Transitions of Care Flashcards

1
Q

What may be the first and most significant care transition a patient will experience in their medical care

A

Hospital admission

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2
Q

What is the goal of transition of information from the emergency department

A

Transfer information and clarify who is responsible for patient care

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3
Q

What is the risk of transition of information from the emergency department?

A
  • Delay between information exchange and physical relocation creates opportunity for error and safety issues
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4
Q

What should information from ED to hospitalist include?

A
  • Principal diagnosis and problem list (acute and persistent chronic)
  • Medication list (home and current)
  • Patient cognitive status
  • Test results/pending results (and who is responsible for those pending)
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5
Q

What are reasons additional information or workup may be requested by the accepting physician in a ED transition?

A
  • Determine level of inpatient care
  • Determine appropriate admitting service (does it need to be a specialist?)
  • Based on timing to obtain critical information
  • ED boarding can be a problem (stay in ED when beds aren’t available)
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6
Q

What are benefits of ambulatory office/direct admit?

A

May save hours of waiting in the ED/help reduce ED overcrowding

But not common :(

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7
Q

What are important components to consider when selecting a patient for direct admit?

A
  • Ensure admission to correct care location and ensure they are not at risk for deterioration prior to admit
  • Prolonged wait at admission could lead to decompensation
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8
Q

Selection recommendations for direct admission

A
  • Admitting diagnosis is fairly certain/no additional triage is needed
  • Patient is clinically stable- does not require supplemental O2, immediate IV fluids, antibiotics, or urgent imaging
  • Has been evaluated on the day of admission by PCP
  • Arrives at hospital early in the day (before 4 pm) to facilitate communication between the admitting physician and the hospital team before shift change
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9
Q

Communication between the PCP and hospitalist during a ambulatory office/direct admit should include

A
  • Rationale for admission
  • Working diagnosis
  • Problem list
  • Key history components and recent changes
  • Relevant laboratory and radiologic results
  • Medication list and allergies
  • Patient/family preferences and support system
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10
Q

Risks and benefits of transfer from outlying facility/hospital to hospital

A
  • 3-5% of admissions
  • Higher severity of illness/medically complex
  • Improved disease-specific transfers ie MI and trauma
  • Overall, higher morbidity and mortality that cannot always be accounted for by severity of illness alone
  • Benefit should outweigh risk
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11
Q

Risks of interhospital transfer prior to transfer

A
  • Delay in care initiation due to lack of expertise
  • Delay in care finding and accepting facility/delayed transport
  • Inappropriate transfer
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12
Q

Risks of interhospital transfer during transfer

A
  • Decompensation during transfer
  • Arrival at night
  • Arrival to inappropriate level of care
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13
Q

Risks of interhospital transfer after transfer

A
  • Discontinuity of care plan
  • Unneccessary and/or duplicative testing
  • Medication errors
  • Back-end discontinuity
  • No shared EMR
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14
Q

Common components of skilled nursing facility transfer

A
  • Medically complex
  • Frequently unable to provide coherent medical history or describe their medication regimen
  • Frequently present with non-specific complaints such as falls, dehydration, or confusion, and without accurate info, will result in more investigations, particularly head CTs
  • Less likely to be accompanied by relative or caregiver
  • Many (10%) transferred without documentation and additional 40% missing information such as baseline cognitive function, current medications, and advanced directive status
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15
Q

What are patients transferred from a skilled nursing facility at risk for?

A
  • Medication errors
  • Unnecessary testing
  • Inappropriate/unwanted care
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16
Q

When is transition of responsibility from emergency department?

A
  • May be ambiguous
  • Do patients leave the ED immediately after being accepted for admission? (often no may stay in ED)
  • Institutions should have a clear plan for transfer of responsibility including shift changes and standardized order sets to be initiated in ED prior to transfer to inpatient unit
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17
Q

When is transfer of responsibility from ambulatory office/outlying hospital/SNF?

