Transition Flashcards

1
Q
  1. With squadron supervisor approval, pilots may reduce gross weight by burning down fuel to apredetermined usable fuel weight prior to taking the runway for takeoff. (AFI 11-2T-38 Vol 3)
A

TRUE

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2
Q
  1. For local sorties, begin briefings a minimum of 1 hour before scheduled takeoff. (AFI 11-2T-38Vol 3)
A

TRUE

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3
Q
  1. An alternate mission: (AFI 11-2T-38 Vol 3)
A

TRUE

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4
Q
  1. If unit-developed checklists are used in lieu of flight manual checklists, carrying a flight manualchecklist and having it immediately available on all flights is optional. (AFI 11-2T-38 Vol 3)
A

TRUE

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5
Q
  1. The crew chief will repeat ground visual signals when it is safe to operate the system. (AFI 11-2T38 Vol 3)
A

TRUE

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6
Q
  1. Objects will not be placed on top of the glare shield during start with canopies open. (AFI 11-2T38 Vol 3)
A

TRUE

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7
Q
  1. Minimum taxi interval is: (AFI 11-2T-38 Vol 3)
A

150 feet staggered or 300 feet in trail.300 feet when ice or snow is present.May be reduced when holding short of or entering the runway.

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8
Q
  1. Do not takeoff when: (AFI 11-2T-38 Vol 3)
A

The runway condition reading (RCR) is less than 10.Computed takeoff roll exceeds 80% of the available runway (single ship or interval).Computed takeoff roll exceeds 70% of the available runway (element takeoff).

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9
Q
  1. For operations without a remotely controlled BAK-15, when DS is less than RS-BEO, go/no-gospeed is: (AFI 11-2T-38 Vol 3)
A

RS-BEO

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10
Q
  1. For operations without a remotely controlled BAK-15, when DS is greater than RS-EF, takeoffsare not authorized. (AFI 11-2T-38 Vol 3)
A

TRUE

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11
Q
  1. When aircraft operate on a runway with a remotely controlled arresting system, pilots will remainon the frequency of the agency that controls the runway and the arresting system until safelyairborne. (AFI 11- 2T-38 Vol 3)
A

TRUE

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12
Q
  1. The MA-1A is suitable for stopping an aircraft with a travel pod. (AFI 11-2T-38 Vol 3)
A

FALSE

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13
Q
  1. The minimum runway required for operations is 8,000 feet or 7,000 feet with squadron supervision level approval. (AFI 11-2T-38 Vol 3)
A

FALSE

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14
Q
  1. The minimum airspeed for all maneuvering is 150 KTS unless conducting training under a formalsyllabus that specifies or allows a slower airspeed for the training to be conducted. (AFI 11-2T-38Vol 3)
A

TRUE

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a prohibited maneuver: (AFI 11-2T-38 Vol 3)
A

B. Overhead patterns to set up a practice single-engine go around using 60% or 100% flapsand both throttles until rolling out on final.

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16
Q
  1. During a simulated single-engine go-around, initiate the maneuver by: (AFI 11-2T-38 Vol 3)
A

C. 100 feet AGL (300 feet AGL if full flaps are used).

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17
Q
  1. Minimum items to check during an ops check are: (AFI 11-2T-38 Vol 3)
A

Fuel quantities, fuel balance.Oxygen system, G-suit connection (when appropriate), and cabin altitude.Engine instruments.

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18
Q
  1. All flight members will acknowledge understanding the initial air traffic control (ATC) clearance.(AFI 11-2T-38 Vol 3)
A

TRUE

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19
Q
  1. For low altitude procedures: (AFI 11-2T-38 Vol 3)
A

Wingmen will not fly a lower AGL altitude than lead at altitudes below 1,000 feet AGL.To ensure vertical separation by 2nm, climb no later than 3nm prior to an obstacle that flightleads are unable to visually acquire, or ensure lateral separation.Maintain a minimum of 500 feet above the highest terrain or obstacle within 1/2 nm of theaircraft.

