Trauma Flashcards

1
Q

What is the first step in the evaluation of trauma?

A

Airway assessment and protection.

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2
Q

When is an airway considered protected?

A

If the patient is conscious and speaking in a normal tone of voice.
If unconscious then look and feel (منطلع على الصدر ومتسمع الصوت ومنحس النفس)

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3
Q

When is an airway considered unprotected?

A

If there is an expanding hematoma, subcutaneous emphysema in the neck, noisy gurgly breathing, or GCS <8.

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4
Q

How can an airway be secured in the field?

A

Suctioning of secretions and fluid
Simple airway maneuvers ( jaw thrust , OPA ,NPA , chin lift )
Advanced airway maneuvers( cuffed endotracheal tube )
Cricothyroidotomy

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5
Q

What is the preferred method of securing an airway in the emergency department?

A

Rapid sequence induction and orotracheal intubation with pulse oximetry monitoring.

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6
Q

Can orotracheal intubation be done in the presence of a cervical spine injury?

A

Yes, as long as the head is secured and in-line stabilization is maintained.

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7
Q

What is another option for airway management in cervical spine injury?

A

Nasotracheal intubation over a fiberoptic bronchoscope.

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8
Q

What should be done if severe maxillofacial injuries preclude intubation?

A

Cricothyroidotomy may become necessary.

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9
Q

Why is tracheostomy preferred over cricothyroidotomy in pediatric patients?

A

Due to the high risk of subglottic stenosis as the cricoid is much smaller than in adults.

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10
Q

What is a common complication of endotracheal intubation?

A

Right mainstem bronchus intubation.

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11
Q

What are the signs of right mainstem bronchus intubation?

A

Asymmetric chest expansion and decreased or absent breath sounds on the left side.

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12
Q

What is the ideal location for the distal tip of the endotracheal tube?

A

2-6 cm above the carina.

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13
Q

Why does an ETT advanced too far preferentially enter the right main bronchus?

A

Because the right mainstem bronchus diverges from the trachea at a non-acute angle.

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14
Q

How is right mainstem bronchus intubation corrected?

A

By pulling back the endotracheal tube slightly.

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15
Q

What is the first step in managing cervical spine trauma in the field?

A

Stabilize the cervical spine with a backboard, rigid cervical collar, and lateral head supports.

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16
Q

Why is early airway assessment important in cervical spine trauma?

A

Unstable lesions above C3 can cause immediate paralysis, and lower cervical lesions can damage the phrenic nerve.

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17
Q

What is the preferred method of airway management in cervical spine trauma?

A

Orotracheal intubation with rapid-sequence intubation unless there is significant facial trauma.

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18
Q
A
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19
Q

What are the key steps in prehospital management of cervical spine trauma?

A

Spinal immobilization, careful helmet removal, and airway oxygenation.

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20
Q

What are examples of spinal immobilization techniques in prehospital care?

A

Backboard, rigid cervical collar, and lateral head supports.

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21
Q

How should helmets be handled in cervical spine trauma?

A

They should be carefully removed (e.g., motorcycle helmet).

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22
Q

What is the preferred method of intubation in cervical spine trauma unless there is significant facial trauma?

A

Orotracheal intubation.

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23
Q

When is rapid-sequence intubation indicated in cervical spine trauma?

A

For unconscious patients who are breathing but need ventilatory support.

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24
Q

What precaution should be taken during intubation in cervical spine trauma?

A

In-line cervical stabilization should be maintained unless it interferes with intubation.

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25
Q

What imaging is recommended for evaluating cervical spine trauma in the emergency department?

A

CT of the entire cervical spine.

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26
Q

What type of shock should be monitored for in cervical spine trauma?

A

Neurogenic shock from spinal cord injury.

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27
Q

What is the definition of trauma?

A

An injury due to energy transfer from an inflicting source.

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28
Q

What are the two main types of trauma?

A

Blunt trauma and penetrating trauma.

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29
Q

What is the primary goal in trauma assessment?

A

To assess and respond before irreversible damage or death occurs.

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30
Q

What are the key components of the primary survey in trauma?

A

cABCDE: Control exsanguinating hemorrhage, Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure.

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31
Q

Why is the mechanism of injury important in trauma?

A

It helps predict hidden injuries and guides further assessment.

32
Q

What is the Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) approach?

A

A systematic approach to managing trauma patients.

33
Q

What are the three factors considered in trauma assessment?

A

Mechanism of injury, pre-existing patient factors, and injuries found.

34
Q

What is the first priority in trauma resuscitation?

A

Airway management and cervical spine control.

35
Q

What is the significance of tension pneumothorax in trauma?

A

It is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate decompression.

36
Q

What is the role of a trauma team leader?

A

To coordinate activities, manage time, interpret findings, and plan treatment.

37
Q

What is permissive hypotension?

A

A resuscitation strategy to maintain low but adequate blood pressure to prevent excessive bleeding.

38
Q

What is the ratio of blood products in massive transfusion?

A

1:1:1 ratio of packed RBCs, fresh frozen plasma, and platelets.

39
Q

What is the purpose of tranexamic acid in trauma?

A

It reduces mortality by preventing excessive fibrinolysis in bleeding patients.

40
Q

What imaging modality is the gold standard for multiple trauma patients?

A

Whole-body CT (WBCT) with IV contrast.

41
Q

What is damage control surgery (DCS)?

A

A staged surgical approach focusing on rapid hemorrhage control and stabilization before definitive repair.

42
Q

What are the stages of damage control surgery?

