Torts Flashcards

1
Q

A tort is a civil (i) _______ committed against another.

A

(i) wrong

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2
Q

(i) ________ is a (ii) _______ or (iii) _______ contact with the plaintiff’s person, (iii) _________ caused by the defendant.

A

(i) battery; (ii) harmful; (ii) offensive; (iii) intentionally

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3
Q

For battery, contact is offensive if the plaintiff has not (i) ______ or (ii) _______ consented

A

(i) expressly; (ii) impliedly

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4
Q

(i) ________ is the intentional creation by the defendant of a (ii) _________ _________ of (iii) __________ harmful or offensive contact to the plaintiff’s person

A

(i) assault; (ii) reasonable apprehension; (ii) immediate

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5
Q

False (i) __________ is an intentional act or (ii) _______ by the defendant that causes the plaintiff to be (iii) __________ or restrained to a (iv) _______ area. Confinement or restraint includes threats of force, false arrest, and failure to provide a means of escape.

A

(i) arrest; (ii) omission; (iii) confined; (iv) bounded

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6
Q

Intentional (i) _______ of ________ _________ is (ii) ______ and _________ conduct by the defendant that causes the plaintiff to suffer (iii) _________ emotional distress. (physical injuries are not required)

A

(i) infliction of emotional distress; (ii) extreme and outrageous; (iii) severe

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7
Q

Trespass to (i) _______ is an intentional (ii) _____ of the plaintiff’s real property.

A

(i) land; (ii) intentional invasion

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8
Q

Trespass to (i) _________ is the intentional (ii) _________ with the plaintiff’s rights to possess chattel, resulting in (iii) _____. If the damage is serious, it’s likely transformed into (iv) ________.

A

(i) chattel; (ii) interference; (iii) damages; (iv) ocnversion

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9
Q

(i) __________ is an intentional act to (ii) _________ interfere with the plaintiff’s right in chattel. The interference is so serious that the defendant should pay the full (iii) _____ value of the chattel (in effect, a forced sale).

A

(i) conversion; (ii) chattel; (iii) market

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10
Q

Intent will be (i) _______ from the intended (ii) _____ to the committed tort, OR from the intended (iii) ________ to the actual victim

A

(i) transferred; (ii) tort; (iii) victim

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11
Q

Consent is a defense to an intentional tort, when it is either (i) _______ or (ii) ______.

A

(i) express; (ii) implied

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12
Q

Defense of others, defense of property, and self-defense are available tort defenses where the defendant (i) ________ believed that the tort is being or about to committed

A

(i) reasonably

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13
Q

In defense, only (i) _______ force may be used. (ii) _____ force is permitted if (iii) ______ believed to be necessary to prevent serious bodily harm (never to protect property). The (iv) _______ privilege permits the reasonable (v) __________ of someone who the shopkeeper reasonably believes has stolen goods.

A

(i) reasonable; (ii) deadly; (iii) reasonably; (iv) shopkeeper’s; (v) detention

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14
Q

The prima facie negligence case includes: (i) a _____ of care, (ii) a _____ of that duty, (iii) that the breach was the ______ and ______ cause of the plaintiff’s injury, and (iv) that the plaintiff suffered __________ to person or property.

A

(i) duty of care; (ii) breach of duty; (iii) actual and proximate; (iv) damages

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15
Q

The general standard of care is that of a (i) ________ ______ person under the same or similar circumstances (average mental ability, same physical characteristics, of defendant). Professionals must exercise the (ii) ______ and _____ of a member of their profession, in good standing. Children must conform to the standard of care of a child of like (iii) _______, _______, _________ and experience (except in adult activities).

A

(i) reasonably prudent; (ii) knowledge and skill; (iii) age, education, intelligence, and experience

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16
Q

A landowner’s duty of care to a (i) __________ is nothing to an undiscovered trespasser. For discovered (and anticipated) trespassers, the landowner has a duty to (ii) ______ or make _________ known, (iii) ______ ______, _________ conditions, if not obvious to a trespasser.

