Torts Flashcards
When will a court hold a child or a mentally incompetent person liable for an intentional tort?
A majority of courts hold that both children and those who are mentally incompetent can be held liable for intentional torts if they either act with a purpose or know the consequences of their acts with a substantial certainty.
When may a defendant be liable to a third-party victim for IIED?
A defendant may be liable to a third-party victim if the defendant intentionally or recklessly causes severe emotional distress to:
i) A member of the victim’s immediate family who contemporaneously perceives the defendant’s conduct, whether or not such distress results in bodily injury; or
ii) Any other bystander who contemporaneously perceives the conduct, if the distress results in bodily injury.
If the defendant’s design or purpose was to cause severe distress to the third-party victim, the victim need not have contemporaneously perceived the conduct.
When is the use of deadly force justified in self-defense?
The defendant may use deadly force only if the defendant has a reasonable belief that force sufficient to cause serious bodily injury or death is about to be intentionally inflicted upon him.
What is the firefighter’s rule?
Firefighter’s rule: An emergency professional, such as a police officer or firefighter, is barred from recovering damages from the party whose negligence caused the professional’s injury if the injury results from a risk inherent in the job.
What are the elements of assault?
1) Plaintiff’s reasonable apprehension,
2) Of an imminent harmful or offensive bodily contact,
3) Caused by the defendant’s action or threat,
4) With the intent to cause either the apprehension of such contact or the contact itself.
Are words sufficient to establish a prima facie case for assault?
For assault, words alone are insufficient. However, words coupled with conduct or other circumstances may be sufficient. If the defendant is able to carry out the threat imminently and takes action designed to put the victim in a state of apprehension, then there may be an assault.
What is the definition of a public nuisance?
A public nuisance is an unreasonable interference with a right common to the general public.
Note: A private citizen has a claim for public nuisance only if that citizen suffers harm that is different in kind from that suffered by members of the general public.
What is the effect of a plaintiff’s negligence on a strict products liability action?
In most comparative-fault jurisdictions, the plaintiff’s own negligence reduces his recovery in a strict-products-liability action in the same manner as in a negligence action. In those jurisdictions, a plaintiff’s conduct that amounts to an “assumption of the risk” is treated as comparative negligence in order to reduce, but not eliminate, recovery.
Note: In some comparative-fault jurisdictions, the plaintiff’s recovery in strict products liability is not reduced by the percentage that the plaintiff’s fault contributed to causing her injury.
What are the elements of intentional infliction of emotional distress (IIED)?
1) The defendant’s intentional or reckless,
2) Extreme and outrageous conduct,
3) That causes,
4) The plaintiff severe emotional distress.
When is use of force in defending others justified?
One is justified in using reasonable force in defense of others upon a reasonable belief that the defended party would be entitled to use self-defense. The defender may use force that is proportionate to the anticipated harm to the other party.
What is the “shopkeeper’s privilege?”
A shopkeeper’s reasonable (in both duration and manner) detention of an individual that the shopkeeper reasonably believes is shoplifting in order to investigate the facts.
How is express consent, as a defense to intentional torts, established?
The plaintiff expressly consents if the plaintiff, by words or actions, manifests the willingness to submit to the defendant’s conduct.
Note: The defendant’s conduct may not exceed the scope of the consent.
When will a defendant’s actions be considered intentional?
The defendant acts intentionally if:
i) He acts with the purpose of causing the consequences of his act; or
ii) He acts knowing that the consequence is substantially certain to result.
What is the definition of trespass to chattel?
The defendant intentionally interferes with the plaintiff’s right of possession by either:
i) Dispossessing the plaintiff of the chattel; or
ii) Using or intermeddling with the plaintiff’s chattel.
Note: Trespass to chattels requires that the plaintiff show actual harm to or deprivation of the use of the chattel for a substantial time.
What is the definition of conversion?
The defendant intentionally commits an act depriving the plaintiff of possession of her chattel or interfering with the plaintiff’s chattel in a manner so serious as to deprive the plaintiff of the use of the chattel.
Note: The plaintiff’s damages are the chattel’s full value at the time of the conversion.
What are the elements for intentional misrepresentation (i.e., fraud, deceit)?
The elements for intentional misrepresentation are:
i) The defendant made a misrepresentation of a material fact or failed to disclose a material fact when under an affirmative duty to do so;
ii) The defendant must have known the representation to be false or must have acted with reckless disregard as to its truthfulness (scienter);
iii) The defendant must have intended to induce the plaintiff to act (or refrain from acting) in reliance on the misrepresentation;
iv) The plaintiff must have actually relied on the misrepresentation;
v) The plaintiff’s reliance must have been justifiable; and
vi) The plaintiff must prove actual damages (nominal damages are not awarded).
What is the definition of trespass to land?
The defendant’s intentional act causes a physical invasion of the plaintiff’s land.
Note: The defendant need only have the intent to enter the land or to cause a physical invasion. The defendant need not know that the land belongs to another. Mistake of fact is not a defense.
Generally, when may a defendant act in self-defense and how much force may the defendant use?
A defendant may act in self-defense when the defendant reasonably believes an offensive contact or bodily harm is about to be intentionally inflicted upon him.
