Torts Flashcards

1
Q

In Virginia, a contract provision that purports to release a defendant from liability for personal injury caused by the defendant’s future negligence is […].

A

[prohibited]

However, contract provisions releasing a defendant from liability for property damage caused by the defendant’s future negligence are enforceable.

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2
Q

While a member of a […] corporation is generally not entitled to a distribution, a member generally enjoys the same rights as a shareholder of a stock corporation, such as the right to […], and is subject to the same restrictions.

A

[nonstock]

[inspect the corporation’s books and records]

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3
Q

In general, a duty of care is owed to …

However, a landowner generally does not owe a duty to …

With respect to an artificial condition, the landowner generally …

With respect to an activity conducted on the premises by the owner or by someone subject to the owner’s control, the landowner generally …

A

… all foreseeable persons who may foreseeably be injured by the defendant’s failure to act as a reasonable person of ordinary prudence under the circumstances.

… a person not on the premises, such as a passerby, who is harmed by a natural condition on the landowner’s premises.

… owes a duty to prevent an unreasonable risk of harm to persons who are not on the premises.

… owes a duty of reasonable care to persons who are not on the premises.

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4
Q

An action will be the proximate cause of an injury if …

An unforeseeable intervening cause is …

A

… the injury is the natural and probable consequence of the act, and was foreseeable.

… a superseding cause that breaks the chain of causation between the plaintiff and the defendant so that the intervening cause alone produced the injury, without the defendant’s contributory negligence.

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5
Q

Generally, there is no affirmative duty to act. However, a person who ___ another has a duty to ___.

Virginia’s Good Samaritan law protects …

A

… voluntarily aids or rescues … act with reasonable care in the performance of that aid or rescue.

… people rendering emergency care, in good faith, without compensation, even if they are negligent in rendering that care.

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6
Q

Contributory fault occurs when …

Under traditional rules, the plaintiff’s contributory negligence is a …

A

… a plaintiff fails to exercise reasonable care for her own safety and thereby contributes to her own injury.

… complete bar to recovery if the plaintiff’s negligence was a substantial cause of her injury.

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7
Q

An employer can be held liable for ___ an employee that harms the plaintiff within ___.

Conduct within the scope of employment includes …

An employer can also be liable under the ___ for a tort committed by an employee within the scope of their employment. However, an employer is not usually liable for the … unless …

A person is an employer if …

A person is an independent contractor if …

A

… negligent hiring or retaining … the employee’s scope of employment.

… acts that the employee is employed to perform or that are intended to benefit the employer.

… respondeat superior … intentional torts committed by an employee.

… the person has the right to control the means and methods by which another performs a task or achieves a result … force is inherent in the employee’s work.

… if they are engaged to accomplish a task or achieve a result but are not subject to another’s right to control the method and means by which the task is performed, or the result reached.

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8
Q

The duty of care owed to a plaintiff for dangerous conditions on the defendant’s premises depends on …

An invitee is a person who enters onto the land in response to either for a ___ or ___.

A possessor owes a duty of ___ to an invitee to (1) and (2).

Generally, the plaintiff must show the owner’s …

However, a possessor does not have a duty to warn or protect an invitee from …

A

… the plaintiff’s status as an entrant.

… an invitation by the owner of the premises … business purpose … as a member of the public.

… reasonable care … (1) to have the premises in a reasonably safe condition for the invitee’s use consistent with the invitation … (2) to warn invitees of any unsafe conditions that were known or should have been known to the owner.

… actual or constructive knowledge of a defective condition on the premises.

…open and obvious dangers.

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9
Q

Apart from ___, Virginia generally does not recognize a cause of action based on strict liability.

A

… abnormally dangerous activities …

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10
Q

Virginia ___ adopted dram shop laws that impose vicarious liability on the seller of intoxicating beverages.

A

… has not …

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11
Q

The violation of a statute establishes …

A

… negligence as a matter of law or negligence per se.

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12
Q

To establish negligence per se, a plaintiff must prove (1), (2), and (3).

A

(1) the defendant violated a statute that was enacted for public safety

(2) the defendant belongs to the class of persons for whose benefit the statute was enacted, and

(3) the statutory violation was a proximate cause of his injury.

