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**GBNREMT > Trauma > Flashcards

Trauma Flashcards

1
Q

MOI

A

Mechanism of injury

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2
Q

coup brain injury

A

occurs under the area of impact with an object; associated with cerebral contusions

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3
Q

contrecoup bran injury

A

occurs opposite side of area that was hit; associated with cerebral contusions

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4
Q

3 key assessments for fall injuries

A
  1. distance fallen (>15 or 3x patients height)
  2. surface struck
  3. body part landed on
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5
Q

primary blast injury

A

injuries due to pressure wave of the blast

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6
Q

secondary blast injury

A

injuries due to flying debris

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7
Q

tertiary blast injury

A

injuries caused by being thrown against a stationary object

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8
Q

miscellaneous blast injury

A

injuries due to burns, inhalation injury, etc.

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9
Q

minimum/maximum score for glasgow coma scale

A

3/15

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10
Q

level 1 trauma center

A

all types of trauma 24/7

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11
Q

level 2 trauma center

A

stabilize trauma patients and transferring to level 1 trauma center

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12
Q

level 3 & 4 trauma center

A

limited services and ability to stabilize patients

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13
Q

arteries (what does blood look like)

A

spurting, bright red blood

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14
Q

veins (what does blood look like)

A

steady flow of dark red blood

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15
Q

capillaries (what does blood look like)

A

slow oozing dark red blood, might be mixed with clearish fluid

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16
Q

How do you control external hemorrhages

A

first method: apply direct pressure with dry sterile dressing
second method: tourniquet
third: hemostatic agent with direct pressure

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17
Q

how do you control soft tissue injuries

A

direct pressure, elevate area

tourniquet if needed

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18
Q

compartment syndrome

A

caused by compression of nerves, blood vessels, and muscle in a closed space within the body; tissue cannot receive adequate blood supply

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19
Q

5 basic interventions for bleeding

A
  1. direct pressure for external bleeding
  2. high-flow oxygen
  3. place patient supine
  4. prevent heat loss
  5. high-priority transport
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20
Q

epistaxis

A

noseblood

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21
Q

superficial (first degree burns)

A

epidermal damage only

painful, red, no blisters

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22
Q

partial thickness (second degree burns)

A

epidermal and partial dermal injury

painful, blisters present

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23
Q

full thickness (third degree burns)

A

injury completely through dermal layer

dry, leathery skin; no pain

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24
Q

strain

A

stretching injury to muscle or tendon

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25
Q

sprain

A

injury to ligament

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26
Q

what are the life threatening orthopedic injuries

A
  • pelvic fractures (>hypovolemic shock, embolism, pneumonia, sepsis)
  • femur fracture (can cause hypovolemic shock, pulmonary embolism)
  • amputation (bleeding)
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27
Q

pelvic binder

A

commercial splint used to stabilize pelvis and reduce bleeding

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28
Q

when do you assess distal pulse, motor, and sensation (PMS) when splinting?

A

BEFORE AND AFTER

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29
Q

when splinting, where do you immobilize in relation to the injury

A

above and below

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30
Q

what should you do if the distal pulse is absent with a deformed injury?

A

make one attempt to realign with gentle in line traction (pulling) and reassess distal circulation

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31
Q

crepitus

A

a grating sound or sensation produced by friction between bone and cartilage or the fractured parts of a bone

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32
Q

what do you use a traction splint

A

closed, midshaft femur fractures

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33
Q

contraindications to a traction splint

A

open femur fracture, or injury to hip, knee, lower leg, or ankle on same side as femur fracture

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34
Q

linear skull fracture

A

skull fracture that does not present with a deformity or depression; there is a break in the bone, but it does not move the bone

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35
Q

depressed fracture

A

type of fracture usually resulting from blunt force trauma; comminuted fractures in which broken bones displace inward.

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36
Q

basal skull fracture (and symptoms)

A

occurs at the base of the skull. Symptoms may include bruising behind the ears, bruising around the eyes, or blood behind the ear drum. A cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak occurs in about 20% of cases and may result in fluid leaking from the nose or ear.