A
  • Admitting/transferring provider responsible for patient while they remain at facility and once patient leaves admitting/transferring facility they become responsibility of accepting provider
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18
Q

When admitting a patient what admission status do you choose between?

A

Inpatient and outpatient

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19
Q

How do you determine whether a patient should be admitted inpatient or outpatient?

A
  • Outpatient if admitting physician expects to stay in hospital less than 2 midnights
  • Inpatient if admitting physician expects patient to stay in hospital more than 2 midnights
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20
Q

If it is unclear whether a patient will need to stay 1 or 2 midnights, what admission type would they be?

A

Outpatient until expectation develops that patient will require second midnight. At that point, inpatient admission order would be written by physician

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21
Q

If a 46 year old male presents for cardiac catheterization due to abnormal stress test and requires stents to the LAD and must stay overnight for observation, is he inpatient or outpatient?

A

Outpatient, but may change to inpatient if complications require 2nd midnight stay

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22
Q

What are the 3/4 unit types available at most hospitals?

A
  • Intensive care units: may be broken down by organ system or specialty in large centers
  • Intermediate care/step down units: may not be present at smaller hospitals
  • Telemetry units (provides continuous ECG monitoring)
  • Medical/surgical wards (non-monitored units)
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23
Q

Do patients always stay in the unit they were admitted to?

A

No! They may start in one unit and transfer to one or more other units throughout admission, based on condition

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24
Q

Who goes to telemetry?

A
  • Chest pain/CAD
  • Syncope of suspected cardiac origin
  • After electrophysiologic procedures/ablations
  • After pacemaker or ICD implantation procedures
  • Other cardiac conditions such as infective endocarditis and HF
  • Postconscious sedation
  • Noncardiac surgery
  • Stroke
  • Moderate to severe K or Mg imbalance
  • Drug overdose
  • Hemodialysis
  • Sepsis

Need for telemetry reassessed on patient daily

still need to observe and assess patient frequently

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25
Q

What has resulted in the need for care coordination and focus on transitions, particularly for the hospitalized elderly population?

A

Complex hospital care delivery models leading to increased fragmentation of care

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26
Q

What is the handoff?

A
  • Fluid, dynamic exchange
  • Regarding patient admission, change of service, discharge, or any other time of communication
  • Subject to distraction and interruptions
  • Dependent on on-coming clinican’s confidence in the quality and completeness of information
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27
Q

What is the leading root cause of sentinel events?

A
  • Communication

sentinel event = patient safety event

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28
Q

What are the types of intrahospital handoffs

A
  • Shift change
  • Service change
  • Service transfer
29
Q

Which types of intrahospital handoffs require written documentation?

A
  • Service change
  • Service transfer
30
Q

What is a shift change intrahospital handoff?

A

Transfer of content and professional responsibility from one clinican to another at the end of the shift

31
Q

What is a service change intrahospital handoff?

A
  • Permanent transfer of content and professional responsibility at the end of one’s on-service time or rotation to a new physician or team or providers who will assume ongoing care of the patients
32
Q

What is a service transfer intrahospital handoff?

A
  • Change of service from care of one group of clinicans to entirely different group of clinicans, usually from a different specialty or ward, to receive a different service that is unique to the receiver’s specialty or ward
33
Q

Core components of handoffs

A
  • Verbal communication: allows for questioning and reading back information relayed and received, focus on what receiver really needs to know
  • Written communication that supplements verbal handoff with additional information
  • Transfer of professional responsibility: acknowledgement of accountability for patient’s care
34
Q

Goal of verbal communication in handoffs

A

Build a shared mental model for a patient, including tasks and priorities

35
Q

Core steps to the handoff process

A
  • Pre-handoff: sender organizes and updates written information
  • Arrival: sender completes patient care tasts to conduct handoff and negotiates time and place
  • Dialogue: specific verbal exchange between sender and receiver
  • Post-handoff: receiver integrates new information and assumes ongoing care of patients
36
Q

