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Surgical Recall > Transplant Surgery > Flashcards

Transplant Surgery Flashcards

1
Q

What is an autograft?

A

Same individual is both donor and recipient

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2
Q

What is an isograft?

A

Donor and recipient are genetically identical

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3
Q

What is an allograft?

A

Donor and recipient are genetically dissimilar, but of the same species

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4
Q

What is a xenograft?

A

Donor and recipient belong to different species

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5
Q

What is an orthotopic transplant?

A

Donor organ is placed in normal anatomic position

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6
Q

What is a heterotopic transplant?

A

Donor organ is placed in a different site than the normal anatomic position

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7
Q

What is a paratopic transplant?

A

Donor organ is placed close to original organ

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8
Q

What is chimerism?

A

Sharing cells between the graft and donor

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9
Q

What are histocompatibility antigens?

A

Distinct (genetically inherited) cell surface proteins of the human leukocyte antigen (HLA) system

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10
Q

Why are histocompatibility antigens important?

A

They are targets (class I antigens) and initiators (class II antigens) of immune response to donor tissue

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11
Q

Which cells have class I antigens?

A

All nucleated cells

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12
Q

Which cells have class II antigens?

A

Macrophages, monocytes, B cells, activated T cells, endothelial cells

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13
Q

What are the gene products of MHC called in humans?

A

HLA

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14
Q

What is the location of the MHC complex?

A

Short arm of chromosome 6

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15
Q

What is a haplotype?

A

Combination of HLA genes on a chromosome inherited from one parent (thus, two siblings have a 25% chance of being haploidentical)

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16
Q

Does HLA matching matter in organ transplantation?

A

With recent improvement in immunosuppression, the effect is largely obscured, but it still does matter.
The most important ones to match in order to improve renal allograft survival are HLA-B and HLA-DR.

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17
Q

What is the source of T cells?

A

Thymus

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18
Q

What is the function of T cells?

A

Cell-mediated immunity and rejection

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19
Q

What are the types of T cells?

A

Th (CD4): helper T cells (help B cells become plasma cells).
Ts (CD8): suppressor T cells (regulate immune response).
Tc (CD8): cytotoxic T cells (kill cell by direct contact).

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20
Q

What is the function of B cells?

A

Humoral immunity

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21
Q

What is the cell type that produces antibodies?

A

B cells differentiate into plasma cells

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22
Q

What is a macrophage?

A

Monocyte in parenchymal tissue

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23
Q

What is the function of macrophages?

A

Process foreign protein and present it to lymphocytes

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24
Q

What is an APC?

A

Antigen-Presenting Cell

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25
Q

What is the sequence of events leading to antibody production?

A
  1. Macrophage engulfs antigen and presents it to Th cells. The macrophage produces IL-1.
  2. Th cells then produce IL-2, and the Th cells proliferate.
  3. Th cells then activate (via IL-4) B cells that differentiate into plasma cells, which produce antibodies against the antigen presented.
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26
Q

Who needs to be immunosuppressed?

A

All recipients (except autograft or isograft)

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27
Q

What are the major drugs used for immunosuppression?

A

Triple therapy: corticosteroids, azathioprine, cyclosporine/tacrolimus.
Also, OKT3, ATGAM, mycophenolate.

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28
Q

What is the advantage of triple therapy immunosuppression?

A

Employs three immunosuppressive drugs, therefore, a lower dose of each can be used, decreasing the toxic side effects of each

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29
Q

What is induction therapy?

A

High doses of immunosuppressive drugs to induce immunosuppression

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30
Q

Which corticosteroid is most commonly used in transplants?

A

Prednisone

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31
Q

How does prednisone function?

A

Primarily blocks production of IL-1 by macrophages and stabilizes lysosomal membrane of macrophages

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32
Q

What is the associated toxicity with corticosteroids?