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37
Q

cerebral contusion (and symptoms)

A

heterogeneous zone of brain damage that consists of hemorrhage, cerebral infarction, necrosis, and edema
signs include signs of concussion and at least one of the following:
decreasing mental status, unresponsive, pupillary changes, changes in vital signs, obvious behavioral abnormalities

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38
Q

epidural hematoma

A

bleeding beneath skull but above dura matter; extremely dangerous due to increase arterial bleeding and increased intracranial pressure

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39
Q

subdural hematoma

A

bleeding above brain

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40
Q

cardiac tamponade

A

when blood or other fluid accumulates in the pericardial sac and compresses the heart

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41
Q

what is beck’s triad

A

indicates cardiac tamponade:

  1. JVD
  2. muffled heart sounds
  3. hypotension
    - also narrowing pulse pressure (difference between systolic and diastolic pressures)
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42
Q

what is a subcutaneous emphysema?

A

crackling sensation upon palpation due to air escaping the fatty tissue

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43
Q

hollow organs ____ their contents when injured; solid organs _____their contents when injured

A 
hollow = spill
solid = bleed
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44
Q

orbital fractures can be indicative of what other injury

A

spinal injury; usually indicate extreme MOI

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45
Q

when do you remove an object in the cheek

A

if it is causing an airway obstruction

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46
Q

priorities for neck injuries

A
  1. secure the airway
  2. control life-threatening bleeding
  3. apply occlusive dressing to large open neck injury to reduce risk of air embolism
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47
Q

how do you transport a knocked out tooth

A

rinse in saline and transport in saline-soaked gauze

48
Q

is there shivering during extreme hypothermia?

A

no

49
Q

vital signs during severe hypothermia

A

bradycardia, bradypnea, hypotension (vitals are so depressed, patient can appear in cardiac arrest)

50
Q

what happens if you warm too rapidly

A

can cause ventricular fibrillation

51
Q

should you rub frostbite/frostnip?

A

no

52
Q

should you apply heat to frostbite/frostnip?

A

no

53
Q

when you suspect heatstroke, where should you place cold packs?

A

groin, neck, armpits

54
Q

how does cardiac output change during pregnancy?

A

increases by 30-40%

55
Q

when is CPR, beginning with chest compressions, indicated for unresponsive children?

A

if their pulse is under 60 bpm

56
Q

which medication is intended to decrease myocardial workload and increase myocardial blood flow?

A

nitroglycerin - vasodilator, so it can increase blood flow to the heart and reduce systemic vascular resistance

57
Q

How does nitroglycerin work?

A

it is a vasodilator, so it can increase blood flow to the heart and reduce systemic vascular resistance

58
Q

Your patient is unresponsive following blunt trauma to the head. Which of the following is the EMT’s first priority for an unresponsive patient?

A

Determine if CPR is indicated

59
Q

proximal vs. distal

A 
proximal = closer to the midline
distal = farther away
60
Q

You are caring for an apneic patient with a suspected overdose. You have loaded the patient into the ambulance and entered the patient compartment. You should first:

A

Put on your seat belt.

61
Q

T/F Infants typically breathe through their nose

A

True

62
Q

are infants more susceptible to hypoxia than adults?

A

Yes

63
Q

is hypoxia is a common cause of bradycardia in infants?

A

yes

64
Q

what is seesaw breathing

A

indicative of the severity of the airway obstruction

65
Q

left side of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the _______

A

pulmonary veins

66
Q

What provides oxygenated blood directly to the heart?

A

coronary arteries

67
Q

What carries deoxygenated blood away from heart to the lungs

A

pulmonary arteries

68
Q

The pulmonary veins are the only veins which carry _________ blood.

A

oxygenated

69
Q

T/F The parasympathetic nervous system exerts control over digestive functions.

A

true

70
Q

Nerve agents and choking agents are _____agents

A

chemical

71
Q

How does aspirin work?

A

Aspirin reduces platelet aggregation in the coronary arteries

72
Q

T/F primary assessment must be conducted before determining if an epi-pen should be administered.

A

True

73
Q

You respond to a preschool facility for an ill child. Upon arrival, you find an unresponsive 8-month-old. The infant has a palpable pulse of 50 beats per minute. Your next action should be to:

A

begin chest compressions

74
Q

what is the CAB sequence

A

for unresponsive patients - chest compressions first, then airway and breathing

75
Q

what is the correct compression to ventilation ratio for two-person CPR on a child

A

15 compressions to 2 breaths

76
Q

what is the correct compression to ventilation ratio (any age) with a single rescuer

A

30 to 2

77
Q

what are the three components of circulation that should be included in the primary assessment?

