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TR- FC Flashcards

1
Q

The following laryngeal cartilages are paired and elastic type:

i. epiglottis
ii. cricoid
iii. arytenoid
iv. cuneiform
v. corniculate

A. i & v
B. i, iii, iv
C. iv, v
D. ii, iii, iv
E. iii, v

A

C. iv, v

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2
Q

Trypsin is an activator of all of the following enzymes,
EXCEPT _____.

A. Proelastase
B. Pepsinogen
C. Procolipase
D. Chymotrypsinogen

A

B. Pepsinogen

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3
Q

The function of the semilunar valves is to

A. prevents blood in the ventricles from being pumped
into the atria
B. prevent blood in the aorta and pulmonary arteries
from returning to the ventricles
C. serve as attachment sites for the cardiac muscles
D. convey the conducting fibers to the cardiac muscle
E. prevent pooling of the blood in the two ventricles.

A

B. prevent blood in the aorta and pulmonary arteries
from returning to the ventricles

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4
Q

Within the spinal cord, the H-shaped mass of gray matter is
divided into horns, which consist mainly of neuron cell bodies. Cell bodies in the dorsal horn do not relay:

A. Voluntary motor impulses
B. Reflex motor impulses
C. Autonomic impulses
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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5
Q

In the fetus, the ductus venosus conveys blood from the:

A. pulmonary vein to the aorta
B. right atrium to the left atrium
C. pulmonary artery to the pulmonary vein
D. umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava
E. superior vena cava

A

D. umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava

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6
Q

Which of the following parts of the embryonic brain is
responsible for the vital reflexes of our body?

A. Prosencephalon
B. Myelencephalon
C. Mesencephalon
D. Metencephalon
E. Telencephalon

A

B. Myelencephalon

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7
Q

Which of the following structures is the vertical ridge that separates the smooth portion of the right atrium from the rough portion?

A. Auricle
B. Crista terminalis
C. Fossa ovalis
D. Sinus venarum
E. Trabeculae carneae

A

B. Crista terminalis

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8
Q

A patient was due for oral prophylaxis but upon coming to your office complained of pain even when gurgling of water or light touch. Upon taking his medical history, it was found out that he was diagnosed with a tumor that was invading which lobe of the cerebrum?

A. Temporal lobe
B. Occipital lobe
C. Parietal lobe
D. Frontal lobe

A

C. Parietal lobe

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9
Q

All of the following cells derived from hematopoietic stem cells, except:

A. Megakaryocytes
B. Osteoclasts
C. Monocytes
D. Erythroblasts
E. None of the above

A

E. None of the above

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10
Q

The posterior lobe of the pituitary gland consists of:

A. Unmyelinated nerve fibers
B. Myelinated nerve fibers
C. Both myelinated and unmyelinated nerve fibers
D. None of the above

A

A. Unmyelinated nerve fibers

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11
Q

Malfunction of which cranial nerve would affect the afferent input of the pupillary reflex?

A. CN III
B. CN II
C. CN IV
D. CN VI
E. CN V

A

B. CN II

PUPIL- A: II
-E: III
BLINK- A: V
-E: VII
GAG- A: IX
- E: X
CHEW- A: V
- E: V

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12
Q

The accessory duct of the pancreas is named as:

A. Ampulla of Vater
B. Wharton’s duct
C. Duct of Santorini
D. Wirsung duct
E. Boyden

A

C. Duct of Santorini

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13
Q

If a patient is unable to protrude his tongue, dysfunction of which of the following muscles is most likely the cause?

A. Verticalis
B. Geniohyoid
C. Palatoglossus
D. Palatopharyngeus
E. Genioglossus

A

E. Genioglossus

S- RETRACT
P- SUPERIOR
G- PROTRACT
H- INFERIOR

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14
Q

Which is the inability of the eye to focus sharply on nearby
objects, resulting from the loss of elasticity of the lens with advancing age?

A. presbyopia
B. hyperopia
C. astigmatism
D. myopia

A

A. presbyopia

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15
Q

Which of the following muscles allow a patient to continue
to flex the elbow after rupture of the biceps tendon?

A. Brachialis and brachioradialis
B. Flexor carpi ulnaris and flexor carpi radialis
C. Flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor digitorum
profundus
D. Pronator teres and supinator

A

A. Brachialis and brachioradialis

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16
Q

The parotid duct penetrates this muscle to enter oral cavity
and open in to the 2nd upper molar tooth.

A. Sternocleidomastoid
B. Masseter
C. Buccinator
D. Mylohyoid

A

C. Buccinator

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17
Q

Which of the following is not affected by the adenohypophysis?

