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TR- POST TEST Flashcards

1
Q

Which of these antibodies is found primarily in glandular secretions as mucus, tears and saliva and attack pathogens before they enter the body?

A. IgE
B. IgA
C. IgD
D. IgG

A

B. IgA

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2
Q

Which of these elements are characteristic of the endocrine system of glands.?

i. high degree of vascularization
ii. elaborate duct system
iii. no ducts
iv. epithelial structures
v. independence from controlling factors

A. i, ii, iv
B. i, iii, iv
C. i, iii, v
D. ii, iv, v
E. iii, iv, v

A

B. i, iii, iv

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3
Q

The shoulder joint is a synovial joint which can be classified on the basis of the movement it permits as a:

A. syndesmosis
B. uniaxial joint
C. biaxial joint
D. multiaxial joint
E. condyloid joint

A

D. multiaxial joint

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4
Q

During light microscopic examination of a tissue, you note a vessel that has no smooth muscle but a large amount of connective tissue at its periphery. Which of the following vessels are you examining?

A. Arteriole
B. Venule
C. Elastic artery
D. Capillary
E. Large vein

A

D. Capillary

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5
Q

Which group of muscles can all adduct the arm at the shoulder joint?

A. Pectoralis major, Latissimus dorsi, Supraspinatus
B. Deltoid, Teres Minor, Subscapularis
C. Teres Major, Latissimus Dorsi, Pectoralis Major
D. Infraspinatus, Supraspinatus, Subscapularis
E. Both c and d

A

C. Teres Major, Latissimus Dorsi, Pectoralis Major

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6
Q

The stratum that is present in thick skin only.

A. Basale
B. Spinosum
C. Lucidum
D. Granulosum
E. Corneum

A

C. Lucidum

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7
Q

Each of the following arteries is a branch of the subclavian artery EXCEPT

A. right carotid.
B. thyrocervical.
C. suprascapular.
D. transverse cervical.
E. vertebra

A

A. right carotid.

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8
Q

The foramen ovale in the fetal heart

A. Allows blood to enter the fetal lungs
B. Allows blood returning from the head to enter the left atrium
C. Allows blood returning from the placenta to enter the left atrium
D. Prevents blood in the right atrium from entering the left atrium
E. Allows blood in the right ventricle to enter the left ventricle

A

C. Allows blood returning from the placenta to enter the left atrium

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9
Q

Which of the following statements regarding musculature of the abdomen is FALSE?

A. The external oblique muscle contracts to increase abdominal pressure.
B. The internal oblique muscle is innervated by the lower intercostal, iliohypogastric, and ilioinguinal nerves.
C. The external oblique muscle is innervated only by the lower intercostal nerves.
D. The transverse muscle contracts to flex the vertebral column.
E. The rectus abdominis muscle originates at the pubic symphysis and inserts into the xiphoid process, as well as costal cartilages 5-7

A

D. The transverse muscle contracts to flex the vertebral column.

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10
Q

The gallbladder arises from the _____.

A. Common hepatic duct
B. Common bile duct
C. Left hepatic duct
D. Cystic duct
E. Bile canalicul

A

A. Common hepatic duct

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11
Q

Cell division in the oral mucosa takes place at:

A. Stratum spinosum
B. stratum germinativum
C. stratum corneum
D. Stratum granulosum

A

B. stratum germinativum

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12
Q

The pituitary gland plays an essential role in the regulation of hormone production of a number of endocrine glands. Endocrine glands that are not influenced by the pituitary gland include the

A. thyroid gland, testes and adrenal medulla
B. adrenal medulla, parathyroids and the islets of langerhans
C. adrenal cortex, parathyroids and ovaries
D. pancreas, adrenal medulla and thyroid gland
E. ovaries and testes and the adrenal cortex

A

B. adrenal medulla, parathyroids and the islets of langerhans

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13
Q

At the ankle joint, the tibia and fibula articulate with the:

A. Calcaneus
B. Navicular
C. Talus
D. Cuboid
E. Cuneiform

A

C. Talus

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14
Q

Synovial joints

i. always possess a cavity lined by synovial membranes
ii. generally permit free movement than non synovial joints
iii. may or may not permit angular movement
iv. are found only in the appendicular skeleton
v. occur only between two bones

A. i, ii, iii
B. i, iii, iv
C. i, iv, v
D. i, ii, iv
E. ii, iv

A

A. i, ii, iii

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15
Q

The submucosa is present in each of the following, except:

A. Colon
B. stomach
C. jejunum
D. gallbladder
E. duodenum

A

D. gallbladder

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16
Q

Damage to a dorsal root of a spinal nerve would destroy

i. incoming somatic sensory fibers
ii. Outgoing somatic motor fibers
iii. Incoming visceral sensory fibers
iv. Outgoing visceral motor fibers
v. axons of cells located in dorsal root ganglia

A. i, iii and v
B. i,ii and iii
C. i, iii and iv
D. ii, iii and iv
E. iii, iv and v

A

A. i, iii and v

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17
Q

Which of the following is true for ventricles?