A

(i) trespasser; (ii) warn or make safe; (iii) highly dangerous, artificial

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17
Q

A (i) _______ is one who comes onto the land with express or implied permission, but for their own purposes (like a social guest). The landowner’s duty is the same as for discovered trespassers, EXCEPT that it applies to (ii) ______ dangerous artificial and natural conditions (not just highly dangerous artificial conditions).

A

(i) licensee; (ii) all

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18
Q

A criminal statute may serve to establish a specific standard of care (negligence per se) if the plaintiff is within the (i) ________ that the statute was meant to (ii) _______, and the statute was designed to prevent the (iii) _____ of ______ suffered.

A

(i) class; (ii) protect; (iii) type of harm

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19
Q

Negligent infliction of emotional distress is where the defendant breaches a duty to the plaintiff by creating a risk of physical injury, and the plaintiff suffers (i) _______ ________ as a result.

A

(i) emotion distress

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20
Q

For a negligent infliction of emotional distress claim, the plaintiff must be within the (i) _____ of ______ and experience (ii) _______ symptoms for the distress.

A

(i) zone of danger; (ii) physical

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21
Q

A plaintiff may have a claim for NIoED where the defendant breaches a duty to a bystander not in the zone of danger, who is (i) _______ ______ to the injured person, who was (ii) _______ at the scene of the injury, and who (iii) _______ witnesses or perceived the event.

A

(i) closely related; (ii) present; (iii) personally

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22
Q

There is also an exceptional case of NIoED where the relationship between the plaintiff and defendant has great potential to directly cause emotional distress, for instance, a (i) _________ erroneously reporting the (ii) _____ of a family member.

A

(i) hospital; (ii) death

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23
Q

Whether the defendant (i) _________ the standard of care is a question for the (ii) _____ of _____.

A

(i) breached; (ii) trier of fact

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24
Q

Under (i) ___ _____ _________, the fact that an injury occurred may create an inference that the defendant (ii) _______. There are three requirements to invoke res ipsa loquitur: the accident it the type that would not have occurred with out (iii) _________; the negligence is (iv) ______ to the defendant (who usually had exclusive control of the instrumentality); and the injury is not attributable to the plaintiff’s own (v) ______.

A

(i) res ipsa loquitur; (ii) breached; (iii) negligence; (iv) attributable; (v) conduct/behavior

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25
Q

(i) ______ cause is usually established by the (ii) ____ for test.

A

(i) actual; (ii) but for

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26
Q

When two acts bring about an injury, and either one along would have sufficed to cause injury, the acts (i) ______, and either is an (ii) ________ cause of the injury if it was a (iii) _______ factor in causing the injury.

A

(i) merge; (ii) actual; (iii) substantial

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27
Q

When two acts were negligent, but it is not clear which was the (i) _______ cause, the burden shifts to the (ii) ________ to show that he was not the actual cause.

A

(i) actual; (ii) defendants

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28
Q

(i) _______ cause limits liability to (ii) ____________ consequences of the defendant’s actions

A

(i) proximate; (ii) unforeseeable

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29
Q

Foreseeable intervening forces do (i) ______ cut off the defendant’s liability for (ii) _______ acts

A

(i) not; (ii) subsequent

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30
Q

The plaintiff must show actual (i) ____ or (ii) _______ to complete the prima facie case. The plaintiff can recover (iii) _______ damages and (iv) _____ and suffering. The extent or severity of the harm need not have been (v) ______. The tortfeasor takes his victim as he finds him.

A

(i) injury; (ii) harm; (iii) economic; (iv) pain and suffering; (v) foreseeable

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31
Q

Two defenses to negligence are that the plaintiff (i) ________ to the negligence, and that the plaintiff (ii) ______ the risk.

A

(i) contributed; (ii) assumed

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32
Q

(i) _____ liability is imposed where a (ii) _____ animal or an (iii) ______ ______ domestic animal causes injury.