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20
Q
  1. Radar altimeters will be set to a minimum of 500 feet AGL during low level operations. (AFI 11-2T-38 Vol 3)
A

FALSE

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21
Q
  1. Bingo fuel is: (AFI 11-2T-38 Vol 3)
A

A. A prebriefed fuel state which allows the aircraft to return to the base of intended landing oralternate, if required, using preplanned recovery parameters and arriving with normal recoveryfuel.

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22
Q
  1. Normal recovery fuel is: (AFI 11-2T-38 Vol 3)
A

C. The fuel on initial or at the FAF at the base of intended landing or alternate, if required.Established locally or 800 pounds, whichever is higher.

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23
Q
  1. Minimum fuel is: (AFI 11-2T-38 Vol 3)
A

C. 600 pounds or less.

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24
Q
  1. Emergency fuel is: (AFI 11-2T-38 Vol 3)
A

C. 400 pounds or less.

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25
Q

32+1. Reduced Same Runway Separation (RSRS) for landing trainer-type aircraft is: (AFI 13-204 Vol 3 AETC SUP)

A

-3,000 feet or preceding aircraft is airborne for similar aircraft -6,000 feet for dissimilar aircraft in all cases -6,000 feet or preceding aircraft is airborne if alternate runway side procedures are not employed

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26
Q
  1. Unless safety or circumstances dictate otherwise, minimum low approach altitude for chase aircraft during an emergency is: (2T-38 Vol 3)
A

300 feet AGL

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27
Q
  1. Local training flights are not permitted when steady state winds (forecast or actual) in training or operating at areas exceeds: (2T-38 Vol 3)
A

35 knots over land, 25 knots over water (or forecast or actual wave heights exceed 10 feet)

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28
Q
  1. Initiate the closed traffic pattern: (2T-38 Vol 3)
A

-At the departure end of the runway unless directed or cleared by local procedures or the controlling agency.-To plan to arrive on downwind between 200 and 240 KTS

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29
Q
  1. Climbs or descents through forecast icing conditions more severe than light rime are prohibited: (2T-38 Vol 3)
A

TRUE

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30
Q
  1. When stowing items in the rear cockpit, if it necessary to place items on or near the rear cockpit breaker panels, aircrews should: (2T-38 Vol 3)
A

-Ensure items do not exceed 8 inches in height-Visually confirm clearance exists between the balance weight arm and the stowed object with the canopy closed

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31
Q
  1. G-suits are required for all sorties (2T-38 Vol 3)
A

FALSE

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32
Q
  1. As a minimum, use the videotape recorder (VTR) or video-data transfer system (VDTS) to record: (2T-38 Vol 3)
A

NAME?

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33
Q
  1. For operations with a remotely controlled BAK-15, when DS is greater than RS-EF and less than TOS: (2T-38 Vol 3)
A

NAME?

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34
Q
  1. For operations without a remotely controlled BAK-15, when DS is greater than RS-BEO and less than RS-EF, takeoffs are authorized with OG/CC approval and go/no-go speed is: (2T-38 Vol 3)
A

RS-EF (only a rated pilot or student under IP supervision may perform the takeoff)

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35
Q
  1. Unless local procedures or unique runway surface conditions require landing beyond a given point on the runway, the desired touchdown point for a VFR approach is: (2T-38 Vol 3)
A

150-1,000 feet from the threshold

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36
Q
  1. Taxiing an aircraft with a single generator malfunction or failure is allowed: (2T-38 Vol 3)
A

FALSE

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37
Q
  1. Rear cockpit landings do not update normal (front) cockpit landing currencies (2T-38 Vol 3)
A

FALSE

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38
Q
  1. During the NAVAID ground checkpoint check, the allowable bearing pointer and CDI error is: (11-251)
A

Plus or minus 4 degrees from the depicted course to the station

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39
Q
  1. You may combine the climb check with the level-off check when your cruise altitude is at or below: (11-251)
A

FL 180

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40
Q
  1. Unless the controller directs otherwise, initiate the break between ____ and ____ down the runway. (11-251)
A