A. Located at the base of the heart
B. Myocardial cells contain abundant granules
C. Receive blood directly from the venae cavae and pulmonary veins
D. Wall contain purkinje fibers of the right and left branches from the atrioventricular bundle
E. Contain more elastic fibers than atria

A

D. Wall contain purkinje fibers of the right and left branches from the atrioventricular bundle

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18
Q

It is possible to distinguish histologically between the stomach and the duodenum because of the presence of:

A. Mucosal glands in the stomach only
B. Submucosal glands in the duodenum only
C. Simple columnar epithelium lining the stomach only
D. Muscularis mucosa in the stomach only
E. Smooth muscle in the external musculature of the duodenum only

A

B. Submucosal glands in the duodenum only

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19
Q

In which of the following structures of the oral cavity would taste buds be localized in the highest concentration?

A. Fungiform papillae
B. Gingiva
C. Filiform papillae
D. Ventral surface of the tongue
E. Vallate papillae

A

E. Vallate papillae

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20
Q

The number of goblet cells in the intestinal tract varies by

A. decreasing as the need decreases toward the anal outlet
B. increasing toward the anal outlet
C. increasing to the maximum in the villous part of the intestinal tract
D. decreasing to the minimum in the lower colon

A

A. decreasing as the need decreases toward the anal outlet

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21
Q

The middle trunk of the brachial plexus of nerves arises from:

A. C5
B. C6
C. C7
D. C8

A

C. C7

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22
Q

Which of the following features are associated with the humerus?

A. olecranon process, coronoid process, and styloid process
B. greater tuberosity, olecranon fossa and coronoid fossa
C. acromion, coracoid and glenoid fossa
D. tuberculum, capitulum and angle
E. greater trochanter, lesser trochanter and intercondyloid fossa

A

B. greater tuberosity, olecranon fossa and coronoid fossa

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23
Q

What hormone is produced in response to decreased blood calcium levels?

A. Pancreatic polypeptide
B. B-endorphins
C. Somatostatin
D. Calcitonin
E. Parathyroid hormone

A

E. Parathyroid hormone

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24
Q

Blood passing to the left hand after leaving the aortic arch, normally would pass through, in order, the following vessels.

A. left subclavian, brachial, axillary, radial or ulnar
B. left subclavian, axillary, radial, brachial, ulnar
C. left subclavian, axillary, brachial, radial or ulnar
D. left subclavian, axillary, radial, ulnar
E. none of the above

A

D. left subclavian, axillary, radial, ulnar

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25
Q

Which description is true of all secondary (peripheral) lymphoid organs?

A. Capable of antigen-independent lymphopoiesis
B. Contain crypts
C. Contain epithelial-reticular cells
D. Lack connective tissue capsules
E. Contain lymphoid nodules

A

E. Contain lymphoid nodules

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26
Q

Which of the following is the correct pattern of the layers of the esophagus from superficial to deep?

A. Mucosa – Submucosa Muscularis – Serosa

B. Adventitia – Muscularis – Submucosa – Mucosa

C. Serosa – Muscularis – Mucosa – Adventitia

D. Mucosa – Submucosa - Muscularis – Adventitia

E. Serosa – Muscularis – Submucosa - Mucosa

A

B. Adventitia – Muscularis – Submucosa – Mucosa

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27
Q

The 3 usual primary branches of the celiac artery are the

A. common hepatic, splenic and left gastric
B. common hepatic, splenic and right gastric
C. gastroduodenal, splenic and left gastric
D. right gastroepiploic, splenic and left gastric
E. common hepatic, right gastroepiploic and left gastric.