A

(i) strict; (ii) wild; (iii) abnormally dangerous

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33
Q

(i) ______ liability is imposed on one who is engaged in (ii) ______ ________ activity (one that creates a foreseeable risk of serious harm even where reasonable care is exercised)

A

(i) strict; (ii) abnormally dangerous

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34
Q

For (i) _____ liability, the harm must result from the (ii) ____- of danger that makes the animal or activity abnormally dangerous.

A

(i) strict; (ii) kind

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35
Q

Defective product torts can be brought under lots of tort theories: (i) _______ harm; (ii) _______, (iii) ____ liability, (iv) _______ warranties of merchantability and fitness

A

(i) intentional harm; (ii) negligence; (iii) strict liability; (iv) implied warranties of merchantability and fitness

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36
Q

Products liability arises when a commercial supplier supplies a product in a (i) _____ condition, unreasonably (ii) _______ to users. A product has a (iii) ______ defect when it varies from other products produced, and is dangerous beyond the ordinary consumer expectation. A product has a (iv) _______ defect when all products of the line have dangerous characteristics or an (v) ________ defect (inadequate warnings and instructions), and a less dangerous modification was (vi) _______ feasible.

A

(i) defective; (ii) dangerous; (iii) manufacturing; (iv) design; (v) information; (vi) economically

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37
Q

Product strict liability arises from supplying a (i) _____ product even if the defendant exercised due care and was not negligent. Even a (ii) ________ who had no opportunity to inspect may be as liable as a commercial supplier. The defect must have (iii) ________ when the product left the defendant’s (iv) ______-.

A

(i) defective; (ii) retailer; (iii) existed; (iv) control

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38
Q

A private (i) _______ is a substantial, unreasonable interference with another person’s use or enjoyment of her property.

A

(i) nuisance

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39
Q

A (i) ______ ________ unreasonably interferes with he health, safety, or property rights of the community

A

(i) public nuisance

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40
Q

Nuisance claims an be based on (i) ______, (ii) ________, or strict liability

A

(i) intent; (ii) negligence

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41
Q

(i) ______ to the nuisance is not a defense for the defendant against a new neighbor plaintiff

A

(i) coming

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42
Q

An employer is responsible for the torts of her (i) ______ that occur with in the (ii) _____ of employment. That is called (iii) ______ _______.

A

(i) employee; (ii) scope; (iii) respondeat superior

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43
Q

In general, a principal is not responsible for the torts of an independent contractor, but that may change if the contractor in engaged in (i) _______ ______ activity, or the duties cannot be (ii) ________ for public policy reasons.

A

(i) inherently dangerous; (ii) delegated

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44
Q

An automobile owner is not automatically liable for the torts of a driver of his car unless the state has enacted a permissive use statute (liable for driver the owner gave (i) _______) or a family purpose doctrine (liable for a family member driving without (ii) _______).

A

(i) permission; (ii) without permission

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45
Q

A parent is not (i) ______ liable for a child’s torts at common law. But a child may have limited liability for intentional torts.

A

(i) vicariously

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46
Q

Whether or not there is vicarious liability, a defendant can be liable for his owns acts, like negligent (i) _______ of an employee, or negligent (ii) _______ of equipment.

A

(i) hiring; (ii) entrustment

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47
Q

Joint tortfeasors who act together to cause an indivisible injury are (i) _____ and ________ liable. If the plaintiff recovers all damages from one tortfeasor, (ii) _______ allows that tortfeasor to subsequently collect his dues from the other tortfeasors.

A

(i) joint and several; (ii) contribution

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48
Q

(i) _____ statutes allow the victim’s estate to preserve causes of action. (ii) ______ death statutes allow a personal representative or spouse to sue for loss of (iii) ______ and (iv) _________.