The approach end,3,000 feet

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41
Q
  1. Begin the closed pattern pull-up with a minimum of ____ and maintain a minimum of ____ until wings level downwind: (11-251)
A

240 KCAS; 200 KCAS

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42
Q
  1. Allow _____ seconds for landing-taxi light retraction and (or) closure of ram dump door prior to engine shutdown. (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

10

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43
Q
  1. The canopy seals will remain inflated if the engines are shutdown with _____, making the canopies more difficult to open. (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

both canopies locked

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44
Q
  1. Do not exceed _____ KCAS while taxiing with the canopies open. (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

50

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45
Q
  1. When using the canopy breaker tool, the curved edge of the blade must be _____. This will allow glancing blows against the canopy to deflect away from you. (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

toward you

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46
Q
  1. Aerodynamic braking is more effective than cautious wheel braking above: (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

100 KCAS

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47
Q
  1. If engine failure occurs after rotation, it will probably be necessary to lower the nose to attain speed above SETOS. (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

TRUE

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48
Q
  1. With the left engine inoperative with windmilling hydraulics, gear retraction, when initiated between SETOS+10 and 200 KCAS, may require up to: (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

1 minute

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49
Q
  1. During a single-engine takeoff/go-around, at high gross weight, with the landing gear extended, flap retraction should not be initiated prior to _____ KCAS. (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

220

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50
Q
  1. The effects of a tire failure are most pronounced at heavy gross weights and speeds below _____ KCAS. (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

100

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51
Q
  1. _____ should be attempted immediately upon detection of dual engine flameout at low altitudes, if time permits. (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

Alternate Airstart

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52
Q
  1. Do not crossfeed if: (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

Boost pump inoperativeEED or fuel quantity failureLeak in the fuel systemLow altitudeLow fuel (dual engine)

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53
Q
  1. During a restart in flight, leave the throttle at IDLE for _____ before aborting the start. (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

30 seconds

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54
Q
  1. After retarding the right throttle to idle for a fire light, the fire light immediately goes out. When you test the fire warning system, the right fire light does not illuminate. You should: (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

shut down the right engine

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55
Q
  1. Delaying placing the throttle to off after a fire warning light illuminates could result in possible loss of _____ from fire damage. (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

flight control system

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56
Q
  1. If smoke and fumes are encountered in the cockpit, select Oxygen - 100%. If odors persist, use of emergency oxygen bottle should be considered. (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

TRUE

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57
Q
  1. If either canopy is lost in flight, immediately slow to _____ KIAS or less to minimize turbulence and noise. (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

300

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58
Q
  1. After a 1.0 hour leg on a cross-country, the oil consumption was one quart. This is acceptable. (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

FALSE

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59
Q
  1. The minimum altitude recommended for bailout in a controlled situation is _____ feet AGL. (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

2000

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60
Q
  1. Under uncontrollable conditions, eject at a minimum of _____ feet AGL. (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

6000

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61
Q
  1. If _____ power is lost with the gear extended, the gear should be pinned prior to taxiing clear of the runway. (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

DC

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62
Q
  1. If the engine had previously been shut down due to a hydraulic over temperature, and the caution light has gone out, you can restart the engine if necessary. (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

TRUE

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63
Q
  1. If you suspect brake fluid venting overboard, pump the brakes in flight to ensure you will have pressure after landing. (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

FALSE

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64
Q
  1. Compared to a normal landing, a no-flap landing may increase the landing distance by: (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

Double

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65
Q
  1. If you suspect the right brake system has failed, with no other directional control problems, plan to land in (on) the _____ of the runway. (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

center

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66
Q
  1. The main wheel tire is rated to _____ knots (14 ply). (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

221

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67
Q
  1. Maximum allowable transient RPM is _____%. (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

107

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68
Q
  1. At full afterburner, the nozzles should read between: (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

50-85

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69
Q
  1. During cold weather starts, oil pressure above 55 psi may be observed. As the oil warms up, oil pressure should continue to decrease and return to normal operating limits. (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