A. Interstitial Cells of the Testis
B. Beta cells of the pancreas
C. Lactotrophs
D. Zona Glomerulosa of Adrenal Cortex
E. Melanocytes

A

B. Beta cells of the pancreas

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18
Q

Blood pressure is the measure of the force blood exerts against the blood vessel walls. Which of the following is part of its short-term regulation?

A. Vasopressin mechanism
B. Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
C. Baroreceptor reflexes
D. A and B only
E. B and C only

A

C. Baroreceptor reflexes

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19
Q

When a 6-month-old infant extends the ipsilateral leg and flexes the contralateral arm and leg when the head is turned, the infant is exhibiting the:

A. Babinski reflex
B. Startle reflex
C. Moro reflex
D. Tendon reflex
E. Fencing reflex

A

E. Fencing reflex

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20
Q

The aerobic breakdown of a single molecule of glucose produces a net profit of how many ATP?

A. 20-24ATP
B. 30-32 ATP
C. 36-38 ATP
D. 44-48 ATP

A

C. 36-38 ATP

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21
Q

The juxtaglomerular apparatus, as the name implies, is located near the glomerulus. One of its components is the macula densa which is located within the:

A. Bowman’s capsule
B. proximal convoluted tubule
C. nephron loop
D. distal convoluted tubule
E. efferent arteriole

A

D. distal convoluted tubule

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22
Q

Which of the following is a derivative of the second pharyngeal arch?

i. Eustachian tube
ii. external auditory meatus
iii. stylohyoid
iv. reichert’s cartilage
v. tensor tympani

A. i, iii, iv
B. ii, iii, v
C. iv only
D. iii, iv
E. ii, iii, iv

A

D. iii, iv

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23
Q

The branches of facial nerve includes the following, EXCEPT_____ branch.

A. cervical
B. temporal
C. buccinator
D. mandibular

A

C. buccinator

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24
Q

The important antibody of the second antibody response:

A. IgG
B. IgA
C. IgM
D. IgE
E. IgD

A

A. IgG

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25
Q

The following statements are true regarding the organs of the respiratory system, except:

A. The lingula is located at the inferior aspect of the left lung.
B. The terminal bronchioles serve as the last portion of the conducting system of the respiratory tract.
C. Brush cells in the respiratory tract relay sensory signals for olfaction.
D. Respiratory epithelium is lined with pseudostratified columnar cells.
E. none of the above

A

C. Brush cells in the respiratory tract relay sensory signals for olfaction.

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26
Q

Ovulation occurs as a result of:

A. The progesterone-induced LH surge
B. The estrogen-induced FSH surge
C. The progesterone-induced FSH surge
D. The estrogen-induced LH surge

A

D. The estrogen-induced LH surge

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27
Q

Clara cells are:

A. Gustatory cells in the nose
B. Found in the terminal bronchioles
C. Secrete surfactant that lines the nasal cavity
D. Macrophages found in the alveoli
E. all of the above

A

B. Found in the terminal bronchioles

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27
Q

The sphenoidal fontanelle closes around 6 months after birth. It becomes the:

A. lambda
B. asterion
C. glabella
D. pterion
E. bregma

A

D. pterion

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28
Q

If the axillary nerve is not functioning

A. damage to the nerve roots c7, c8, and t1 might be the cause
B. damage to c5 and c6 might be the cause
C. the lateral pectoral nerve might be involved
D. muscles on the anterior aspect of the arm would be denervated
E. muscles in the posterior aspect of the arm would be denervated

A

B. damage to c5 and c6 might be the cause

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29
Q

A fracture through the neck of the condyle can result in the forward displacement of the condylar head because of the pull of which of the following muscles?

A. Temporal
B. Buccinator
C. Masseter
D. Medial pterygoid
E. Lateral pterygoid

A

E. Lateral pterygoid

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30
Q

Which of the following lingual papillae are most numerous around the tip of the tongue?

A. Filiform
B. Fungiform
C. Vallate
D. Foliate
E. Sweet

A

B. Fungiform

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31
Q

Which part of the thalamus is concerned with auditory
function?

A. Temporal lobe
B. Cochlea
C. Lateral geniculate nucleus
D. Ventral posterior nucleus
E. Medial geniculate nucleus

A

E. Medial geniculate nucleus

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32
Q

The capitulum of the humerus bone articulates with the _______.

A. Ulna of the forearm
B. Radius of the forearm
C. Coronoid process of the ulna of the forearm
D. Olecranon of the ulna of the forearm
E. Medial epicondyle

A

B. Radius of the forearm

33
Q

All of the following are true of maxillary artery, EXCEPT _____.