A

(i) survival; (ii) wrongful; (iii) income; (iv) companionship

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49
Q

Governments have generally waived tort immunity for (i) _____ acts (day-to-day operations) but not (ii) ______ acts (policy)

A

(i) ministerial; (ii) discretionary

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50
Q

(i) _________ is the (ii) _______ of (iii) _______ language to a third person, that causes (iv) _______ to the plaintiff’s reputation

A

(i) defamation; (ii) publication; (iii) defamatory language; (iv) damage

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51
Q

Defamatory damages are presumed in libel ( (i) _____ or other permanent form) or (ii) _______ per ___ (spoken defamation related to professional work, a loathsome disease, a crime of moral turpitude, or the unchastity of a woman); otherwise, (iii) ______ damages must be shown.

A

(i) writing; (ii) slander per se; (iii) pecuniary

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52
Q

If the plaintiff is a public figure or official, or if the defamation relates to a matter of public concern, the plaintiff must prove that the statement was (i) ________. If the plaintiff is a public figure, he must show (ii) _____ _____, meaning that the statement was made with knowledge of falsity or reckless disregard for the truth. Private figures suing in a matter of public concern must show at least (iii) __________ as to truth or falsity, and (iv) ______ injury.

A

(i) false; (ii) actual malice; (iii) negligence; (iv) actual injury

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53
Q

Defenses to defamation include (i) ______, absolute (ii) ______ (judicial, legislative, or executive proceedings.

A

(i) truth; (ii) privileges

54
Q

The privacy torts include (i) ______ of the plaintiff’s name or picture (unauthorized use for (ii) ______ advantage, to promote products or services); (iii) _____ on the plaintiff’s seclusion (if highly offensive to a reasonable person); (iv) publication of facts in a _______ ________ in the public eye (though if in the public interest, actual malice must be shown), (v) public ________ of private facts (highly offensive to a reasonable person).

A

(i) appropriation; (ii) commercial; (iii) intrusion; (iv) false light; (v) disclosure

55
Q

Intentional misrepresentation (fraud) is made by a defendant with (i) _______ (knowledge of falsity or reckless disregard for the truth), (ii) ____ to induce ________, (iii) ____________ (actual reliance), (iv) ______ reliance, and (v) ________

A

(i) scienter; (ii) intent to induce reliance, (iii) causation; (iv) justifiable reliance; (v) damages

56
Q

Negligent misrepresentation occurs by a defendant in a (i) _____ or ______ capacity, who breaches a duty to the plaintiff, causes actual reliance, upon justifiable reliance, and damages. Only owed to known parties.

A

(i) professional or business

57
Q

Tortious (i) _______ with a business relationship is the interference with a (ii) ________ or (iii) _______ of the plaintiff and a third party, and the defendant knows of the relationship, intentionally causes a (iv) _____, and causes (v) ______-

A

(i) interference; (ii) contract or expectancy; (iii) breach; (iv) damages

58
Q

The tort of malicious (i) ___________ is when a criminal proceeding is brought against the the plaintiff, and ends in the plaintiff’s favor, and there was never (ii) ______ cause, it was motivated by (iii) _______, and there are (iv) ______-

A

(i) prosecution; (ii) probable cause; (iii) malice; (iv) damages

59
Q

Contact is considered (i) ________ if it would be offensive to a reasonable person

A

(i) offensive

60
Q

(i) _____ alone are insufficient to create a reasonable apprehension of imminent harm for assault. However, words can (ii) ______ an otherwise reasonable apprehension

A

(i) words; (ii) negate

61
Q

For false imprisonment, confinement / restraint includes physical (i) ________, physical (ii) _________, (iii) ______ of force, failure to (iv) _______- someone, and invalid use of authority.

A

(i) force; (ii) barriers; (iii) threats; (iv) release

62
Q

For false imprisonment, any period of (i) _____ is dispositive, but the plaintiff must be (ii) ______ of confinement

A

(i) time; (ii) aware

63
Q

Bounded area for sale imprisonment means there are no (i) ________ means of escape (ii) _______ or reasonably (iii) ______ to the plaintiff.