TRUE

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70
Q
  1. Crossfeeding is recommended when fuel differences exceed _____ pounds. (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

200

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71
Q
  1. The maximum recommended crosswind component for a dry runway is _____ knots, wet runway is _____ knots, and for a runway containing standing water is _____ knots. (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

30, 20, 10

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72
Q
  1. Which of the following components is NOT lost when the cabin pressure switch is placed at RAM DUMP? (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

Anti-ice

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73
Q
  1. A _____ percent loss in MIL thrust and a _____ percent loss in MAX thrust can be expected with the engine anti-ice switch on. (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

8.5, 5.5

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74
Q
  1. The following post-flight actions shall be taken in the event of a deviation from a flight rule: (AFI 11-202 V3)
A

The PIC shall make a detailed written reportThe unit will keep a copy of the PIC’s detailed written record

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75
Q
  1. When performing an actual or simulated single-engine full-stop landing with 60% flaps, the landing roll will be approximately: (AFMAN 11-251)
A

500 feet longer than the full-flap landing distance

76
Q
  1. On normal inside downwind, slow to no less than _____. (AFMAN 11-251)
A

final turn airspeed

77
Q
  1. With gusty winds: (AFMAN 11-251)
A

Increase the final approach and landing speed by 1/2 the gust factor.

78
Q
  1. When the crosswind component exceeds 15 knots: (AFMAN 11-251)
A

A. Plan to touch down on the upwind side of the runway.B. Maintain the landing attitude and do not aerobrake

79
Q
  1. The _____ sensing system varies the nozzle area to maintain EGT within limits at both MIL and MAX range throttle positions. (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

T5

80
Q
  1. The throttles, when placed at OFF, electrically shut off fuel to the engine at the main fuel control and mechanically shut off fuel to the engine at the fuel shutoff valves. (T.O. 1T-38C-1)True or false?
A

FALSE

81
Q
  1. Normally, gravity feed will ensure sufficient fuel flow to operate the engines at up to MAX power from sea level to approximately feet. (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

25,000

82
Q
  1. If a fuel pressure caution light blinks while initiating the afterburner: (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

This is normal, continue mission

83
Q
  1. A rapid fuel imbalance can occur with the crossfeed switch on and: (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

A. both boost pumps off.B. both boost pumps on.

84
Q
  1. An airframe mounted gearbox for each engine operates a (an) _____ and a (an) _____. (T.O. 1T-38C- 1)
A

hydraulic pump; AC generator

85
Q
  1. If one or both transformer-rectifiers fail, the XFMR RECT OUT light on the console will illuminate. (T.O. 1T-38C-1) True or false?
A

FALSE

86
Q
  1. A single transformer-rectifier failure is indicated by: (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

a Pilot Fault List (PFL) display

87
Q
  1. Which lights cannot be dimmed using the Warning/Caution/Advisory Light Bright/Dim Switch? (T.O. 1T- 38C-1)
A

Fire warning lights

88
Q
  1. Front cockpit pilot should not place the left foot outboard of the rudder pedal due to the possibility of striking the landing gear handle interconnect linkage causing: (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

an uncommanded gear retraction

89
Q
  1. With the landing gear warning system activated and the aircraft accelerating, the light and tone may not go out until the airspeed reaches approximately . (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

240 KIAS

90
Q
  1. If one of the flap motors fails as you lower the flaps, you may expect: (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

both flaps to continue because they are interconnected by a rotary shaft

91
Q
  1. During alternate gear extension the alternate gear handle must be fully extended (approximately 10 inches) until all three gear are: (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

Unlocked

92
Q
  1. How can you deactivate the nosewheel steering system? (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

A. Release the nosewheel steering button.B. Place a throttle in MAX.C. Rotate the aircraft so that weight is no longer on the nosewheel.

93
Q
  1. If an open canopy has been exposed to jet blast, it should be checked for normal operation. If the canopy will not close: (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

do not taxi the aircraft until cleared by a qualified maintenance technician

94
Q
  1. If the canopy jettison is activated with the canopy in other than the closed and locked position, the canopy: (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

could fall off its hinges and into the cockpit.