A

Cushing’s syndrome, alopecia, striae, HTN, diabetes, pancreatitis, ulcer disease, osteomalacia, aseptic necrosis (especially of the femoral head)

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33
Q

What is the relative potency of the commonly used corticosteroids?

A

Cortisol: 1
Prednisone: 4
Methylprednisone: 5
Dexamethasone: 25

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34
Q

How does azathioprine (Muran) function?

A

Prodrug that is cleaved into mercaptopurine.

Inhibits synthesis of DNA and RNA, leading to decreased cellular (T/B) production.

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35
Q

What is the associated toxicity with azathioprine?

A

Toxic to bone marrow (leukopenia and thrombocytopenia), hepatotoxic, associated with pancreatitis

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36
Q

When should a lower dose of azathioprine be administered?

A

When WBC is < 4

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37
Q

What is the associated drug interaction involving azathioprine?

A

Decrease dose if patient is also on allopurinol, because allopurinol inhibits the enzyme xanthine oxidase, which is necessary for the breakdown of azathioprine

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38
Q

What is the function of cyclosporine?

A

Inhibits production of IL-2 by Th cells

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39
Q

What is the associated toxicity with cyclosporine?

A

11 H’s and 3 N’s:
Hepatitis, Hypertrichosis, gingival Hyperplasia, Hyperlipidemia, Hyperglycemia, Hypertension, HUS, Hyperkalemia, Hypercalcemia, Hypomagnesemia, Hyperuricemia.
Nephrotoxicity, Neurotoxicity (headache, tremor), Neoplasia (lymphoma, KS, SCC).

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40
Q

What drugs increase cyclosporine levels?

A

Diltiazema, ketoconazole, erythromycin, fluconazole, ranitidine

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41
Q

What drugs decrease cyclosporine levels?

A

Dilantin, Tegretol, rifampin, isoniazid, barbiturates

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42
Q

What are the drugs of choice for hypertension from cyclosporine?

A

Clonidine, CCBs

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43
Q

How does ATGAM function?

A

Antibody against thymocytes, lymphocytes (polyclonal)

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44
Q

What is ATGAM?

A

Anti-thymocyte globulin

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45
Q

When is ATGAM typically used?

A

Induction

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46
Q

What is the associated toxicity with ATGAM?

A

Thrombocytopenia, leukopenia, serum sickness, rigors, fever, anaphylaxis, increased risk of viral infection, arthralgia

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47
Q

How does OKT3 function?

A

Monoclonal antibody that binds CD3 receptor (on T cells)

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48
Q

What is a major problem with multiple doses of OKT3?

A

Blocking antibodies develop, and OKT3 is less effective each time it’s used

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49
Q

What are basiliximab and daclizumab?

A

Anti-CD25 monoclonal antibodies

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50
Q

What is tacrolimus also known as?

A

Prograf (FK506)

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51
Q

How does tacrolimus work?

A

Blocks IL-2 receptor expression, inhibits T cells

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52
Q

What is the potency of tacrolimus compared to cyclosporine?

A

100-fold

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53
Q

What are the side effects of tacrolimus?

A

Nephrotoxicity and CNS toxicity (tremor, seizure, parasthesia, coma), hyperkalemia, alopecia, diabetes

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54
Q

What is sirolimus also known as?

A

Rapamycin, Rapamune

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55
Q

How does sirolimus work?

A

Blocks T-cell signaling

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56
Q

What is the associated toxicity with sirolimus?

A

Hypertriglyceridemia, thrombocytopenia, wound-healing problems, anemia, oral ulcers

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57
Q

What is MMF?

A

Mycophenolate MoFetil (CellCept)

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58
Q

How does MMF work?

A

Inhibitor of inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase required for de novo purine synthesis which expanding T and B cells depend on.
Also inhibits adhesion molecule and antibody production.

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59
Q

How is ABO crossmatching performed?

A

Same procedure as in blood typing

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60
Q

What is the purpose of lymphocytotoxic crossmatching?

A

Tests for HLA antibodies in serum.