A

(i) reasonable; (ii) known; (iii) reasonably discoverable

64
Q

Extreme and outrageous conduct (i) _______ all bounds of (ii) ______. Normally non-outrageous conduct may become so if it is (iii) ________, directed as a (iv) ______ class of plaintiff’s, or is committed by a (v) ______-carrier.

A

(i) transcend; (ii) decency; (iii) continuous; (iv) sensitive; (iv) common-carrier

65
Q

Intentional infliction of emotional distress is the only intentional tort that requires the plaintiff to show (i) ______.

A

(i) damages

66
Q

A bystander can sue for either (i) _______ or (ii) ______ infliction of emotional distress, if they were (iii) _____ when the injury occurred, and (iv) _______ related to the victim. For intentional, the plaintiff must also show that the defendant knew about the plaintiff’s relationship and presence. For negligent, the plaintiff must show physical harm.

A

(i) intention; (ii) negligent; (iii) present; (iv) closely related

67
Q

For trespass to chattel, the defendant’s mistaken belief that he (i) _____ the chattel is no defense to a tort claim

A

(i) owns

68
Q

For conversion, the plaintiff can seek damages, which are (i) ______ ________ or (ii) ______ (replevin)

A

(i) market value; (ii) possession

69
Q

While nearly everyone has the capacity to commit a tort, a greater level of capacity is required to (i) ______ to having a tort committed against you.

A

(i) consent

70
Q

For self-defense in a tort, the majority rule is that there is no (i) _____ to _______ (though the modern rule imposes this duty before using deadly force, if retreat can be safe, unless the actor is at home)

A

(i) duty to retreat

71
Q

For a self-defense in tort, the defense cannot be claimed by the (i) _______ aggressor unless the other party escalated with (ii) ______ force.

A

(i) initial; (ii) deadly

72
Q

For self-defense, a reasonable (i) _______ as to danger is allowed.

A

(i) mistake

73
Q

To defend property, the plaintiff should first request the tortfeasor desist. Thereafter, the plaintiff can use (i) ______ force, and may use force in (ii) ______ pursuit.

A

(i) reasonable; (ii) hot pursuit

74
Q

Resort to self help to (i) ______ land is no longer allowed, and instead courts favor actions like (ii) _____.

A

(i) re-enter; (ii) ejectment

75
Q

To recapture (i) _______, one may only use (ii) _____ means. Force can only be used in (iii) _______ pursuit

A

(i) chattels; (ii) peaceful; (iii) hot pursuit

76
Q

When stolen (i) _____ are on the land of a wrongdoer, the owner is (ii) _____ to enter land and reclaim the chattel at a (iii) _____ time and manner, after first making a demand for return.

A

(i) chattels; (ii) privileged; (iii) reasonable time and manner

77
Q

If chattels are on another’s property through the owner’s own (i) _______, he has no right to enter the property

A

(i) negligence

78
Q

A person may interfere with the real or personal property for another when it is necessary to avoid (i) _______ injury from a natural or other force, and when the trespass is less serious than the treat of danger. This is the doctrine of (ii) __________. It’s (iii) _____ necessity when for the public good, and the actor has no liability. It’s (iv) _________ necessity wen for the actor and a limited number of people, and the actor must pay for any liabilities he causes.

A

(i) threatened; (ii) necessity; (iii) public; (iv) private

79
Q

A rescuer is a (i) ______ plaintiff where defendant has acted dangerously (“danger invites rescue). However, firefighters and police officers are barred by the firefighters’ rule from recovering from injuries caused by rescue.

A

(i) foreseeable

80
Q

A duty of care is owed to a viable (i) _____-. In cases of failure to diagnose a congenital defect or properly perform a contraceptive procedure, the child may not recover for “wrongful life,” but the parents may recover for a “wrongful (ii) ________,” including any additional medical expenses and pain and suffering from labor. Ordinary child-rearing expenses are ineligible.