95
Q
  1. Physically checking the gear handle full down during the “BEFORE EXTERIOR INSPECTION” is: (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

required by the tech order

96
Q
  1. The ___ will personally ensure that the rear canopy is closed and locked (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

Pilot

97
Q
  1. While stowing the outside handle, do not apply ___ pressure after the canopy is locked (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

Clockwise

98
Q
  1. If the aircraft will not accept external AC power, and the APU checks good: (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

cycle the battery off, then on

99
Q
  1. During your exterior inspection, applying excessive force to the AOA stops while checking the condition of the AOA vane will damage the (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

AOA synchro transmitter

100
Q
  1. If the engine light is normal but RPM doesn’t reach generator cut-in speed before termination of the start cycle, you should (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

push the engine start button to ensure aircraft electrical power is available

101
Q
  1. Abort the start if EGT does not begin to rise within (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

12 seconds after the first indication of fuel flow

102
Q
  1. (T/F) While accomplishing the flight controls check, the pilot must visually confirm proper movement of the actual flight control surfaces (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

TRUE

103
Q
  1. Nosewheel tires are severely damaged when maximum deflection turns are attempted at speeds in excess of ___ knots (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

10

104
Q
  1. To prevent possible canopy downlock mechanism damage, taxi with ___ and pressurized whenever practical (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

Both canopies open or closed

105
Q
  1. Allow a minimum of ___ minute(s) before takeoff behind any large type aircraft or helicopter and a minimum of ___ minutes behind heavy type aircraft (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

twofour

106
Q
  1. Abort the takeoff if the afterburner does not light in ___ seconds (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

5

107
Q
  1. When flying in gusty winds, increase which speeds by half the gust factor (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

Final approach and touchdown

108
Q
  1. After the gear is lowered from the back seat, what must the front seat pilot do? (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

Physically check the handle down

109
Q
  1. (T/F) Extreme CAUTION must be exercised when applying wheel brakes above 120 KIAS as locked wheels or tire skids are difficult to recognize. If tire skids are detected, immediately release both brakes and cautiously reapply (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

TRUE

110
Q
  1. After selecting RAM DUMP, you may have to wait ___ for the pressure to equalize (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

Several seconds

111
Q
  1. When an ___ fuel is used, you should annotate it in the AFTO 781 (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

Alternate or emergency

112
Q
  1. Anytime the aircraft departs a hard surface (taxiway or runway) (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

Immediately shut down both engines

113
Q
  1. (T/F) If either canopy fails to open or jettison, break through the canopy using the canopy breaker tool (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

TRUE

114
Q
  1. During an abort, in order to minimize the possibility of skidding, blown tires, etc., optimum braking should not be attempted at airspeeds above ___ (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

110 KCAS

115
Q
  1. When MA-1A barrier engagement is imminent, attempt to : (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

engage it perpendicular, in a three-point attitude, and if possible, in the center

116
Q
  1. (T/F) Flaps should not be repositioned during a high speed abort until the aircraft slows below no flap final approach speed (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

FALSE

117
Q
  1. Tests have demonstrated that optimum braking is difficult to achieve and should not be attempted at airspeeds above ___ KCAS (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

100 KCAS

118
Q
  1. MA-1A barrier engagement is unlikely with the (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

WSSP installed or speedbrake open

119
Q
  1. While accelerating to SETOS + 10 KCAS during a single-engine takeoff (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

The nose wheel tire limit may be exceeded prior to reaching SETOS + 10 KCAS

120
Q
  1. During a single-engine takeoff, gear door drag is not a factor above ___ KCAS (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

SETOS + 10 KCAS

121
Q
  1. (T/F) If engine failure occurs after takeoff, it may be necessary to allow the aircraft to settle back to the runway (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

TRUE

122
Q
  1. The BAK-15 is a large web-type barrier that fighter-type aircraft have successfully engaged at speeds up to ___ knots (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

200 knots

123
Q
  1. If unable to retract the landing gear, best single-engine level flight/climb capability is obtained at ___ with 60% flaps, or at ___ with the flaps up (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