Standardized handoff methods

A
  • IPASS
  • SBAR
37
Q

Components of IPASS

A
  • I: Introduction = introduce yourself
  • Patient: Name, identifiers, age, sex, location
  • A: assessment = “the problem”, procedure, etc.
  • S: Situation - current status/circumstances, uncertainty, changes
  • S: Safety concerns - critical lab values/reports; threats, pitfalls, alerts`
38
Q

Components of SBAR

A
  • S: Situation –> What is going on with the patient
  • B: Background –> relevant information about history, background, prior diagnosis
  • A: Assessment –> what you think is going on and needed
  • R: Recommendations –> what you are asking the physician to do
39
Q

Why is the hospital discharge transition a vulnerable time for patients?

A
  • Adverse outcomes common with 50% experiencing a medical error and 20% suffering an adverse event
  • Leads to readmission
  • If back within 24 hours = discharge failure, hospital admin will assess for medical error
40
Q

What can cause unsuccessful discharge transitions?

A
  • Premature discharge, inappropriate discharge setting
  • Unrecognized medical, functional, social needs
  • Poor social support, low health literacy
  • Specific clinical conditions: CHF, psychiatric comorbidities
  • Inadequate handoffs: pending tests, additional work up, incomplete or unreceived discharge summary
  • Delayed or unscheduled follow up
  • Lack of advanced care planning
  • Failure to ensure comprehension of disease education or discharge information
  • Medication-related problems
41
Q

What medication related problems can cause unsuccessful discharge transitions?

A
  • Adverse drug events
  • Failure to obtain necessary medications
  • Therapeutic duplication
  • Poor adherence
42
Q

Key elements of discharge care coordination

A
  • Appropriate discharge destination
  • Proactive scheduling of follow-up appointments
  • Careful medication reconciliation
  • Engagement of patients and caregivers
43
Q

When does discharge planning begin

A
  • At admission
  • Continues throughout hospitalization in parallel to medical evaluation and treatment plan
44
Q

What are the msot common discharge locations?

A
  • Home with or without caregivers
  • Home with home health services
  • Inpatient rehabilitation facilities
  • Skilled nursing facilities
  • Long-term acute care hospitals
  • Extended care facilities
45
Q

What are specific certification or medicare requirements for skilled nursing facilities

A
  • Qualifying event of 3-night inpatient stay
  • skilled needs >1 hour per day, 5 d per week
  • Initial physician visit required within 30 d of admission to facility
46
Q

What nursing/physician/rehab/diagnostic services are available at skilled nursing facilities?

A
  • Nursing services: 2-4 h per patient per day
  • Physician services: physician visit every 30 d; often utilize nonphysician providers for medically necessary visits
  • Rehab: physical, occupational, speech therapy approx 1 hr per day
  • Diagnostic: off-site lab and radiology, limited ability to manage unstable patients
47
Q

What are specific certification or medicare requirements for inpatient rehabilitation facilities?

A
  • 75% fall into 13 diagnosis categories
  • Require multidisciplinary therapy
  • > 3 h of therapy per day, 5 d per week
48
Q

Nursing/physician/rehab/ diagnostic services available at inpatient rehabilitation facilities

A
  • Nursing: 5-6 h per day
  • Physician: face to face visits by rehab physician at least 3 times per week
  • Rehab: multimodal services at least 3 h per day
  • Diagnostic: lab and radiology available, some ability to handle unstable patients
49
Q

Specific certification or medicare requirements for long term acute care hospitals

A
  • Average length of stay >25 days
  • Highly complex medical patients (ventilator management, complex wound care)
50
Q

Nursing/physician/rehab/diagnostic services available at long term acute care hospitals

A
  • Nursing: 5-6 h per patient per day
  • Physician: daily or near-daily physician visits; consultant specialists widely available
  • Rehab: multimodal services
  • Diagnostic: lab and radiology available, some ability to handle unstable patients
51
Q