A

(i) fetus; (ii) wrongful birth

81
Q

A child under the age of (i) _____ is without capacity for negligence

A

(i) five

82
Q

A bailee owes a high standard of care if the bailment is for the benefit of the (i) ______ (he himself is benefiting from he loan)

A

(i) bailee

83
Q

A bailor must warn a bailee of known, (i) ____ defects in the chattel

A

(i) dangerous

84
Q

The (i) ______ _____ doctrine requires landowners to exercise ordinary care to avoid a reasonably foreseeable risk of children coming onto the property and being harmed. The plaintiff must show a (ii) _______ condition, that the owner knows (iii) ________ are frequently in the vicinity, that the condition is likely to (iv) ______ injury (because children do not appreciate the risk), and the (v) ______ of remedying the situation is slight compared to the risk.

A

(i) attractive nuisance; (ii) dangerous; (iii) children; (iv) cause; (v) expense

85
Q

An owner has a duty to (i) _____ licensees (or make safe) of dangerous conditions (natural or artificial) that are (ii) ______ to the owner, and create an unreasonable risk of harm and that the licensee is (iii) _____ to discover on his own. The owner must also use reasonable care in a active operations on the property. But the owner has no duty to (iv) _____ or repair.

A

(i) warn; (ii) known; (iii) unlikely to discover; (v) inspect

86
Q

Rescuers and social guests are both (i) _____ on property

A

(i) licensees

87
Q

Invitees may enter with the (i) _______ of the landowner, or as a member of the public where the land is held (ii) _____ to the public. The landowner owes the same duties owed to licenses plus a duty to make (iii) reasonable ________ to discover non obvious dangerous, and thereafter, to make them (iv) ______ (a warning may suffice). One will lose their invitee status if they exceed the (v) ______ of the invitation.

A

(i) invitation; (ii) public; (iii) inspections; (iv) repairs; (v) scope

88
Q

A landlord has a duty to warn a tenant about known (or has reason to know about) (i) _____- that are (ii) ______ (not easily recoverable on reasonable inspection). If the landlord covenants to repair, he is liable for (iii) _______ dangerous conditions. If the landlord volunteers to repair, and does so (iv) ______, he is liable.

A

(i) defects; (ii) known; (iii) unreasonably; (iv) negligently

89
Q

A (i) _______ standard of care may be used a common law duty of (ii) ______ if the plaintiff is within the protected (iii) _____ of persons, and the harm is the type the (iv) ______ was meant to protect against.

A

(i) statutory; (ii) care; (iii) class; (iv) harm

90
Q

There is an excuse for violation of the statutory standard of care if (i) _______ would have created more danger, or if it was beyond the defendant’s (ii) ______ (impossible)

A

(i) compliance; (ii) control

91
Q

An unexcused violation of negligence (i) ____ _____ establishes the first two elements (duty and breach) of a prima facie case – a presumption of duty and breach is available. (Though, an excuse does not change the standard of care)

A

(i) per se

92
Q

The jury for negligent infliction of emotional distress may be breached when the defendant creates a foreseeable risk of (i) _____ injury to the plaintiff. The plaintiff must within the (ii) _____ of danger and have (iii) ________ symptoms from distress. A special bystander, not in the zone, can seek damages where the (iv) plaintiff is _______ related to the individual harmed, the plaintiff was (v) _________, and the plaintiff (vi) _________ the event. Most states drop the physical symptoms requirement for the bystander.

A

(i) harm; (ii) zone of danger; (iii) physical symptoms; (iv) closely related; (iv) present; (vi) personally observed

93
Q

A defendant may be liable for directly causing the patient severe emotional distress when a duty arises from their (i) _________ (lie a doctor misdiagnosing an illness). Most states drop the physical requirement in this case.

A

(i) relationship

94
Q

One has a duty to assist someone he has negligently placed in (i) ______

A

peril

95
Q

Common carriers, innkeepers, and shopkeepers have a special duty to (i) _____

A

act

96
Q

Breach is a question for the (i) ____ of fact.

A

(i) trier

97
Q

To show breach of duty, a plaintiff can show a violation of (i) ______ or (ii) ________, violation of a (iii) ______, or the doctrine of (iv) _____ _____ _____.