200 KCAS, 220 KCAS

124
Q
  1. (T/F) During single-engine takeoff, the flap indicator should be checked to ensure flaps are within 60% range (55-65%) after the flaps are set at 60% (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

TRUE

125
Q
  1. (T/F) If you experience gear retraction failure; after placing the landing gear lever down and a safe gear down indication is obtained, do not retract or recycle the gear unless a greater emergency exists (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

TRUE

126
Q
  1. If the decision is made to zoom and eject because of dual engine failure at low altitude, it si imperative that the ejection sequence be initiated prior to reaching a (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

stall or sink rate

127
Q
  1. Do not delay ejection by attempting airstarts at low altitude if below the optimum airstart airspeed and below ___ feet AGL (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

2000 feet AGL

128
Q
  1. If dual engine failure occurs, attempt to restart the ___ engine first (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

Right

129
Q
  1. If normal corssfeed operation is continued until the active system runs dry:
A

Dual engine flameout will occur

130
Q
  1. After flight through icing conditions, which result in icing accumulations on the front canopy a 781 write up is necessary so that the engines will be inspected for damage.
A

TRUE

131
Q

If flight through moderate precipitation is unavoidable you should.

A

A slow minimum practical airspeed to lessen rain damage.

132
Q

Flight in moderate precipitation may damage the

A

Nose cone and vertical stabilizer

133
Q

The recommended best penetration airspeed if turbulence and thunderstorms are experienced is ____ KCAS

A

280

134
Q

Decision speed is the minimum speed at which the aircraft is able to experience an instantaneous engine failure and still accelerate to setos and takeoff in remaining runway.

A

TRUE

135
Q

On solo missions the rear cockpit standby should be

A

Uncaged

136
Q

Which components are lost when the cabin pressure switch is placed in RAM DUMP

A

Anti G suit, canopy defog, cabin pressurization, air conditioning, and canopy seal pressurization.

137
Q

The aircraft stall is characterized by airfram buffet and

A

High sink rate

138
Q

When experiencing any unrecognizable post stall gyrations ___________ until the aircraft settles into recognizable maneuver or recovers

A

Smoothly neutralize all flight controls

139
Q

The main fuel control performs the following functions automatically

A

Limits maine engine fuel flow during starts and rapid throttle movements, correctly positions inlet guide vanes, regulates engine speed at selected throttle position

140
Q

Throttle fiction can be adjusted by the pilot T/F

A

False, only ground maintenance

141
Q

After pressing the start button the ignition circuit will rrmain on for _____

A

30 seconds

142
Q

Placing either or both fuel shutoff switches to the closed positions shuts off both engines within ____

A

1 second

143
Q
  1. After landing, AAP switches will be turned off ____________ to ensure sufficient time for the EGI to store memory.
A

immediately prior to the initial tire and wheel check. ( 25 FTS Standards)

144
Q
  1. On RTB from the areas, Arrival (Ch 12) tells you, “[Callsign], cleared [Buffalo/Carrier]”. You should:
A

Maintain at or above 3000/3100 MSL until calling Buffalo/Carrier, and avoid Shoehorn’s pattern (remain outside 10 DME and/or 5000 MSL)

145
Q
  1. You are a straight-in at 5 miles and are told by Shoehorn to discontinue. You should:
A

Turn to the West at 2300 MSL. Follow discontinue ground track and climb to 2800 MSL when 1NM West of Drummond. Re-enter the pattern at the Re-Entry point

146
Q
  1. If requesting closed in the outside runway VFR pattern, and the controller tells you, “Continue,” you will…
A

continue straight ahead no higher than 1800 MSL and turn crosswind no later than 2 miles (half mile for offset traffic) past the departure end

147
Q
  1. You are on departure leg in the outside runway VFR pattern, and the controller tells you,”Departure leg, extend.” You should:
A

continue straight ahead and acknowledge, “[Callsign]”

148
Q
  1. For landing gear alternate extension with loss of intra-cockpit communication: The AC in the RCP will signal the FCP pilot to use the alternate gear extension by lowering the gear handle. If correct gear down indication is not achieved, the FCP pilot will perform the alternate gear extension checklist. (T/F)
A

TRUE

149
Q
  1. The minimum student turn time IAW T-38 SUPT Syllabus from an aircraft/simulator sortie to another aircraft/simulator sortie is ______?
A

2+45 takeoff/simulator start time to takeoff/simulator start time.