Most important in kidney and pancreas transplants.

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61
Q

How is HLA crossmatching performed?

A

Mix recipient serum with donor lymphocyte and rabbit complement

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62
Q

Is HLA crossmatching important?

A

Yes, for kidney and pancreas transplants

63
Q

How many methods of rejection are there?

A

2: humoral and cell-mediated

64
Q

What are the 4 types of rejection and their associated time courses?

A
  1. Hyperacute (immediate in OR)
  2. Accelerated acute (7-10 days post-transplant)
  3. Acute (weeks-months post-transplant)
  4. Chronic (months-years post-transplant)
65
Q

What happens in hyperacute rejection?

A

Anti-graft antibodies in recipient recognize foreign antigen immediately after blood perfuses transplanted organ

66
Q

What happens in acute rejection?

A

T cell-mediated rejection

67
Q

What type of rejection is responsible for chronic rejection?

A

Cellular, antibody (humoral), or both

68
Q

What is the treatment for hyperacute rejection?

A

Remove transplanted organ

69
Q

What is the treatment for acute rejection?

A

High-dose steroid/OKT3

70
Q

What is the treatment for chronic rejection?

A

Not much (irreversible) or re-transplant

71
Q

What is the optimal storage temperature of an organ?

A

4 C (keep on ice in a cooler)

72
Q

Why should the transplant organ be kept cold?

A

Cold decreases the rate of chemical reactions.

Decreased energy use minimizes effects of hypoxia and ischemia.

73
Q

What is U-W solution?

A

University of Wisconsin solution, containing potassium phosphate, buffers, starch, steroids, insulin, electrolytes, adenosine.
Used to perfuse an organ prior to removal from the donor.

74
Q

Why should U-W solution be used?

A

Lengthens organ preservation time

75
Q

What is the maximum time between heart harvest and transplant?

A

6 hours

76
Q

What is the maximum time between lung harvest and transplant?

A

6 hours

77
Q

What is the maximum time between pancreas harvest and transplant?

A

24 hours

78
Q

What is the maximum time between liver harvest and transplant?

A

24 hours

79
Q

What is the maximum time between kidney harvest and transplant?

A

72 hours

80
Q

In what year was the first kidney transplant performed in man?

A

1954

81
Q

Who performed the first human kidney transplant?

A

Joseph E. Murray

82
Q

What are the indications for kidney transplant?

A

Glomerulonephritis, pyelonephritis, polycystic kidney disease, malignant HTN, reflux pyelonephritis, Goodpasture’s syndrome, congenital renal hyperplasia, Fabry’s disease, Alport’s syndrome, renal cortical necrosis

83
Q

What is renal failure?

A

GFR < 20-25% of normal.

As GFR drops to 5-10% of normal, uremic symptoms begin (e.g. lethargy, seizures, neuropathy, electrolyte disorders).

84
Q

What is the most common cause for kidney transplants?

A

Diabetes

85
Q

What are the sources of donor kidneys?

A

Deceased donor (70%), living related donor

86
Q

What survival rate is associated with kidney transplant from deceased donor source?

A

1-year patient survival: 90% if HLA-matched, 80% if not.

3-year graft survival: 75%.

87
Q

What survival rate is associated with kidney transplant from living related donor source?

A

1-year patient survival: 95%

3-year graft survival: 85%

88
Q

What are the tests for kidney compatibility?

A

ABO, HLA typing

89
Q

If a choice of left or right donor kidney is available, which is preferred?

A

Left (longer renal vein allows for easier anastomosis)

90
Q

Should the placement of the transplanted kidney be heterotopic or orthotopic? Why?

A

Heterotopic (retroperitoneal in the RLQ or LLQ above the inguinal ligament).
Preserves native kidneys, allows easy access to iliac vessels, places ureter close to the bladder, easy to biopsy kidney.

91
Q

What anastomoses are formed with a heterotopic kidney transplant?