A

Pulses, bleeding, and skin condition

78
Q

where should you assess circulation in unresponsive patients over one year of age?

A

carotid pulse

79
Q

when is rapid extrication indicated?

A

for patients with potential life-threatening injuries

80
Q

what’s the first priority for an unresponsive patient?

A

initiate CPR!!!!

81
Q

what is supine hypotensive syndrome?

A

weight of the fetus and uterus compresses the inferior vena cava. This reduces the return of blood to the heart, reducing cardiac output and blood pressure.

82
Q

solid organs

A

liver, spleen, kidneys, adrenal glands and pancreas (much more likely to cause internal bleeding)

83
Q

hollow organs

A

stomach, intestines, gallbladder, bladder, and rectum (more likely lead to infection)

84
Q

normal capillary refill time?

A

2 seconds

85
Q

Peripheral vasodilation helps the body dissipate/conserve body heat.

A

dissipate; peripheral vasoconstriction helps the body conserve body heat

86
Q

when should penetrating chest wounds be covered with an occlusive dressing?

A

before applying trauma dressing (and before continuing to assess vitals)

87
Q

T/F Adult AED pads should be used on a pediatric patient if no pediatric pads are available.

A

True

88
Q

how do you treat supine hypertensive syndrome

A

place the patient on the left side

89
Q

Acute hypoglycemia causes sudden/gradual loss of consciousness

A

sudden b/c it’s a sudden drop in blood glucose levels

90
Q

T/F Manual c-spine precautions should be taken before applying a cervical collar, assessing PMS, or performing a secondary assessment.

A

True

91
Q

how to tell difference between pneumothorax vs hemothorax

A

pneumothorax will have hyper-resonance to percussion, but a hemothorax will have a hypo-resonance to percussion

92
Q

how long should you check for a pulse before starting CPR

A

10 seconds

93
Q

coke overdose pupils

A

dilated pupils

94
Q

graves disease

A

thyroid disease

symptoms - bulging eyes, tachycardia

95
Q

what is the most common cause of airway obstruction

A

the tongue

96
Q

subtypes of distributive shock

A

sepsis, neurogenic, anaphlaxis

97
Q

4 types of shock

A

cardiogenic, distributive, hypovolemic, obstructive

98
Q

tension pneumothorax signs

A

affected side will have diminished lung sounds (b/c it is collapsing)
tachycardia
hypoxia
late stage sign - trachea will go over to the side that isn’t being compressed

99
Q

what’s a risk factor for abruptae placenta

A

cocaine

100
Q

which condition makes you cough up pink frothy sputum?

A

CHF (coughing up blood tinge)

101
Q

signs of CHF

A

rales, pink frothy sputum, hypertension, JVD

102
Q

what condition makes you cough up green yellow sputum

A

pneumonia - think infection

103
Q

difference between CHF vs pneumonia

A

CHF = pink frothy sputum

pneumonia - infection in body, yellow/green sputum, tachycardia, hypoxia

104
Q

what should be secured to a backboard first

A

upper torso

105
Q

patients with suspected shock should be placed in what position

A

supine

106
Q

signs of decompensated shock

A

falling blood pressure, weak pulse, loss of consciousness, cold skin

107
Q

what is systemic vascular resistence?

A

also called peripheral vasoconstriction

108
Q

what is nasal flaring a sign of

A

pediatric respiratory distress

109
Q

what is pursed lip breathing a sign of

A

COPD

110
Q

what is respiratory alkalosis and the cause

A

high levels of carbon dioxide disrupt the blood’s acid-base balance
- breathing excessively (fever, hyperventilation, aspirin overdose, etc)

111
Q

anticholinergic agents block ________nerves

A

parasympathetic

112
Q

mallory weiss syndrome

A

partial tearing of the esophagus

113
Q

unstable patients should be assessed every ___ minutes

A

5 minutes

114
Q

how does albuterol work

A

relaxes bronchial muscles (bronchodilator)

115
Q

right shoulder pain coupled with rigid distended abdomen can mean ____

A

lacerated liver

116
Q

left upper quadrant pain can indicate a______

A

spleen injury

117
Q

areas to assess in the rapid exam

A

head, neck, chest, abdomen, pelvis, extremities, back

**GBNREMT (3 decks)

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