A

A. common hepatic, splenic and left gastric

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28
Q

At the shoulder, the

i. acromion, clavicle and spine of scapula are subcutaneous
ii. acromion is a part of the clavicle
iii. acromion is a part of the scapula
iv. coracoid process is part of the sternum
v. clavicle articulates medially with the sternum and laterally within the scapula

A. i, ii, iii
B. i, iii, iv
C. i, iii, v
D. ii, iii, iv
E. ii, iv, v

A

C. i, iii, v

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29
Q

As sperm pass through the male genital ducts, proteins and low molecular weight products are added from several sources producing semen. Which of the following provides a nutritive, fructoserich secretion?

A. Interstitial cells of Leydig
B. Bulbourethral (Cowper) glands
C. Prostate gland
D. Epididymis
E. Seminal vesicle

A

E. Seminal vesicle

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30
Q

The cisterna chyli drains lymph from each of the following
EXCEPT

A. thoracic duct.
B. abdomen.
C. pelvis.
D. inguinal region.
E. lower extremities.

A

A. thoracic duct.

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31
Q

Langerhans cells are located primarily in stratum _____.

A. Corneum
B. Lucidum
C. Granulosum
D. Spinosum
E. Basale

A

D. Spinosum

32
Q

______ vertebrae are characterized by a heart-shaped body.

A. Cervical
B. Thoracic
C. Lumbar
D. Sacral
E. Coccygeal

A

B. Thoracic

33
Q

Red pulp in the spleen consists of _____.

A. Fibroblasts
B. T lymphocytes
C. B lymphocytes
D. Macrophages
E. Chromaffin cells

A

D. Macrophages

34
Q

The manubriosternal angle

i. indicates a site of a non-synovial type of cartilaginous joint.
ii. is subcutaneous
iii. indicates the level at which the second rib joins the sternum
iv. indicates the level at which the first rib joins the sternum
v. indicates an area of skin innervated by the 4th thoracic
intercostal nerve

A. i, ii, iv
B. ii, iii, iv
C. ii, iv, v
D. i, iii, iv
E. i, ii, ii

A

E. i, ii, ii

35
Q

The lateral thoracic wall of the axilla is covered by which of the following muscles?

A. Pectoralis major.
B. Pectoralis minor.
C. Serratus anterior.
D. Subscapularis.
E. Latissimus dorsi

A

C. Serratus anterior.

36
Q

Which of the following extraocular muscles is innervated by trochlear nerve?

A. Superior oblique muscle
B. Medial rectus muscle
C. Inferior rectus muscle
D. Lateral rectus muscle
E. Superior rectus muscle

A

A. Superior oblique muscle

SO4 LR6

37
Q

The superior orbital fissure is located between which of the following bones?
A. Lesser wing of sphenoid and frontal
B. Ethmoid and maxilla
C. Greater wing of sphenoid and maxilla
D. Greater wing of sphenoid and lesser wing of sphenoid.
E. Lesser wing of sphenoid and ethmoid.

A

D. Greater wing of sphenoid and lesser wing of sphenoid.

38
Q

The articular surfaces of the TMJ consists of what type of cartilage?

A. Synovial
B. Hyaline
C. Elastic
D. Fibro
E. Articular

A

D. Fibro

39
Q

This tongue muscle originates from the root of the tongue and inserts to the apex of the tongue.

A. Inferior Longitudinal
B. Transverse
C. Styloglossus
D. Superior Longitudinal
E. Vertical

A

A. Inferior Longitudinal

40
Q

The stylomandibular ligament has its origin at which of the following bones?

A. Temporal
B. Sphenoid
C. Occipital
D. Maxilla
E. Parietal

A

A. Temporal

41
Q

Among the 5 senses, which is not under the special sensory functional component?

A. Auditory
B. Vision
C. Gustation
D. Touch
E. Olfaction

A

D. Touch

42
Q

Which of the following combinations of cranial nerves provide motor innervation to the tongue?

A. VII, X
B. X, XII
C. VII, XII
D. V, XII
E. VII, IX

A

B. X, XII

43
Q

Malfunction of which cranial nerve would affect the afferent input of the gag reflex?

A. CN XII
B. CN V
C. CN IX
D. CN VII
E. CN X

A

C. CN IX

44
Q

Which of the following arteries is the MAJOR blood supply to the orbit and eye?