A
  1. Renal artery to iliac artery
  2. Renal vein to iliac vein
  3. Ureter to bladder
92
Q

What is the correct placement of the ureter in a heterotopic kidney transplant?

A

Submucosally through the bladder wall (decreases reflux)

93
Q

What is the differential diagnosis of post-renal transplant fluid collection?

A

HAUL:

Hematoma, Abscess, Urinoma, Lymphocele

94
Q

What is the indication for removal of native kidneys in a kidney transplant?

A

Uncontrollable HTN, ongoing renal sepsis

95
Q

What is the red flag that indicates kidney rejection?

A

Increased creatinine

96
Q

How is U/S with Doppler used in the workup for kidney rejection?

A

Look at flow in portal vein, hepatic artery.

Rule out thrombosis, leaky anastomosis, infection (abscess).

97
Q

How is a cholangiogram used in the workup for kidney rejection?

A

Look at bile ducts

98
Q

How is a biopsy used in the workup for kidney rejection?

A

Especially important 3-6 weeks post-op, when CMV is of greatest concern

99
Q

Does hepatorenal syndrome renal function improve after liver transplant?

A

Yes

100
Q

What percentage of kidney transplant patients requires re-transplant?

A

20%

101
Q

What are the reason for kidney re-transplant?

A

Primary graft dysfunction, rejection, infection, vascular thrombosis, recurrence of primary disease

102
Q

Who performed the first pancreas transplant?

A

Richard C. Lillehei and William D. Kelly (1966)

103
Q

What are the indications for pancreas transplant?

A

Type I (juvenile) diabetes associated with severe complications (renal failure, blindness, neuropathy) or very poor glucose control

104
Q

What are the tests for pancreas compatibility?

A

ABO, HLA-DR matching (class II)

105
Q

What is the placement of a pancreas transplant?

A

Heterotopic, in iliac fossa, or paratopic

106
Q

Where is anastomosis of the exocrine duct in heterotopic pancreas placement? Why?

A

To the bladder.

Measures the amount of amylase in urine, gives an indication of pancreatic function.

107
Q

What is the associated electrolyte complication with pancreas transplants?

A

Loss of bicarbonate

108
Q

Where is anastomosis of the exocrine duct in paratopic pancreas placement?

A

To the jejunum

109
Q

What is the advantage of paratopic pancreas placement?

A

Endocrine function drains to the portal vein directly to the liver, and pancreatic contents stay within the GI tract (no need to replace bicarbonate)

110
Q

What are the red flags indicating pancreas rejection?

A

Hyperamylasemia, hyperglycemia, hypoamylasuria, graft tenderness

111
Q

Why should the kidney and pancreas be transplanted together?

A

Kidney function is a better indicator of rejection.

Also better survival of graft is associated with kidney-pancreas transplant than pancreas alone.

112
Q

Why is hyperglycemia not a good indicator for pancreas rejection surveillance?

A

Appears relatively late with pancreatic rejection

113
Q

Who performed the first heart transplant?

A

Christiaan Barnard (1967)

114
Q

What are the indications for heart transplant?

A

< 65 years with terminal acquired heart disease

115
Q

What are the contraindications to heart transplant?

A

Active infection, poor pulmonary function, increased pulmonary artery resistance

116
Q

What are the tests for heart compatibility?

A

ABO, size

117
Q

What is the placement for a heart transplant?

A

Orthotopic anastomosis of atria, aorta, pulmonary artery

118
Q

What is sewn together in a heart transplant?

A

Donar heart atria, pulmonary artery, aorta are sewn to the recipient heart atria, pulmonary artery, aorta

119
Q

What are the red flags of heart rejection?

A

Fever, hypotension or hypertension, increased T4/T8 ratio

120
Q

What is coronary artery vasculopathy?

A

Small vessel occlusion from chronic rejection of heart transplant.
Often requires re-transplant.

121
Q

What are the tests for heart rejection?

A

Endomyocardial biopsy

122
Q

What are survival statistics for heart transplants?

