Contracts Flashcards

1
Q

______ protects against unjust enrichment, whenever contract law yield an unfair result. It is an equitable remedy of last resort.

A

Restitution

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2
Q

In a ___________ contract, an offer can only be accepted by ___________

A

(i) unilateral; (ii) performance

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3
Q

An advertisement is not an offer unless there’s a clear _______.

A

Quantity

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4
Q

In a UCC Contract, the court can read in _______, but not in common law.

A

reasonable terms

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5
Q

You must know of an ______ in order to accept it.

A

Offer

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6
Q

A offer will (i) ________ if passes its stated term or if a (ii) _______ _____ has passed.

A

(i) lapse; (ii) reasonable term

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7
Q

Generally, an offer can be _________ at any time before acceptance

A

Revoked

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8
Q

An offeror can directly (i) __________ an offer by expertly telling the offeree. The offeror can also engage in conduct that demonstrates the offer has been (ii) _____, and the offeree is (iii) ________ of the conduct.

A

(i) revoke; (ii) revoked; (iii) aware

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9
Q

An offeree’s outright (i) __________ or (ii) __________ will serve to terminate the original offer.

A

(i) rejection; (ii) counteroffer

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10
Q

While a counteroffer will revoke an offer, mere (i) _____ will not serve to revoke the offer.

A

(i) inquiry

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11
Q

An offer cannot revoked if there is an (i) ______ contract, or (ii) a UCC 2-205 _____’s _____ ________, which must be a signed writing to keep an offer open (for a specific term, OR a reasonable time not to exceed 90 days); (iii) foreseeable _______ before acceptance, and (iv) starting ___________ under a unilateral contract

A

(i) options; (ii) merchant’s firm contract; (iii) reliance; (iv) performance

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12
Q

In a unilateral contract, the offeree must ______ of the offer at the time he performs.

A

Know (be aware of)

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13
Q

A revocation of an offer is effective upon ________

A

Receipt [no mailbox rule]

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14
Q

An offer terminates when an offeree (i) _______ it, or (ii) gives a _________ (though, not just “mere bargaining”); or (iii) accepts the offer with __________, or (iv) accepts and adds _____ (though different with UCC).

A

(i) rejects; (ii) counteroffer; (iii) conditions; (iv) terms

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15
Q

Mailbox rule: (both common and UCC) acceptance is valid upon _______

A

Dispatch

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16
Q

In the common law, an offeree who responds with new terms (i) _________ the offer, and creates a new offer, because the common law contracts requires the (ii) _____ _____ rule.

A

(i) rejects; (ii) mirror image

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17
Q

Under the UCC, additional terms do not prevent acceptance (reject offer), but only if both parties are (i) ________, the new term is not a (ii) _________ change, and (iii) there is no __________ to it within a reasonable time.

A

(i) merchants; (ii) material; (iii) objection

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18
Q

If the dispatch does not reach the recipient, because there was an error in delivery (e.g., bad address), then acceptance is effective upon _________.

A

Receipt

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19
Q

If a new term is __________ in the industry, it’s not material

A

Customary

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20
Q

Death of _______ party terminates a revocable offer (but not a contract)

A

either

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21
Q

Starting (i) _________ is a form of acceptance of a contract in a bilateral contract, and it

A

performance

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22
Q

For an options contract to be enforced under common law, it must include ___________.

A

Consideration

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23
Q

A merchant’s firm offer requires no ___________ from the offeree (unlike the common law).

A

Consideration

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24
Q

An offer by a merchant, in a (i) _____ _______, which by its terms gives assurance that it will be held (ii) ______ is irrevocable during the time stated (or a reasonable time, not to exceed 90 days).

A

(i) signed writing; (ii) open

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25
Q

(i) _________ is generally not valid acceptance, though it can be if “custom creates duty to (ii) _______” (eel skins case)

A

(i) silence; (ii) speak

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26
Q

UCC Gap filler rule: the court can fill-in (i) ________ terms, but it can never fill in (ii) ________, which is the one term that must exist in every single UCC contract. The exceptions are the Output and Requirements contracts.

A

(i) reasonable; (ii) terms

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27
Q

In a requirements contract, (i) ________ is measured by the buyer’s (ii) _____ _______ needs.

A

(i) quantity; (ii) good faith

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28
Q

The Mailbox rule can does not work if the contract expressly states otherwise, or has a clearly stated revocable _______.

A

Date

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29
Q

In a requirements contract, the buyers orders must be (i) _______ to orders in the past.

A

(i) proportionate

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30
Q

Unlike an acceptance, which is valid on (i) __________, a rejection is valid upon (ii) ________.

A

(i) dispatch; (ii) receipt

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31
Q

Consideration is a (i) _______-for legal cost or benefit.

A

(i) bargained

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32
Q

There is no such thing, in a contract, as (i) _______ consideration; it is not valid.

