the shock wave, causing debris to impale the body, creating organ and tissue damage.
Tertiary blast injuries are the result of the body being thrown by the force of the explosion, resulting in blunt tissue trauma, including closed head injuries, fractures, and visceral organ injury.
Quaternary blast injuries occur from chemical, thermal, and biological exposure.

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11
Q

What kind of care do we expect to provide “at the scene”?

A

Interventions include establishing an airway, providing ventilation, applying pressure to control hemorrhage, immobilizing the complete spine, and stabilizing fractures.

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12
Q

What is the most crucial tool in trauma care?

A

Primary survey (ABCDEs)… This rapid, 1- to 2-minute evaluation is designed to identify life-threatening injuries accurately, establish priorities, and provide simultaneous therapeutic interventions.

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13
Q

When does the secondary survey consist of?

A
initiated after the primary survey has been completed and all actual or potential life-threatening injuries have been identified and addressed. A full set of vital signs is obtained as a baseline for analysis of trends during the resuscitation phase, comfort measures are implemented, patient history is taken, and inspection of posterior surfaces is completed (FGHI). * Maintain C-spine immobilization until cleared by x-ray*
X-ray studies (as determined by injury)
Laboratory studies
Tetanus toxoid administration
Specialty physician consults
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14
Q

What is the central component of the primary and secondary survey?

A

effective resuscitation

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15
Q

When would we require a cricothyrotomy?

A

maxillofacial trauma, laryngeal fractures, facial or upper airway burns, airway edema, and severe oropharyngeal hemorrhage

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16
Q

What is the definitive nonsurgical airway management technique and allows for complete control of the airway?

A

Endotracheal intubation

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17
Q

What is important to remember in airway management?

A

That assessment is ongoing. the nurse must be prepared to assist with intubation and subsequent mechanical ventilation, needle thoracostomy, chest tube insertion, and restoration of circulating blood volume.

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18
Q

Where can we see IO needle placed?

A

intraosseous (IO) needles may be used for access in the sternum, legs, arms, or pelvis if the patient’s injuries do not interfere with the procedure

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19
Q

What are some markers for tissue perfusion?

A

The serum arterial lactate level and base deficit. The higher the lactate level and base deficit are, the more severe the tissue under perfusion will be and the higher the morbidity and mortality.

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20
Q

What is considered a massive blood transfusion?

A

administering 10 or more units of packed red blood cells in 24 hours.
In this situation, it is necessary to administer platelets and fresh frozen plasma in addition to packed RBCs to improve patient outcomes.
Blood products are given in a 1:1:1 ratio when massive blood transfusions are required—1 unit of packed RBCs, 1 unit of platelets, and 1 unit of fresh frozen plasma.

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21
Q

What electrolyte imbalances may develop with massive fluid resuscitation?

A

hypocalcemia, hypomagnesemia, and hyperkalemia or hypokalemia. These imbalances may lead to changes in myocardial function, laryngeal spasm, and neuromuscular and central nervous system hyper-irritability.

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22
Q

Why can third spacing occur in massive fluid resuscitation?

A

as more IV fluids are given to support systemic circulation, fluids continue to migrate into the interstitial space, causing excessive edema and predisposing the patient to additional complications such as abdominal compartment syndrome, ARDS, acute kidney injury, and MODS.

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23
Q

What is included in the assessment of neurological disabilities

A

evaluation of the patient’s level of consciousness, pupillary size and reaction, and spontaneous and reflexive spinal movement, as well as consideration of possible neurological injuries based on the history of the injury (e.g., ejection from motor vehicle, fall, or diving accident).
Evaluate substance abuse (drugs or alcohol use) that may interfere with neurological exam.

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24
Q

What is secondary injury in TBI?

A

the systemic (hypotension, hypoxia, anemia, hyperthermia) or intracranial changes (edema, intracranial hypertension, seizures) that result in alterations in the nervous system tissue.

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25
Q

What are some nursing interventions needed in the TBI secondary injury stage?

A

focus on ensuring an adequate blood pressure to meet cerebral perfusion needs (mean arterial pressure greater than 50 mm Hg), maximizing ventilation and oxygenation through effective airway management, maintaining the head in a midline position to enhance cerebral blood flow, administering sedatives to address agitation and increased intracranial pressure, and conducting frequent neurological assessments.

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26
Q

What mechanisms of injury may result in Spinal cord injury?

A

hyperflexion, hyperextension, axial loading, rotation, and penetrating trauma.