A. It is one of the terminal ranches of ECA
B. The branches of maxillary artery accompany the branches of maxillary nerve
C. It passes deep between the two heads of lateral pterygoid
D. It is the arterial supply for mandible

A

B. The branches of maxillary artery accompany the branches of maxillary nerve

The branches of maxillary artery accompany the branches of maxillary nerve AND MANDIBULAR NERVE

34
Q

Which of the following statement is not true regarding DNA?

A. the DNA molecule may be described as a single helix of two anti-parallel chains
B. the base pairing in DNA are adenine to thymine and
guanine to cytosine
C. DNA replication would produce two identical
molecules of the original DNA
D. DNA is found principally in the nucleus of the cell

A

A. the DNA molecule may be described as a single helix of two anti-parallel chains

The DNA molecule may be described as a DOUBLE helix of two anti-parallel chains

35
Q

The common pathway is initiated when tissue factor and calcium forms a complex with which of the following to activate stuart factor?

A. II
B. VII
C. X
D. XI
E. XII

A

B. VII

36
Q

Which of the following statements regarding salivary secretion is false?

A. In general, saliva is more hypotonic than plasma.
B. As salivary flow increases, bicarbonate concentration increases.
C. As salivary flow increases, ionic concentration decreases.
D. Salivary secretion is regulated primarily by the autonomic nervous system.

A

C. As salivary flow increases, ionic concentration decreases.

37
Q
  1. The following statements are true regarding male reproductive physiology except:

A. The Cowper’s gland secretes mucus for lubrication.
B. The Bulbospongiosus muscle maintains erection.
C. The penis contains two corpora cavernosa.
D. Emission happens when sperm cells in the epididymis travel to the ductus deferens.
E. Sperm cells travel first in the rete testis before going to the efferent ductules.

A

B. The Bulbospongiosus muscle maintains erection.

The Bulbospongiosus muscle INITIATES erection.

38
Q

Which of the following statements is false about glial cells?

A. Non-ciliated ependymal cells are located in the choroid plexus and possess microvilli.
B. Oligodendrocytes are located outside the myelin sheaths while Schwann cells are located within.
C. Microglia were derived from neural tube.
D. Astrocytes are the most abundant neuroglia.
E. None of the above

A

C. Microglia were derived from neural tube.

39
Q

Which comparison between the large intestine and small intestine is true?

A. The large intestine is about one half the size of the small intestine
B. The lumen of the large intestine is of a lesser diameter than that of the small intestine
C. The smooth muscle coat of the large intestine consists of a single band called teniae coli that cause
the colon to form pouches. The small intestine lacks
this characteristic.
D. The walls of the large intestine lack villi.
E. The internal surface of the large intestine has small areas of fat-filled peritoneum called epiploic appendages. The small intestine lacks this characteristic.

A

D. The walls of the large intestine lack villi.

40
Q

______ vertebrae are characterized by a kidney-shaped body.

A. Cervical
B. Thoracic
C. Lumbar
D. Sacral
E. Coccygeal

A

C. Lumbar

41
Q

Which of the following are the most abundant in the fovea
centralis of the eyeball?

A. Rod cells.
B. Cone cells.
C. Rod and cone cells.
D. Amacrine cells.
E. Ganglion cells.

A

B. Cone cells.

42
Q

Signals exiting a neuronal pool excites less numbers of nerve fibers leaving the pool:

A. Reverberatory circuit
B. Divergence
C. Convergence
D. both B & C

A

C. Convergence

43
Q

Which of the following is false about dopamine?

A. It is an inhibiting hormone for prolactin.
B. It is a hormone important in pleasure of reward.
C. It is both an inhibitory and excitatory hormone of the CNS.
D. It is an example of active molecules called catecholamines.
E. None of the above

A

E. None of the above

44
Q

The soleus muscle aids in what action of the foot?

A. plantar flexion
B. extension
C. medial rotation
D. dorsiflexion
E. abduction

A

D. dorsiflexion

45
Q

Which of the following organelles is surrounded by a double membrane?

A. Ribosome.
B. Golgi apparatus.
C. Lysosome.
D. Cytoplasmic inclusion.
E. Mitochondria.

A

E. Mitochondria.

46
Q

Which of the following hormones prepares the stomach and small intestine for food processing, including stimulating secretion of HCl?

A. CCK
B. Gastrin
C. GIP
D. Secretin
E. VIP

A

B. Gastrin

  1. G-cells= Gastrin
  2. Parietal (pARAYtal) = HCL, Intrinsic factor (Vit B12 Absorption)
  3. Chief= Pepsinogen
  4. Pepsin= digest protein
47
Q

Which of the following is true about somatosensory
receptors?