A

(i) custom or usage; (ii) statutory breach; (iii) res ipsa loquitor

98
Q

Res ipsa loquirtor means that the accident causing the injury normally would not occur without (i)______, and the negligence is attributable to the (ii) _______, because the instrumentality was in the defendant’s (iii) ____.

A

(i) negligence; (ii) defendant; (iii) control

99
Q

Where res ipsa loquitur is established, plaintiff has made a prima facie case, and no (i) ______ verdict can be given for the defendant.

A

(i) directed

100
Q

A plaintiff’s motion for directed judgment based on res ipsa loquitur should only be granted if there was also (i) _____ per se, and (ii) there are no issues of _____ cause.

A

(i) negligence per se; (ii) proximate cause

101
Q

Actual cause is established by the (i) ____ for test. Where multiple forces combine, and any one alone would’ve been sufficient, the defendant’s conduct is the cause as long as it was a (ii) ______ factor. If there are two acts, only one of which caused the injury, but it cannot be known, burden shifts to the (iii) _______ to show he did not cause the negligence.

A

(i) but for; (ii) substantial; (iii) defendant

102
Q

Generally, proximate cause includes (i) ________ risks. If the cause of harm is (ii) __________, defendant is liable if he caused the actual harm, no matter how unusual the harm was.

A

(i) foreseeable; (ii) uniterrupted

103
Q

An (i) _____ cause is an affirmative, intervening force (by a 3d person or act of good), which combines with the defendant’s negligently act to cause injury.

A

(i) indirect

104
Q

A defendant is still liable when an intervening cause was (i) _________. These common, foreseeable intervening causes include medical malpractice, negligence of rescuers, efforts to protect person or property, and subsequent disease or accident

A

(i) foreseeable

105
Q

An (i) _______ intervening force that is not a natural response may be foreseeable if the defendant’s negligence (ii) ________ the likelihood of harm.

A

(i) independent; (ii) increased

106
Q

For proximate case, unforeseeable results caused by unforeseeable intervening forces general defeat subsequent (i) _______.

A

(i) liability

107
Q

In all cases, the tortfeasor takes his victim as he (i) ____ him

A

(i) finds him. Eggshell-skull plaintiff rule.

108
Q

A (i) ______ or an (ii) _______ tort is an intervening force that breaks proximate cause (generally, it is is unforeseeable).

A

(i) crime; (ii) intentional tort

109
Q

Damages are essential to proving tort. Plaintiff can get (i) _______ (e.g., lost wages) and (ii) ________ (e.g., suffering) damages.

A

(i) economic; (ii) non-economic

110
Q

For property damage, the measure of damage is cost of (i) _______, unless the property is nearly destroyed, in which case it is (ii) ________ value. Generally, no emotional damages can accompany property loss.

A

(i) repair; (ii) market

111
Q

(i) _______ damages generally are not available in negligence, unless the defendant’s behavior was wanton, willful, (ii) _______ or malicious.

A

(i) punitive; (ii) reckless

112
Q

In tort damages, interest and (i) _____ fees are not recoverable

A

(i) attorneys

113
Q

Contributory negligence is not a defense of a statutory breach if the person accused of contributory negligence was in the (i) ______ persons and (ii) ______ of activities meant to be protected

A

(i) class of persons; (ii) class of activities

114
Q

Plaintiff may be denied recovery if she (i) _____ the risk. This requires (ii) ______ of the risk, and (iii) ________ action to proceed in the face of the risk.

A

(i) assumed; (ii) knowledge; (iii) voluntary

115
Q

Strict liability will not be imposed in favor of (i) ________ unless the owner was (ii) ________.