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27
Q

Why is it important to know the level of the SCI?

A

because higher cervical spine injuries may result in the loss of phrenic nerve innervations, compromising the patient’s ability to breathe spontaneously.

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28
Q

How are Basilar skull fractures diagnosed?

A

The diagnosis is based on the presence of cerebrospinal fluid in the nose (rhinorrhea), in the ears (otorrhea), or in both; ecchymosis over the mastoid area (Battle’s sign); or hemotympanum (blood in the middle ear). Raccoon eyes or periorbital ecchymoses are present after a cribriform plate fracture

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29
Q

What are the most significant concern with cardiac contusion?

A

Dysrhythmias

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30
Q

What are signs of an aortic disruption?

A

weak femoral pulses, dysphagia, dyspnea, hoarseness, and pain.
A chest x-ray study may demonstrate a widened mediastinum, tracheal deviation to the right, depressed left mainstem bronchus, first and second rib fractures, and left hemothorax.

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31
Q

How is an aortic disruption confirmed?

A

An aortogram

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32
Q

How do we diagnose a tension pneumothorax?

A

Clinical presentation; never delay treatment as we wait for chest xray

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33
Q

What are some signs and symptoms of a tension pneumothorax?

A

The increased pressure causes compression of the heart and great vessels toward the unaffected side, as evidenced by mediastinal shift and distended neck veins.
The resulting decreased cardiac output and alterations in gas exchange are manifested by severe respiratory distress, chest pain, hypotension, tachycardia, absence of breath sounds on the affected side, and tracheal deviation.

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34
Q

How is a tension pneumothorax treated?

A

The physician inserts a 14-gauge needle into the second intercostal space at the midclavicular line on the injured side.
Subsequent definitive treatment is required with placement of a chest tube.

35
Q

What is the difference between moderate and massive bleeding in a Hemothorax?

A

moderate (from intercostal vessels) or massive (from the aorta or from subclavian or pulmonary vessels).

36
Q

What is the management of an open wound as seen in an open pneumothorax?

A

The use of a three-sided occlusive dressing. The fourth side is left open to allow for exhalation of air within the pleural cavity.

37
Q

What is important to remember about pulmonary contusions?

A

They are difficult to detect because the initial chest x-ray study may be normal. It is one of the most common causes of death after chest trauma, and it predisposes the patient to pneumonia or acute lung injury. Ventilatory support is needed, fluids are administered cautiously to avoid further lung edema, and Adequate pain relief with IV narcotics is essential to optimize lung expansion and respiratory effort and to prevent complications, including atelectasis and pneumonia.

38
Q

What kind of injuries do we see on the fractures of ribs 10-12?

A

Injury to the liver, spleen, or kidney

39
Q

What kind of chest movement do we see in flail chest?

A

paradoxical chest movement; it contracts inward with inhalation and expands outward with exhalation.

40
Q

What teaching should we give to those with rib fractures?

A

pillow splinting, incentive spirometry, coughing and deep-breathing exercises, the benefits of early ambulation, and pain management ( to maximally participate in pulmonary exercises)… remember-Pneumonia is the primary complication associated with rib fractures.

41
Q

What is the acronym FAST and when is it used?

A

short for “focused assessment with sonography for trauma”; used in abdominal injuries

42
Q

What is important to remember about abdominal injuries and pain?

A

The classic sign of abdominal injury is pain; pain cannot be used as an assessment tool if the patient has an altered sensorium, drug intoxication, or SCI with impaired sensation.

43
Q

What are the grades of liver injury?

A

on a scale of I to VI, with I representing a nonexpanding subcapsular hematoma and VI signifying hepatic avulsion. Grades I through III injuries are treated with close monitoring (regular abdominal assessment and serial hemoglobin and hematocrit measurements) and bed rest for 5 days. Angiographic embolization or surgical management is indicated for grades IV through VI in which there is expansion of the hemorrhage, a large laceration, or complete avulsion of the liver from its vascular supply.

44
Q

What symptoms can we see with splenic injury?

A

The patient may present with left upper quadrant tenderness, peritoneal irritation, referred pain to the left shoulder (Kehr’s sign), and hypotension or signs of hypovolemic shock. An encapsulated hemorrhage of the spleen produces no immediate signs of bleeding…The degree of splenic injury is graded on a scale from I to V. Grade I is a subcapsular, nonexpanding hematoma, and a grade V injury results when the spleen is shattered and devascularized.

45
Q

What is important to remember in splenic injuries?