A. Facial
B. Ophthalmic
C. Maxillary
D. Transverse facial
E. Infraorbital

A

B. Ophthalmic

45
Q

All of the following are TRUE regarding the nasolacrimal apparatus EXCEPT

A. The nasolacrimal duct empties into the superior meatus.
B. Relative to the orbit, the nasolacrimal apparatus is located superolaterally.
C. Tears wash across the globe in a superolateral → inferomedial direction.
D. The lacrimal puncta collects tears and then drains directly into the lacrimal canals.
E. The lacrimal sac drains directly into the nasolacrimal duct.

A

A. The nasolacrimal duct empties into the superior meatus.

The nasolacrimal duct empties into the INFERIOR meatus.

46
Q

The following cranial nerves have special efferent function, except:

A. trigeminal nerve
B. trochlear nerve
C. vagus nerve
D. facial nerve
E. glossopharyngeal nerve

A

B. trochlear nerve

47
Q

The tongue muscle that is responsible to elevate and retract the tongue.

A. Hyoglossus
B. Styloglossus
C. Palatoglossus
D. Genioglossus

A

B. Styloglossus

48
Q

Suppose a lesion compromises the lower motor neuron of CN VII, occurring proximal to the greater petrosal nerve and chorda tympani. All of the following clinical signs will be shown EXCEPT

A. Ipsilateral weakness to musculature of facial expression.
B. Diminished taste sensation to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue
C. Ipsilateral dryness of eye due to lost function of lacrimal gland.
D. Compromised function of sublingual and submandibular glands.
E. Hyperacusis in ipsilateral ear.

A

B. Diminished taste sensation to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue

49
Q

Which of the following cranial nuclei of the thalamus are involved with mediating facial sensation and pain?

A. Ventral posterior medial nuclei
B. Ventral anterior nucleus
C. Lateral geniculate nucleus
D. Ventral posterior lateral nuclei
E. Ventral lateral nucleus

A

A. Ventral posterior medial nuclei

50
Q

The anterior trunk of V3 is mainly motor in function except the because it has a sensory function:

A. Deep temporal
B. masseteric
C. buccal
D. nerve to lateral pterygoid
E. nerve to medial pterygoid

A

C. buccal

51
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding vision and optic nerve fibers?

A. Left medial/nasal fibers decussate and cross over at the optic chiasm en route to the right primary visual cortex of the occipital lobe.

B. Left medial/nasal fibers decussate and stay ipsilateral at the optic chiasma en route to the left primary visual cortex of the occipital lobe.

C. Left lateral/temporal fibers decussate and cross over at the optic chiasma en route to the right primary visual cortex of the temporal lobe.

D. Right lateral/temporal fibers decussate and stay ipsilateral at the optic chiasma en route to the right primary visual cortex of the temporal lobe.

A

A. Left medial/nasal fibers decussate and cross over at the optic chiasm en route to the right primary visual cortex of the occipital lobe.

52
Q

Regarding the pupillary light reflex, which of the following is TRUE?

A. When shining light onto the left eye, the direct response elicits ipsilateral afferent firing via CN III and subsequent ipsilateral efferent firing via CN III to left eye.

B. When shining light onto the left eye, the consensual response elicits ipsilateral afferent firing via CN II and subsequent contralateral efferent firing via CN III to
right eye.

C. When shining light onto the left eye, the consensual response elicits ipsilateral afferent firing via CN III and subsequent contralateral efferent firing via CN III to right eye.

D. When shining light onto the right eye, the direct response elicits contralateral afferent firing via CN II and subsequent contralateral efferent firing via CN III to left eye.

A

B. When shining light onto the left eye, the consensual response elicits ipsilateral afferent firing via CN II and subsequent contralateral efferent firing via CN III to
right eye.

53
Q

Most prominent point of the external occipital protuberance

A. Inion
B. Anion
C. Pterion
D. Lambda
E. Glabella

A

A. Inion

54
Q

What type of lens correct the defect in focus called Myopia?

A. Concave
B. Cylindrical
C. Convex
D. a and b
E. none of the above

A

A. Concave

55
Q

Which of the following small, thin walled vessels can rupture and, thus, are commonly involved in stroke?

A. Left anterior cerebral
B. Right posterior cerebral
C. Lenticulostriate
D. Left vertebral
E. Left internal carotid

A

C. Lenticulostriate

56
Q

The articulating disc of the temporomandibular joint attaches to the condyle via

A. stylomandibular ligament.
B. collateral ligaments.
C. temporomandibular ligament.
D. sphenomandibular ligament.
E. none of the above.

A

B. collateral ligaments.

57
Q

Which of the following directions does the articulating disc of the temporomandibular joint most often displace?