A

(i) trespassers; (ii) negligent

116
Q

Abnormally generous activities (Rylands) require a plaintiff to show that the activity created a foreseeable risk of (i) ____ harm even when reasonable care is exercised, and the activity is not a matter of (ii) ________ usage in the community

A

(i) serious harm; (ii) common usage

117
Q

In products liability, retailers and wholesalers can usually avoid negligence claims via (i) _______-

A

(i) inspection

118
Q

For a liability claim based on (i) ______ liability, the prima facie case is that there is a (ii) _________ supplier, that the product was (iii) ________ when it left the defendant’s (iv) ________, that the product was the actual and proximate cause of the injury, and that there are damages.

A

(i) strict; (ii) commercia; (iii) defective; (iv) control

119
Q

Strict (i) ______ liability is only for products. There is no strict liability for services. That should be a negligence claim.

A

(i) product

120
Q

Strict product liability must show (i) _______ or property damages; economic loss is not enough

A

(i) injury

121
Q

There is no contributory negligence defense for strict products liability where the user’s misuse was (i) _______ foreseeable.

A

(i) reasonably

122
Q

The implied merchant warranties of (i) _________ and (ii) ________ apply to the sale of every good. Merchantability means the goods are of average quality and are generally fit for the (iii) _______ purpose for which the goods are used. (iv) ________ for a particularly purpose arises when the seller (v) ________ (or has reason to know) of the particular purpose for which the goods are being purchased, and the buyer (vi) ________ on the seller’s skill in selecting the good.

A

(i) merchantability; (ii) fitness; (iii) ordinary; (iv) fitness; (v) knows; (vi) relies

123
Q

Nuisance is a (i) _________, (ii) ________ interference with another private individual’s (iii) ____ or enjoyment of property that he possesses (or has a right to possess). Substantial interference is an objective standard; substantial means (iv) ________- to the average person in the community. Unreasonable means the cost of the nuisance outweighs the the benefits.

A

(i) substantial, (ii) unreasonable; (iii) use or enjoyment; (iv) offensive

124
Q

Generally, intentional torts are not without the scope of employment unless force is (i) _________, (ii) _____ is generated by the employer, or the employee is furthering the (iii) ______ interest of the employer

A

(i) authorized; (ii) friction; (iii) business interest

125
Q

Traditionally, there was no liability for tavern keepers for over-serving guests. Most states now have (i) ______ Acts, which create a cause of action in favor of any third person injured by an intoxicated vendee.

A

(i) Dramshop

126
Q

Defamation is (i) ______ language of and (ii) ________ the plaintiff, that is (iii) ________, and thereby causes (iv) ______ to the defendant’s reputation. If the matter involves a matter of public concern, the Constitution requires that the plaintiff additionally prove that the allegation is (v) ____________ and (vi) ________ on the part of the defendant.

A

(i) defamatory; (ii) concerning; (iii) published; (iv) damage; (v) false; (vi) fault

127
Q

Defamatory language is language that (i) _______ affects one’s reputation. Opinion and name calling are insufficient. It must be fact-based.

A

(i) adversely

128
Q

Defamatory publication means communicating the language to a third person who (i) ______ it.

A

(i) understands

129
Q

Libel is (i) ______ defamation.

A

(i) written

130
Q

Slander is (i) ______ defamation. Plaintiff must prove special damages (pecuniary loss). However, no special damages are needed if it is slander (ii) ____ ____, which includes remarks made about one’s (iii) _______, a (iv) ______ disease; (v) a crime of ________ turpitude, or that a woman is (vi) ________.

A

(i) spoken; (ii) per se; (iii) profession; (iv) loathsome disease; (v) moral turpitude; (v) unchaste

131
Q

In defamation, if it is a matter of public concern, the plaintiff must prove falsity and fault. If the plaintiff is a public official or figure, he must show actual (i) _____ on the part of the defendant. That means (ii) _______ or a reckless disregard for the truth. If the plaintiff is a private person, he must show that the printing was (iii) _______ (failure to investigate the claim).

A

(i) malice; (ii) knowledge; (iii) negligent

132
Q

In a common law defamation claim, the burden is on the defendant to prove (i) _______ as a defense. In a constitutional defamation case, the burden is on the plaintiff to prove (ii) _______.

A

(i) truth; (ii) falsity