A

Splenic injuries may continue to bleed slowly, and the spleen may ultimately rupture days to weeks after the initial injury. A ruptured spleen is a life-threatening event that requires immediate surgical intervention. Overwhelming infection has been seen after removal of the spleen. Patients undergoing splenectomy are very susceptible to pneumococcal infections, and administration of the pneumococcal vaccine within the first few days postoperatively is recommended.

46
Q

Why is pelvic injury a challenge?

A

because of the large vascular supply, nervous system pathways, location of urological structures, and articulation of the hip joint within the pelvic ring. The potential for morbidity, loss of function, and death is significant.

47
Q

How can we initially control pelvic bleeding?

A

by tying a large sheet or pelvic binder around the patient’s hips

48
Q

Why is knowing the mechanism of injury important in evaluating musculoskeletal injuries?

A

because kinetic energy can be distributed from the bony impact to other areas of the body

49
Q

What “survey” is assessment of soft tissue injury a part of?

A

Secondary… unless the loss of tissue (e.g., amputation) is hemodynamically compromising the patient.

50
Q

When can puncture wounds be surgically closed?

A

until treatment for infection with local and systemic antibiotics has been completed

51
Q

What are the 5 Ps in extremity assessment and what “survey” is this done in?

A

pain, pallor, pulses, paresthesia, and paralysis; During the secondary survey, limb swelling, ecchymosis, and deformity are assessed.

52
Q

Which “P’s” supersedes the rest?

A

Increased pain, pallor, and paresthesia supersede loss of pulses and should be reported immediately to the trauma team.

53
Q

What does rhabdomyolysis compromise?

A

Renal blood flow

54
Q

What is the management for rhabdomyolysis?

A

consists of aggressive fluid resuscitation to flush the myoglobin from the renal tubules.
A common protocol includes the titration of IV fluids to achieve a urine output of 100 to 200 mL/hr.
Administering osmotic diuretics and adding sodium bicarbonate to IV fluids may be used to protect the renal tubules in patients with myoglobinuria.

55
Q

What increases patient’s risk of VTE?

A

dependent on the severity of injury, the type of injury (e.g., musculoskeletal injuries), the presence of shock, recent surgeries, vascular injury, and immobility

56
Q

What are the symptoms of a fat embolism?

A

Hallmark clinical signs that accompany fat embolism syndrome begin with the development of a low-grade fever followed by a new-onset tachycardia, dyspnea, an increased respiratory rate and effort, hypoxemia (PaO2 ≤ 60 mm Hg), sudden thrombocytopenia, and a petechial rash.
Late signs and symptoms include ECG changes, lipuria (fat in the urine), and changes in the level of consciousness progressing to coma.

57
Q

What is the best treatment for fat emboli?

A

Prevention…otherwise, pulmonary and cardiovascular support

58
Q

What is the presentation of DIC?

A

prolonged PT and PTT, decreased fibrinogen, decreased platelets, and elevated fibrin split products

59
Q

What are some common signs and symptoms of withdrawal

A

increased agitation, anxiety, auditory and visual hallucinations, disorientation, headache, nausea and vomiting, paroxysmal diaphoresis, and tremors

60
Q

What is the most common cause of injury in blunt trauma for pregnant women?

A

Motor vehicle accidents

61
Q

What are some results of trauma for pregnant women?

A

Pre-term labor (most frequent complication of trauma), may difficult to determine in the unconscious patient
Premature rupture of membranes
Placental abruption/separation (Abruptio Placenta)
Uterine damage, laceration, and rupture (may see imprint of baby through abdominal wall)
Bladder rupture
Maternal Cardiopulmonary Arrest/ Fetal delivery
Fetal hypoxia/acidosis and demise

62
Q

How long after a trauma can placental/separation take place?

A

Up to 48 hours after incident

63
Q

What are some symptoms of Uterine Rupture?

A

Excruciating tearing abdominal pain and contractions cease
Rigid abdomen with rebound tenderness
Asymmetric uterus or fetal parts palpable through abdominal wall
S&S shock
Vaginal bleeding
Absent FHT
Dx with x-ray or ultrasound

64
Q

How should we give a pregnant woman CPR?

A

Using a human or mechanical wedge to partially roll mother to left side

65
Q

How long do we have after the mother fails to respond?

A

4-5 minutes as there is a potential for fetal viability

66
Q

Should we withhold radiologic studies upon trauma for pregnant women?

A

NO, though you should shield fetus with lead apron

67
Q

What labs can we use to diagnose fetal involvement in trauma?