A

1 year: 85%

5 years: 65%

123
Q

What is the anastomosis in a living donor intestinal transplantation?

A

Ileocolic artery and vein

124
Q

What is the anastomosis in a deceased donor intestinal transplantation?

A

SMA, SMV

125
Q

What are the indications for an intestinal transplantation?

A

Short gut syndrome, motility disorders, inability to sustain TPN (liver failure, lack of venous access, etc.)

126
Q

What is a common postoperative problem with intestinal transplantations other than rejection?

A

GVHD from lymphoid tissue in transplanted intestines

127
Q

What is GVHD?

A

Graft-Versus-Host Disease

128
Q

What is the most common cause of death after intestinal transplantation?

A

Sepsis

129
Q

How is intestinal rejection surveillance conducted?

A

Endoscopic biopsies

130
Q

What is the clinical clue to intestinal rejection?

A

Watery diarrhea

131
Q

Who performed the first lung transplant?

A

James Hardy (1963)

132
Q

What are the indications for lung transplant?

A

Pulmonary fibrosis, COPD, eosinophilic granuloma, primary pulmonary HTN, Eisenmenger’s syndrome, CF

133
Q

What are the contraindications to lung transplant?

A

Current smoking, active infection

134
Q

What tests comprise the pre-transplant assessment of a lung recipient?

A
  1. Pulmonary: PFTs, VQ scan
  2. Cardiac: echo, cath, angiogram
  3. Exercise tolerance test
135
Q

What are the lung donor requirements?

A

< 55 years; clear CXR; PA O2 tension of 300 on 100% O2 and 5 cm PEEP; no purulent secretions on bronchoscopy

136
Q

What are necessary anastomoses in a lung transplant?

A

Bronchi, PA, pulmonary veins (bronchial artery not necessary)

137
Q

What are the postoperative complications with lung transplant?

A

Bronchial necrosis or stricture, reperfusion, pulmonary edema, rejection

138
Q

What are the red flags of lung rejection?

A

Decreased arterial O2 tension; fever; increased fatigability; infiltrate on CXR

139
Q

What is chronic lung rejection called?

A

Obliterative bronchiolitis

140
Q

What are the survival rates for lung transplant?

A

1 year: 80%

3 years: 70%

141
Q

What are 4 major complications of transplants?

A
  1. Infection
  2. Rejection
  3. Post-transplant lymphoproliferative disease
  4. Complications of steroids
142
Q

What are the usual agents of infection post-transplant?

A

DNA viruses (CMV, HSV, VZV)

143
Q

When should CMV infection be suspected post-transplant?

A

> 21 days

144
Q

What is the time of peak incidence of CMV infections post-transplant?

A

4-6 weeks

145
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of post-transplant CMV infection?

A

Fever, neutropenia, signs of transplant rejection.

Also can present as viral pneumonitis, hepatitis, colitis.

146
Q

How is post-transplant CMV infection diagnosed?

A

Biopsy of transplant to differentiate rejection; cultures of blood, urine

147
Q

What is the treatment for post-transplant CMV infection?

A

Ganciclovir +/- immunoglobulin

148
Q

What are the complications of ganciclovir?

A

Bone marrow suppression

149
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of post-transplant HSV infection?

A

Herpetic lesions, shingles, fever, neutropenia, rejection of transplant

150
Q

What is the treatment for post-transplant HSV infection?

A

Acyclovir until patient is asymptomatic

151
Q

What are the most common types of post-transplant malignancies?

A

Skin/lip cancer, B-cell cancer, cervical cancer, T-cell lymphoma, Kaposi’s sarcoma

152
Q

What is post-transplant lymphoma associated with?

A

Multiple doses of OKT3; EBV; youth

153
Q

What is the treatment for post-transplant lymphoproliferative disease?

A

Drastically reduce immunosuppression, +/- XRT, +/- chemotherapy

Surgical Recall (68 decks)

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