The force used in self-defense must be reasonably proportionate to the anticipated harm.
Note: A person’s mistaken belief that he is in danger, so long as it is a reasonable mistake, does not invalidate this defense.
What is the doctrine of “transferred intent?”
Transferred intent exists when a person intends to commit an intentional tort against one person but instead commits:
i) A different intentional tort against that person;
ii) The intended tort against a different person; or
iii) A different intentional tort against a different person.
When is conduct considered extreme and outrageous for the purposes of IIED?
Conduct is extreme and outrageous if it exceeds the possible limits of human decency, so as to be entirely intolerable in a civilized society. The character of the conduct must be outrageous and the conduct must be sufficiently unusual to be extreme.
Note: While liability generally does not extend to mere insults, threats, or indignities, a defendant’s abusive language and conduct may be sufficiently “extreme and outrageous” if the defendant is in a position of authority or influence over the plaintiff, or the plaintiff is a member of a group with a known heightened sensitivity.
When does the initial aggressor have a right to claim self-defense?
The initial aggressor is not entitled to claim self-defense unless the other party has responded to nondeadly force with deadly force.
What is the definition of a private nuisance? How does a defendant’s compliance with governmental regulations affect a private nuisance action?
A private nuisance is a thing or activity that substantially and unreasonably interferes with another individual’s use and enjoyment of his land.
Statutory or regulatory compliance is not a complete defense but may be admitted as evidence as to whether the interference with the plaintiff’s use and enjoyment of her land is unreasonable.
What is a “Good Samaritan” statute?
A “Good Samaritan” statute protects doctors and other medical personnel when they voluntarily render emergency care. These statutes exempt medical professionals from liability for ordinary negligence; however, they do not exempt them from liability for gross negligence.
What effect does evidence of custom have on the standard of care in a negligence action?
Evidence of a custom in a community or an industry is admissible as evidence to establish the proper standard of care, but such evidence is not conclusive.
What defenses are available to a defamation action?
1) Truth is a complete defense.
2) Consent is a defense, provided the scope of the consent is not exceeded.
3) Absolute privileges exist for statements made:
(i) In the course of judicial proceedings by the participants to the proceeding or legislative proceedings by witnesses to the proceedings;
(ii) Between spouses concerning a third person; and
(iii) As required publications by radio, television, or newspaper.
4) Qualified (conditional) privileges exist for statements:
(i) Made in the interest of the publisher (defendant), such as defending his reputation;
(ii) Made in the interest of the recipient of the statement or a third party; or
(iii) Affecting an important public interest.
In negligence actions, what standard of care applies to a professional?
A professional person (e.g., doctor, lawyer, or electrician) is expected to exhibit the same skill, knowledge, and care as an ordinary practitioner in the same community.
A specialist may be held to a higher standard than a general practitioner because of his superior knowledge.
Note: Establishing negligence by a professional person generally requires expert testimony to establish both the applicable standard of care and the defendant’s deviation from that standard.
What elements must be established for violation of a statute to constitute negligence per se?
1) A criminal or regulatory statute imposes a specific duty for protection of others;
2) The defendant neglects to perform the duty;
3) The defendant is liable to anyone in the class of people intended to be protected by statute; and
4) The harm is of the type the statute was intended to protect against.
Note: In a minority of jurisdictions, violation of the statute is merely evidence of negligence (a rebuttable presumption as to duty and breach rather than a conclusive presumption).
What test is applied by most courts when the conduct of two or more defendants may have contributed to a plaintiff’s indivisible injury?
Substantial-factor test: In cases in which the conduct of two or more defendants may have contributed to a plaintiff’s indivisible injury, each of which alone would have been a factual cause of that injury, the test applied by most courts is whether the defendant’s tortious conduct was a substantial factor in causing the plaintiff’s harm.
Note: Under the minority rule of the Third Restatement, each such cause or act is regarded as a factual cause of the harm. Together they are designated as “multiple sufficient causes.”
When does an intervening event (an act or event occurring after the defendant’s tortious act and before the plaintiff’s injury) cut off a defendant’s liability?
An intervening event that breaks the chain of proximate causation between the defendant’s tortious act and the plaintiff’s harm is a superseding cause. An unforeseeable intervening event is generally treated as a superseding cause, while a foreseeable intervening event generally is not.
What is the most important thing a plaintiff must prove to be awarded damages in a negligence action?
The plaintiff must prove actual harm (personal injury, property damage) to be entitled to damages for negligence. Nominal damages are not available.
What are the elements of battery?
1) The defendant causes,
2) A harmful or offensive contact,
3) To the person of another, and
4) The defendant acts with the intent to cause such contact or the apprehension of such contact.
What is the doctrine of joint and several liability?
Under the doctrine of joint and several liability, each of two or more tortfeasors who is found liable for a single and indivisible harm to the plaintiff is subject to liability to the plaintiff for the entire harm. The plaintiff has the choice of collecting the entire judgment from one defendant, the entire judgment from another defendant, or portions of the judgment from various defendants, as long as the plaintiff’s entire recovery does not exceed the amount of the judgment.
Note: Always apply joint and several liability on the MBE unless the facts instruct you to apply a different test.