A

Resuscitation, Hemorrhage control, Decompression, Decontamination, Fracture splintage.

43
Q

What is the purpose of a pelvic binder in trauma?

A

To stabilize pelvic fractures and control hemorrhage.

44
Q

What are the four triage categories in mass casualty incidents?

A

Immediate (Red), Urgent (Yellow), Delayed (Green), Dead (Black).

45
Q

What are the key indicators of adequate resuscitation?

A

Pulse <100 bpm, normal BP, RR, urine output >30 mL/hr, normal lactate and ABG.

46
Q

What is the ‘triad of death’ in trauma?

A

Acidosis, coagulopathy, and hypothermia.

47
Q

What are the clinical signs of shock?

A

Low BP (<90 mm Hg systolic), tachycardia (>100 bpm), low urine output (<0.5 ml/kg/h), pale, cold, shivering, sweating, thirsty, and apprehensive.

48
Q

What are the main types of shock in trauma?

A

Hypovolemic (due to hemorrhage, most common) and cardiogenic (due to pericardial tamponade or tension pneumothorax).

49
Q

How does hemorrhagic shock differ from cardiogenic shock in terms of CVP?

A

Hemorrhagic shock causes collapsed neck veins (low CVP), while cardiogenic shock causes jugular venous distension (high CVP).

50
Q

How to differentiate pericardial tamponade from tension pneumothorax?

A

Tamponade: no respiratory distress; Tension pneumothorax: severe dyspnea, unilateral breath sounds absent, tracheal deviation.

51
Q

What is the initial treatment of hemorrhagic shock?

A

Volume resuscitation with blood products in a 1:1:1 ratio (RBCs, plasma, platelets) and control of bleeding.

52
Q

What is the preferred route of fluid resuscitation in trauma?

A

Two large-bore peripheral IV lines; if unavailable, subclavian or femoral vein catheters are used.

53
Q

What is pericardial tamponade?

A

Bleeding into a stiff pericardium leading to compression of the heart, elevated JVP, and obstructive shock.

54
Q

What is Beck’s triad for cardiac tamponade?

A

Hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and jugular venous distension.

55
Q

What is the immediate treatment for acute cardiac tamponade?

A

Pericardiocentesis or surgical pericardiotomy to remove pericardial fluid and lower pressure.

56
Q

How does chronic pericardial tamponade differ from acute?

A

Chronic tamponade accumulates fluid slowly (1-2L), allowing pericardium to stretch; acute needs only 100-200mL to cause shock.

57
Q

What is the immediate management of tension pneumothorax?

A

Large-bore needle decompression followed by chest tube placement.

58
Q

What are the common indications for central venous catheter (CVC) placement?

A

Critical care medications, difficult vascular access, long-term medication administration (e.g., chemotherapy).

59
Q

What are the preferred sites for CVC placement?

A

Internal jugular vein (ultrasound-guided) or subclavian vein (anatomic landmark-guided).

60
Q

What are the complications of CVC placement?

A

Venous perforation, lung puncture (pneumothorax), myocardial perforation (tamponade), arterial puncture.

61
Q

Where should a CVC tip be placed for ideal positioning?

A

Lower superior vena cava, just proximal to the angle between the trachea and right mainstem bronchus.

62
Q

How does we administer Tranexamic acid in trauma patients ?

A

1g in first 10 min and 1g in subsequent 8hrs
Should be administered in the first 3 hrs of trauma

63
Q

To whom do we give Tranexamic acid ?

A

To all trauma patients suspected to have massive hemorrhage
BP <110 mmHg
HR>110bpm

64
Q

In massive transfusion blood products must be ———— before transfused

A

Must be warmed

65
Q

Hot report and detailed report ??

A

Hot report with tin minutes from whole body CT to identify immediately life threatening conditions
Detailed report within 30-60 min

66
Q

In the patient requiring immediate laparotomy do we remove pelvic binder ?

A

No the correctly positioned pelvic binder at the level of greater trochanter should not obstruct the laparotomy

67
Q

Disability include?

A

GCS
Pupils assessment
Core temperature
C spine protection +log roll
WBCT

68
Q

Why must trauma patients be adequately exposed during the secondary survey?

A

To allow a thorough and systematic clinical examination for other injuries.

69
Q

What precaution must be taken when exposing trauma patients?

A

They must be kept warm to prevent hypothermia.

70
Q

Why are trauma patients at high risk of hypothermia?

A

Because of exposure during assessment and shock-related heat loss.

71
Q

What is the consequence of hypothermia in trauma patients?

A

It increases the risk of coagulopathy, impairing blood clotting.

72
Q

How can normal body temperature be maintained in trauma patients?

A

By minimizing unnecessary exposure and using warmed blankets, trolleys, and warmed fluids during resuscitation.

73
Q

Breathing include ?? 2 points

A

Breathing sounds (absent or decreased)
Pulse oximetry for saturation

74
Q

What effect does positive pressure mechanical ventilation have on intrathoracic pressure?

A

It causes an acute increase in intrathoracic pressure.

75
Q

How can increased intrathoracic pressure affect venous return in hypovolemic patients?

A

It can collapse venous capacitance vessels, such as the inferior vena cava, reducing venous return to the heart.

76
Q

What is the impact of sedatives used prior to intubation on venous capacitance vessels?

A

Sedatives cause relaxation of venous capacitance vessels, which can further decrease venous return.

77
Q

Why is decreased venous return a concern in severely hypovolemic patients?

A

It can lead to decreased cardiac output and worsen hemodynamic stability.