A. Pacinian corpuscle are associated with low-intensity vibrations.
B. Meissner’s corpuscles are found projecting toward the stratum basale of the epidermis.
C. Ruffini endings are located deep to the Pacinian corpuscles.
D. Hot sensation is received by Krause end bulbs.
E. Ruffini endings detect skin stretch and are also located within the epidermis layer of the skin.

A

B. Meissner’s corpuscles are found projecting toward the stratum basale of the epidermis.

48
Q

Tastants of which of the following sensations activate Gprotein mechanism to cause depolarization of the gustatory cell?

i. salty
ii. bitter
iii. sweet
iv. sour
v. umami

A. i, iv
B. ii, iii, v
C. ii, iv
D. i, iii, iv
E. all of the above

A

B. ii, iii, v

49
Q

The amount of adenine will be equal to the amount of thymine in which of the following molecules?

A. RNA.
B. DNA.
C. DNA and RNA.
D. mRNA.

A

B. DNA.

DNA- AT GC
RNA- AU GC

50
Q

The inferior pharyngeal sphincter that regulates food travelling to the esophagus is mainly formed by what muscle?

A. Palatopharyngeus
B. Palatoglossus
C. Cricopharyngeus
D. Thyropharyngeus
E. Hyoglossus

A

C. Cricopharyngeus

CRICOPHARYNGEUS
-UES
-LPS

51
Q

Vitamin B7 is known as:

A. Pantothenic acid
B. Pyridoxine
C. Folic acid
D. Biotin
E. Thiamine

A

D. Biotin

52
Q

Translation usually ends with what codon?

A. AAC
B. AUG
C. UAC
D. UAG
E. ACU

A

D. UAG

STOP CODON
UAG
UGA
UAA

START CODON
AUG
UUG
GUG

53
Q

The first part of the duodenum is supplied by which of the following arteries?

A. Superior mesenteric artery
B. Abdominal aorta
C. Celiac artery
D. Inferior mesenteric Artery
E. Descending aorta

A

C. Celiac artery

CELIAC=FOREGUT
SMA=MIDGUT (2nd Part of Duodenum- 2nd Part of the Large Intestine)
IMA=HINDGUT

54
Q

The angle of Louis:

A. is the attachment of the stylomandibular ligament.
B. is the attachment of the first costochondral joint.
C. is found at the jugular notch.
D. is found between the manubrium and the gladiolus.
E. is the sternal angle at the sternoxiphoid joint.

A

D. is found between the manubrium and the gladiolus.

55
Q

Which of the following is an inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system?

A. norepinephrine
B. glutamate
C. γ-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
D. serotonin
E. histamine

A

C. γ-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

56
Q

All of the following are true regarding clotting mechanism except:

A. Calcium is present in all the pathways of clotting.
B. The Hageman factor is involved in the intrinsic pathway of coagulation.
C. Labile factor creates a complex with stuart and stable factor to act as prothrombinase.
D. Fletcher factor is essentially needed by factor XII to activate factor XI.
E. Tissue factor starts the extrinsic pathway of clotting

A

C. Labile factor creates a complex with stuart and stable factor to act as prothrombinase.

57
Q

Which of the following statements regarding musculature of the abdomen is TRUE?

A. The external oblique muscle contracts to decrease abdominal pressure.
B. The external oblique muscle is innervated by the
lower intercostal, iliohypogastric, and ilioinguinal nerves.
C. The rectus abdominis muscle is innervated only by the lower intercostal nerves.
D. The rectus abdominis muscle contracts to flex the vertebral column.
E. The transverse abdominis muscle originates at the pubic symphysis and inserts into the xiphoid process, as well as costal cartilages 5-7

A

D. The rectus abdominis muscle contracts to flex the vertebral column.

58
Q

Which of the following is false about glandular structures?

A. Glands are epithelial structures.
B. Apocrine glands release its contents along with the whole glandular cell.
C. Exocrine glands possess ducts.
D. Sebaceous glands are usually attached to hair follicles.
E. Autocrine glands produce hormones that act on their own glandular cells.

A

B. Apocrine glands release its contents along with the whole glandular cell.

HOLOCRINE glands release its contents along with the whole glandular cell.

59
Q

Each of the following cell types secretes the substance with which it is paired, except:

A. Leydig cells – testosterone
B. Parafollicular cells - calcitonin
C. alpha cells of the pancreas-glucagon
D. chromaffin cells of the suprarenal – catecholamine
E. melanocytes – melatonin

A

E. melanocytes – melatonin

melanocytes – PINEAL GLAND

60
Q

A sinusoidal arrangement of blood vessels is found in _____.