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13
Q

Virginia law rejects the family purpose doctrine. Thus, …

However, Virginia permits claims for direct liability against parents based on ___. The plaintiff must prove …

A

… the owner of an automobile is not vicariously liable for a family member’s negligent operation of an automobile solely by virtue of the family relationship.

… negligent entrustment of a vehicle to a child … the parent owner knew or had reason to know, she was entrusting her vehicle to an unfit driver by giving express or implied permission, likely to cause injury to others.

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14
Q

A child between the ages of 7 and 14 is presumed ….

A defendant can rebut this presumption by …

To show a child plaintiff’s conduct amounted to contributory negligence, the evidence must show …

A

… not to have the capacity to understand and appreciate the perils and dangers of his acts and is legally incapable of committing acts of negligence.

… showing that the plaintiff child did have the capacity to understand the peril and dangers.

… that the plaintiff’s conduct did not conform to the standard of what a reasonable person of like age, intelligence, and experience would do under the circumstances.

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15
Q

Virginia is a ___ negligence jurisdiction.

This means that …

A

… pure contributory … a plaintiff is not entitled to recover from another for an injury proximately caused by any negligence committed by the plaintiff.

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16
Q

Assumption of the risk is an ___ and operates to ___ by a plaintiff, based on the ___.

To succeed, the defendant must prove that …

A

… affirmative defense … bar recovery … subjective inquiry into what the plaintiff knows, understands and appreciates.

… the plaintiff fully understood and appreciated a known danger and voluntarily exposed himself to it.

17
Q

To establish a case of negligence, a plaintiff must show …

The proximate cause of an event is …

A

… (1) a duty on the part of the defendant to conform to a specific standard of conduct for protection of the plaintiff against an unreasonable risk of injury; (2) a breach of that duty by the defendant; (3) the breach is the actual and proximate cause of the plaintiff’s injury; and (4) the plaintiff suffered injury as a result.

… an act or omission which, in natural and continuous sequence, unbroken by an efficient intervening cause, produces the event, and without which that event would not have occurred (foreseeable).

18
Q

The tort of assault consists of …

A

… (1) a voluntary act; (2) intended to cause either harmful or offensive contact or apprehension of contact; (3) that causes reasonable apprehension of imminent harm.

19
Q

Under the transferred intent doctrine, …

A

… the intent to commit an intentional tort against one person can be transferred to the person actually injured or to the tort actually committed.

20
Q

The ___ defense is not dispositive of any claim, but could decrease the damages recovered by a tortious person.

Virginia law recognizes a plaintiff’s duty to ___ in personal injury actions by ___.

A

… mitigation of damages …

… mitigate damages … submitting to reasonable medical treatment.

21
Q

The tort of battery consists of …

A

… (1) a voluntary act, (2) intended to cause either harmful or offensive contact, and (3) resulting in harmful or offensive contact to the plaintiff’s person.

22
Q

The tort of intentional infliction of emotional distress consists of …

The conduct must transcend __ and be ___.

The transferred intent doctrine generally ___ apply to IIED.

A

… (1) a voluntary act amounting to extreme and outrageous conduct, (2) committed intentionally or recklessly by the defendant, (3) causing severe emotional distress.

… all bounds of decency … utterly intolerable in a civilized society.

… does not … However, a close relative of the victim who is present at the scene of the outrageous conduct may recover for IIED if the defendant knows the plaintiff is a close relative and all other elements are met.

23
Q

The duty of care owed to a plaintiff for dangerous conditions on the defendant’s premises depends on …

For unknown trespassers, the law does not impose a duty of care with regard to …

Once a trespasser becomes known, a minimal duty arises to …

A

… the plaintiff’s status as an entrant.

… dangerous conditions on the premises though the landowner must refrain from inflicting intentional or willful harm.

… warn of or make safe artificial conditions that are highly dangerous and concealed if these conditions are known to the possessor in advance.

24
Q

Virginia’s statute of repose gives a plaintiff ___ years after performing the construction to bring a lawsuit for personal injury or property damage arising out of the ___.

A

… 5 … defective and unsafe condition of an improvement to real property.

25
Q

A contribution among tortfeasors is allowed under Virginia law when …

A crucial requirement is that the party whom contribution is sought must have …

A

… negligence is the cause of harm without involving moral turpitude.

… been liable to the plaintiff, meaning the injured party could have recovered against them contribution defendant.