A. Anteromedially
B. Laterally
C. Inferiorly
D. Superiorly
E. Posteromedially

A

A. Anteromedially

58
Q

Each of the following is TRUE regarding the lacrimal gland EXCEPT

A. It receives postganglionic parasympathetic fibers via the lacrimal nerve.
B. Preganglionic fibers synapse at the pterygopalatine ganglion.
C. Preganglionic fibers to the lacrimal gland are carried via greater petrosal nerve.
D. The lacrimal gland is mucous secreting.
E. The superior salivatory nucleus sends pre- ganglionic fibers to the lacrimal gland.

A

D. The lacrimal gland is mucous secreting.

59
Q

Each of the following muscles receives motor innervation
from the facial nerve EXCEPT

A. Risorius.
B. Masseter
C. orbicularis oris.
D. mentalis.
E. buccinator.

A

B. Masseter

60
Q

It is the most movable portion of the muscle and is usually located on the distal end.

A. Origin
B. Insertion
C. Belly
D. Prime movers

A

B. Insertion

61
Q

Coordination of muscle movement, as well as maintenance of equilibrium and posture, are controlled by which structure of
the brain?

A. Medulla
B. Pons
C. Cerebrum
D. Thalamus
E. Cerebellum

A

E. Cerebellum

62
Q

Which of the following is not a branch of mandibular nerve?

A. Buccal
B. Auriculotemporal
C. Infra-orbital
D. Mental
E. None of the above

A

C. Infra-orbital

63
Q

Which of the following nerves innervates the stapedius muscle of the middle ear?

A. CN V-1
B. CN V-2
C. CN VII
D. CN V-3
E. CN VIII

A

C. CN VII

64
Q

This muscle closes eyes forcefully:

A. Orbicularis oris
B. Orbital part of orbicularis oculi
C. Palpebral part of orbicularis oculi
D. Oculomotor optic

A

B. Orbital part of orbicularis oculi

65
Q

Junction between the coronal and sagittal suture:

A. Lambda
B. Bregma
C. Inion
D. Glabella
E. Pterion

A

B. Bregma

66
Q

This is the suture between the 2 frontal bones:
A. Bregma
B. Metopic
C. lambda
D. Anterior fontanelle
E. Sagittal

A

B. Metopic

67
Q

The pituitary gland is seated superiorly on which sinus?

A. Frontal
B. Maxillary
C. Anterior ethmoid
D. Posterior ethmoid
E. Sphenoid

A

E. Sphenoid

68
Q

The crista galli is a superior extension of which of the following bones?

A. Sphenoid
B. Ethmoid
C. Vomer
D. Frontal
E. Maxilla

A

B. Ethmoid

69
Q

Damage to the medulla would impair function of which cranial nerve nuclei?

A. V, VII, IX
B. III, IV, VI
C. IX, X, XII
D. X, XI, XII
E. V, VII, X

A

D. X, XI, XII

MID- III,IV, V
PO- VI,VII,VIII
ME- VIII, IX, X, XII

70
Q

The upper part of the TMJ is responsible for the:

A. Protrusion and Depression of the mandible
B. Elevation and Retraction of the mandible
C. Depression and Elevation of the mandible
D. Protrusion and Retraction of the mandible
E. Protrusion of the Elevation of the mandible

A

D. Protrusion and Retraction of the mandible

71
Q

The submandibular gland is innervated by the:

A. Glossopharyngeal
B. Greater Petrosal
C. Chorda Tympani
D. Lingual nerve
E. Mandibular

A

C. Chorda Tympani

72
Q

Shape of the Anterior Fontanelle:

A. Triangular
B. inverted triangular
C. diamond
D. rhombus
E. circular.

A

C. diamond

73
Q

The articulating surface of the mandibular condyle is covered with

A. dense fibrocartilage.
B. loose connective tissue.
C. elastic cartilage.
D. hyaline cartilage.
E. none of the above.

A

A. dense fibrocartilage.

74
Q

Sour taste sensation depends on what ion as its tastant?

A. Hydrogen
B. Nitrogen
C. Sodium
D. Glutamate

A

A. Hydrogen

75
Q

Which of the following muscle is the major protruder of the lower jaw?

A. Lateral pterygoid
B. Medial pterygoid
C. Temporalis
D. Masseter

A

A. Lateral pterygoid

Gen Ana (3 decks)

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