Certification or medicare requirements for extended care facilities

A
  • Long term custodial care; reimbursement through medicaid
52
Q

Nursing/physician/rehab/diagnostic services for extended care facilities

A
  • Nursing: <2 h per patient per day
  • Physician: every 30 d
  • Rehab: physical, occupational, speech, recreational therapy
  • Diagnostic: off-site lab and radiology, limited ability to manage unstable patients
53
Q

Specific certification or medicare requirements for home health

A
  • Medicare requires face to face encounter form and physician certification of homebound status
54
Q

Nursing/physician/rehab/diagnostic services for home health

A
  • Nursing: examples wound care, IV, medication, disease education
  • Physician: requires physician to oversee plan of care
  • Rehab: physical, occupational, speech therapy
  • Diagnostic: N/A
55
Q

How should follow-up appointments be made?

A
  • Before patient leaves to ensure access to follow-up care
  • 50% rehospitalized within 30 days after discharge to community had no outpatient visit within 30 days
56
Q

Why are follow up appointments important?

A
  • Ongoing medical issues
  • Medication adjustments
  • Reassessment of treatment plan
57
Q

What are considerations for time frame of follow up?

A
  • Severity of acute illness
  • Pre-existing comorbidities
  • Ability to manage medications and self-care needs
  • Social issues such as transportation and caregiver support
  • Physician availability
58
Q

What is reasonable time frame for follow up for most patients?

A

7-14 days with instructions at discharge on red flag symptoms and who to contact with questions and concerns

59
Q

How soon is appropriate follow up for patients at high risk for readmission and adverse drug events?

A
  • 48-72 hours following discharge
60
Q

What is medication reconciliation?

A
  • Medication list obtained, compared, and clarified across different sites of care, in order to decrease medication errors during transitions
  • Opportunity to evaluation polypharmacy
  • Screen high alert drugs and inappropriate meds
  • Identify drug-drug and drug-disease interactions
  • Assess medication adherence
  • Barriers to adherence
  • Communicate updated list to patient
  • Includes explicit notation of medications added, discontinued, or changed during hospitalization
61
Q

Whose responsibility is medication reconciliation?

A

Shared responsibility with multidisciplinary team
* Long term care
* Patients
* Nursing
* Hospital pharmacy
* Provider
* Community pharmacy

62
Q

Fundamental component of the discharge planning process and may help bridge the discontinuity inherent between inpatient and outpatient settings

A

Patient engagement and education

63
Q

What are key components of patient education and engagement?

A
  • Ability to ask questions of health care providers
  • Enable patient access to medical information
  • Support communication with care providers
  • Facilitate self-management of illnesses

Patients recall and comprehend about 1/2 of information provided in medical encounter

64
Q

How should patient education and engagement be completed?

A
  • Small sessions throughout hospitalization
  • Reiterate main points
  • Provide written handouts
65
Q

Patient education and discharge instructions reviewed and comprehension ensured via what method

A

Teach back method

66
Q

Steps should be taken to create patient-centered instructions that are what?

A
  • Clear
  • Tailored to patient language and literacy
  • Focused on critical details of self-management
67
Q

What should be included in discharge instructions?

A
  • Reason for hospitalization
  • Treatment received
  • Names of clinicans involved in care if questions arise postdischarge
  • Pertinent test results as well as pending test results
  • Diet and activity
  • Medications, including any changes in regimen and potential side effects
  • Follow-up appointments
  • Identification of the person to contact with questions or concerns
  • List of concerning symptoms and how to respond
68
Q

What is important in the discharge summary?

A
  • Timeliness
  • Accuracy
  • Completeness
  • Quality
  • Allows communication with PCP

–> decreases risk of medical error

69
Q

Recommended components of the discharge summary

A
  • Primary and secondary diagnoses
  • Important test results
  • Pending results and responsible party
  • Recommendations regarding additional work-up or treatment plan
  • Patient’s condition at discharge (including cognitive and functional status and abnormal exam findings)
  • Complete list of reconciled medications
  • Follow up arrangements
  • Identification and contact information for sending and receiving providers
  • Resuscitation status
  • Documentation of patient education