150
Q
  1. Following an unsatisifactory sortie, ground training lessons, academics, and academic testing may be accomplished if the unsatisfactory sortie is not a prerequisite to proceed in training. Aircraft or simulator prerequisites will be deferred until the student resumes normal training flow.T/F
A

TRUE

151
Q

When lightning within 5nm is declared:

A

Airborne aircraft will divert no later than reaching divert fuel limit.All ground operations will cease. Aircrew will remain in their aircraft and maintenance personnel will take shelterAircraft will stop taxiing at the first available location and hold their position until status improves

152
Q
  1. Tires will be changed when any tire limit is reached. Do not accept an aircraft with a red cord showing for any sortie, more than two cords for an out and back or pattern only or more than one cord for cross-country.T/F
A

TRUE

153
Q
  1. If it appears that a boost pump has failed and flight below 25,000 feet is impractical: (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

A. flight can be continued above 25,000 feet at reduced power settings.B. crossfeed may be used to ensure boost pump pressure if a reduced power setting is impractical.C. flight at lowest practical altitude and reduced power minimizes probability of fuel flow interruptions.->D. All of the above

154
Q
  1. With dual engine failure, the battery switch is not required to be ON to provide ignition if windmilling rpm is available. (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

True->False

155
Q
  1. If you suspect engine damage during a compressor stall, you should: (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

->A. advance the throttle above idle only if required.B. never advance the throttle above idle.C. advance the throttle cautiously above 80% to determine the maximum usable engine speed.1

156
Q
  1. A compressor stall may be recovered prior to complete flameout by: (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

A. selecting MAX power.B. rapidly retarding the throttle to idle.C. pressing the affected engine’s start button.D. A and C->E. B and C

157
Q
  1. When a fire light is preceded or accompanied by a pop, bang or thump, it usually indicates a serious engine malfunction and (or) fire. Consideration should be given to: (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

A. increasing airspeed.->B. shutting down the engine.C. ejecting.D. retarding the throttle to idle and checking the fire sensors.

158
Q
  1. If the engine cannot be shut down with the throttle, the _____ switch (affected engine) should be closed. (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

A. boost pump->B. fuel shutoffC. crossfeedD. generator

159
Q
  1. With boost pumps inoperative, engine flameout may occur if above 25,000 feet. (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

->TrueFalse

160
Q
  1. Vibrations accompanied by fumes and/or odors from the air conditioning system may indicate air conditioner turbine failure. You should: (T.O. 1T-38C-1
A

A. select oxygen - 100%B. descend below FL250C. select RAM DUMP->D. all of the aboveE. B and C

161
Q
  1. After losing a canopy, the minimum drag airspeed is approximately _____ KIAS. (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

A. 200->B. 225C. 250D. 275

162
Q
  1. Simultaneous failure of the engine RPM and oil pump (oil pressure zero) may be an indication of: (T.O. 1T-38C-1
A

A. Airframe mounted gearbox failure.B. Left generator failure without crossover.C. Right generator failure without crossover.->D. Oil pump shaft shear.