I. hypophysis
II. spleen
III. kidney
IV. liver

Choose the correct answer:
A. I, II
B. II, III, IV
C. I, II, IV
D. D. I, III

A

C. I, II, IV

KIDNEY- fenestrated

61
Q

The ascending palatine artery is a branch of _____.

A. Ascending pharyngeal artery
B. Sphenopalatine theory
C. Pterygopalatine part of the maxillary artery
D. First part of the facial artery

A

D. First part of the facial artery

62
Q

Which is a distribution center that controls activity in specific regions of the cerebral cortex?

A. Hippocampus
B. thalamus
C. basal ganglia
D. hypothalamus

A

C. basal ganglia

Hippocampus- MEMORY AND EMOTION
Thalamus- SENSORY RELAY CENTER
Hypothalamus- CONTROLLER, ANS

63
Q

The liver has many complex functions including each of the following except:

A. Urea elimination
B. formation of bile
C. steroid conjugation
D. carbohydrate storage
E. prothrombin synthesis

A

A. Urea elimination- KIDNEY

64
Q

Most of the antibodies in the body which act against bacterial antigens are produced by:

A. T-lymphocytes
B. B lymphocytes
C. macrophages
D. plasma cells

A

D. plasma cells

65
Q

The following muscles are responsible for inhalation, EXCEPT

A. diaphragm
B. internal intercostals
C. external intercostals
D. pectoralis

A

B. internal intercostals

66
Q

Which type of collagen is associated with cartilage?

A. Type III
B. Type II
C. Type IV
D. Type I

A

B. Type II

67
Q

Which is known as the sex chromatin body?

A. Golgi body
B. Barr body
C. Pineal body
D. Lateral body

A

B. Barr body

68
Q

Both active transport and facilitated diffusion are characterized by which of the following?

A. Transport in one direction only.
B. Hydrolysis of ATP.
C. Transport against a concentration gradient.
D. Competitive inhibition.

A

D. Competitive inhibition.

69
Q

The action potential is an explosion of electrical activity that is created by a:

A. Polarizing current
B. Depolarizing current
C. Repolarizing current
D. None of the above

A

B. Depolarizing current

70
Q

Which of the following bones of the viscerocranium is unpaired?

A. palatine
B. frontal
C. vomer
D. ethmoid
E. maxilla

A

C. vomer

71
Q

The pathway for pain and temperature is _____.

A. Tyrosine
B. lateral spinothalamic tract
C. corticospinal
D. phenylalanine

A

B. lateral spinothalamic tract

72
Q

Which of the following cells are capable of mitosis?

A. Smooth muscle.
B. Skeletal muscle.
C. Cardiac muscle.
D. Type I pneumocytes.
E. Neurons.

A

A. Smooth muscle.

73
Q

______ vertebrae are characterized by a heart-shaped body.

A. Cervical
B. Thoracic
C. Lumbar
D. Sacral
E. Coccygeal

A

B. Thoracic

74
Q

Hematocrit relates to which of the following

A. Total RBC volume
B. Plasma filtrate
C. Total WBC volume
D. Total blood volume

A

A. Total RBC volume

75
Q

In basic life support, the most common way of opening the airway is by _____.

A. jaw thrust method
B. placing a tracheal tube
C. pulling out the tongue of the patient
D. head tilt - chin lift method

A

D. head tilt - chin lift method

76
Q

A diet deficient in calcium will result in

A. Stimulation of the thyroid gland
B. Increased ability to cross-link fibrin
C. Production of calcitonin and a low blood calcium level
D. Production of parathyroid hormone and bone resorption
E. None of the above

A

D. Production of parathyroid hormone and bone resorption

77
Q

The MOST common form of hemoglobin in the adult human is ____.

A. Hemoglobin M
B. Hemoglobin H
C. Hemoglobin A
D. Hemoglobin S

A

C. Hemoglobin A

78
Q

Which of the following is the common origin of posterior epistaxis?

A. Kiesselbach plexus
B. Meissner plexus
C. Pharyngeal plexus
D. Woodruff plexus
E. Auerbach plexus

A

D. Woodruff plexus

79
Q

Which of the following BEST describes the proteolytic enzyme thrombin? An enzyme which _______.

A. degrades the fibrin clot
B. upgrades fibrin clot
C. catalyzes the polymerization
D. acts upon arginyl-glycine linkages in fibrinogen to produce a fibrin monomer.

A

D. acts upon arginyl-glycine linkages in fibrinogen to produce a fibrin monomer.

Gen Ana (3 decks)

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