A

Serum bicarb as levels correlate with fetal outcome more significantly than other variables reflective of shock or hypoxia
PT and PTT, blood that does no coagulate is hallmark sign of placental separation
BHCG to confirm conception when unsure if pregnant
Kleihaure-Bethke Test to detect fetal red cells in maternal circulation indication hemorrhage of fetal blood through the placenta into maternal circulation, very important in Rh- mother and Rh+ fetus

68
Q

What are some nursing actions we can implement for pregnant females upon trauma?

A

Oxygen
IV fluids, dehydration can cause uterine irritability and contractions
Monitor fetal and maternal vital signs
Monitor for fetal contractions
Monitor amount of uterine or vaginal blood loss
Measure and record fund height every 30 minutes
Insert NG tube
Left side if >20 weeks gestation, if on backboard tilt it 15-20 degrees to left
Inhibit uterine contractions if necessary, weighing risks and benefits
Get OB consult
Prepare for surgery, admission or transfer as indicated

69
Q

What kind of questions should we ask when a pedi patient comes in with an injury?

A

Parent, guardian, who can give permission for treatment
MOI
Behavior after event, normal or abnormal
If MVC was a seat belt or restraint device used, what type
Bike or sports injury, was a helmet used
Weight
Immunization record
Allergies
Medication
If post menarche female should be asked date of LMP

70
Q

What kind of fractures are seen in children?

A

Greenstick and buckle/torus fractures common due to cartilaginous nature of bones

71
Q

What cause of injury is most common for patients above the age of 75?

A

Falls

72
Q

When wouldn’t we see shock associated tachycardia?

A

In elderly patients due to beta blockers, lanoxin, and other drugs

73
Q

What else would we see in all extremity fractures for the elderly?

A

All extremity fractures may cause force that is generated upward which can cause compression fractures of the vertebral column

74
Q

How could we assess for a fracture (geri patients)?

A

Neurovascular deficits (pain, pallor, pulse, paresthesia, paralysis, pressure)
Joint integrity
Pain
Deformity and Edema
Limited movement with possible abnormal ROM
Diminished/absent distal pulse
Femur fracture
Pain & inability to bear wt.
Shortening of affected leg
Internal or external rotation of leg
Edema and deformity of thigh
S&S hypovolemic shock
Pelvic fracture (stable or unstable)
Look for S&S of possible large volume blood loss
Possible uretrobladder injury (look for blood in meatus)
Shortening or abnormal rotation of leg on affected side

75
Q

When do we use a Hare traction and what else do we need to do for its use?

A

Only on closed fractures; Always assess neuro function first
Measure patient and adjust along for length along uninjured leg
Remove shoe and clothing
Apply manual traction to injured leg til splint applied
Once applied check neuro status and do not remove till definitive care can be provided

76
Q

When is “hypothermia” diagnosed?

A

core body temp lower than 95F

77
Q

What are some causes of hypothermia?

A

cold water drowning, prolonged exposure to the cold, disease lowering metabolism, administration of large amounts of cold IV fluids or blood products

78
Q

What are some symptoms of severe hypothermia?

A
No palpable pulses or heart sounds
Dilated pupils
Rigor mortis type state
Ventricular fibrillation leading to cardiac arrest
Loss of deep tendon reflexes
79
Q

What is used in active core re-warming?

A

Heated IV fluids, warmed humidification of oxygen, warmed irrigation of bladder, hemodialysis, lavage with warm fluids of peritoneum, stomach, and mediastinum

80
Q

What electrolyte imbalance can occur with re-warming?

A

Hyperkalemia; treat with calcium, chloride, sodium bicarbonate, glucose with insulin as ordered.

81
Q

What position should we keep the patient in during re-warming?

A

Horizontally

82
Q

What lines should be started in all shock states

A

2 large bore IVs

83
Q

For volume replacement: what solution do we use usually?

A

Crystalloids- lactated ringers or saline), colloids, or blood to replace fluid volume. NEVER 5% dextrose in water or 0.45% saline (as they are hypotonic solutions)

84
Q

What “rule” do we follow for crystalloid solutions and volume replacement?

A

3 mL of crystalloid solution needed to replace each 1 mL of blood loss (3-for-1 rule, 300-mL replacement for 100-mL blood loss)… May need 250 mL up to 2 liters
Monitor V/S and hourly I&O
Assess response to fluid replacement by output>30ml/hr, lowering HR and increasing B/P (MAP 65-70 mm Hg)