163
Q
  1. If the operating engine requires shutdown, the previously shutdown engine for an oil system malfunction may be restarted. (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

->TrueFalse

164
Q
  1. Under controlled flight, do not delay ejection below _____ feet in futile attempts to start the engines or for other reasons that may commit you to an unsafe ejection. (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

A. 1,000->B. 2,000C. 5,000D. 15,000

165
Q
  1. If the yaw damper switch is found OFF during flight: (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

->A. attempt to reset it to YAW one time.B. the mission must be terminated.C. do not attempt to reengage the yaw damper switch.D. check the stability augmenter circuit breaker in, reengage the yaw damper switch, and continue the mission

166
Q
  1. Simultaneous illumination of the generator and hydraulic caution lights for the same engine may indicate a gearbox failure. This can be confirmed by checking the appropriate _____ indicator. (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

A. oil pressure->B. hydraulic pressureC. nozzle

167
Q
  1. Hydraulic pressure provided solely by a windmilling engine will allow control of the aircraft for landing. (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

True->False

168
Q
  1. If utility hydraulic pressure is depleted: (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

A. land with all gear up.->B. stop straight ahead and have the gear pins installed prior to clearing the runway.C. the flight control hydraulic system backs up all the utility driven systems.D. the flaps will not extend

169
Q
  1. With dual hydraulic system failure: (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

->A. eject.B. hydraulic pressure provided solely by a windmilling engine is sufficient to control the aircraft forC. land as soon as conditions permit.D. B and C

170
Q
  1. Touchdowns as high as _____ KCAS are possible. (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

A. 180->B. 200C. 220D. 240

171
Q
  1. If takeoff is made with flab-slab interconnect system failure (non-locking): (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

A. a lighter than normal stick force will be required for rotation.B. a reduced amount of stick travel will be required for rotation.C. until the flaps are retracted, significant forward stick pressure will be required to keep the pitch from increasing.->D. all of the above

172
Q
  1. During an abrupt pitch-up due to interconnect system failure (nonlocking), the pilot must take corrective action within _____ second(s) to ensure recovery without loss of altitude. (T.O. 1T-
A

A. 1B. 2->C. 3D. 4

173
Q
  1. During single-engine landing, at high density altitude or high gross weights, selecting full flaps in the flare, an immediate touchdown and premature landing may occur. (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

->TrueFalse

174
Q
  1. If you have your nose gear up and one main gear extended, this is a landable configuration. (T.O
A

True->False

175
Q
  1. After landing with all gear up, the speedbrake may grind down beyond the actuator attach point and cause the nose to suddenly . (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

A. pitch upB. yaw->C. dropD. collapse

176
Q
  1. Vibrations accompanied by fumes and/or odors from the air-conditioning system may indicate failure of the: (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

->A. air conditioner turbineB. right/left airframe mounted gearboxC. right/left generatorD. right/left oil pump shaft

177
Q
  1. Normal load capacity of the WSSP is approximately _____ pounds. (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

A. 130->B. 140C. 150D. 160

178
Q
  1. An overstress failure of the main landing gear sidebrace trunnion may occur if the gear is: (T.O. 1T-38C-1
A

A. extended with greater than 30 degrees of bank.B. extended/retracted with greater than 45 degrees of bank.C. extended at greater than 1.5 Gs.->D. B or C.

179
Q
  1. The nosewheel tire is rated to knots groundspeed. (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

->A. 174B. 195C. 204D. SETOS + 10

180
Q
  1. Spins may be intentionally entered when flying dual with a qualified T-38 spin pilot. (T.O. 1T-38C-
A

True->False

181
Q
  1. Total fluctuations in EGT of _____ degrees are acceptable if the average EGT is between _____ and _____ degrees C. (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

A. 10 (+/-5), 620, 645B. 10 (+/-5), 630, 650C. 15 (+/-7.5), 630, 645->D. 15 (+/-7.5), 630, 650

182
Q
  1. Nozzle position at MIL is _____ %. (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

->A. 0 - 20B. 20 - 55C. 50 - 85D. 50 - 100

183
Q
  1. Following rapid throttle movements, nozzles should stabilize within _____ seconds. (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

A. 2B. 5->C. 10D. 15

184
Q
  1. Aircraft fuel flow limits in MIL power on the ground are _____ pph at sea level. (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

A. 2100-2500B. 400-600->C. 2100-2700D. 360 (MAX)

185
Q
  1. If full aileron deflection in the direction of the spin is not maintained, spin recovery may be prolonged or prevented. (T.O. 1T-38C-1)
A

->TrueFalse