A

(i) past

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33
Q

In order to modify a common law contract, (i) new _______ is required. However, where the parties agree to a change, the court may still enforce the contract if the modification is a result of changed circumstances, and the change is (ii) _____ and ________.

A

(i) consideration; (ii) fair and equitable

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34
Q

In a UCC contract, no new (i) __________ is needed to modify a contract, so long as the change is made in (ii) _____ _______.

A

(i) consideration; (ii) good faith

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35
Q

Promise to pay an already-due, uncollected debt, is not (i) _________. The exception is a promise to pay a (ii) ______-_______ debt; a written promise to pay a (iii) _____-______ debt is enforceable without consideration.

A

(i) consideration; (ii) time-barred; (iii) time-barred

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36
Q

Moral obligation is not a valid substitute for (i) ________.

A

(i) consideration

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37
Q

(i) _______ _________ and (ii) ______ _______ are the equitable remedies for making a contract enforceable, even where there was no consideration.

A

(i) promissory estoppel; (ii) foreseeable reliance

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38
Q

(i) ______, (ii) the __________, and the (iii) _____ _____ do not have capacity to contract.

A

(i) minors; (ii) intoxicated; (iii) mentally incompetent

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39
Q

A defendant who did not have the capacity has the right to (i) _______ the contract, but he may accept it.

A

(i) disaffirm

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40
Q

If a (i) ________ retains the benefits of a contract after turning 18, he has implied affirmation, and it’s a valid contract.

A

(i) minor

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41
Q

A party who contracts without capacity is still liable for (i) _________ (food, shelter, clothing, medical care), but only at their (ii) ______ ________, not the contract price

A

(i) necessity; (ii) reasonable value

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42
Q

MYLEGS:

A

Marriage; Term of Years; Land Sale Contract; Executory Contracts; Goods (>=$500); Sureties

43
Q

UCC 2-201 states that the sale of goods greater than or equal to $500 require a contract in ________.

44
Q

A court can refuse to enforce all or parts of a contract if there are (i) ______ and ________ terms, tested as of the time the (ii) _______ was made.

A

(i) unfair and oppressive; (ii) agreement

45
Q

A contract will be held invalid under (i) ______ if the other party makes an (ii) _____ _________, and there was no reasonable (iii) ________.

A

(i) duress; (ii) improper threat; (iii) alternative

46
Q

A promise to marry is not a contract to marry, and therefore does not have to be in __________ (SOF).

47
Q

Under the UCC, if an offeree accepts an offer and at the same time makes a material alteration to the other, the contract is under the terms of the (i) ______ _____, and the material alteration is (ii) _______.

A

(i) first offer; (ii) excluded

48
Q

A services contract which cannot possibly be completed in a ________ must be in writing. But if it’s possible it could be under a year, it may be oral without violating the SOF.

49
Q

Under the UCC, if the offeree makes acceptance (i) _______ upon ascent to an additional term, it is a (ii) ________, and battle-of-the-forms does not apply.

A

(i) condition; (ii) counteroffer

50
Q

Under common law, clauses that prevent (i) ______ medication are unenforceable, unless the modification is subject to the SOF>

51
Q

UCC Article 2 requires a contract contain a (i) ________, and be (ii) _______ by the party charged with breach.

A

(i) quantity; (ii) signed

52
Q

Under the common law, a contract must include all (i) _____ ________, and be signed by the defendant.

A

Material terms

53
Q

If a Land Contract is not in writing, it can be satisfied (but not necessarily) by part performance, by proving two of these three elements: (i) _______, (ii) _________, and/or (iii) _______.

A

(i) payment; (ii) possession; (iii) improvements

54
Q

Full performance will cure a contract that violates the statute of (i) _______, but partial performance will not; partial performance is subject to the remedy of (ii) ________.

A

(i) frauds; (ii) restitution

55
Q

Under the UCC, if a defendant admits under oath that there was a (i) ______, the admission will cure any issue with he statute of frauds.

56
Q

If a contract for custom-made goods (>$500) is not in writing, a (i) ______ ________ in production will cure any SOF deficiencies.

A

substantial beginning

57
Q

If a mutual mistake goes to the (i) _______ of the contract, then the mistake is grounds for (ii) _______.

A

(i) essence; (ii) rescission

58
Q

Unilateral mistake does not prevent contract (i) ________; however, in all unilateral mistake, if the non-mistaken party (ii) _______, or had reason to ________, then the non-mistaken party will not be allowed to take advantage of the mistake.

A

(i) formation; (ii) knows

59
Q

A Merchant’s (i) ________ ___________ can satisfy the SOF if both parties are (ii) _____________, a confirmatory writing includes (iii) ________ and terms, and there’s no (iv) written _________ within four days.

A

(i) confirmatory memo; (ii) merchants; (iii) quantity; (iv) objection

60
Q

The (i) _____ _______ rule keeps out evidence of a prior or contemporaneous agreement that contradicts a later writing.

A

(i) parol evidence

61
Q

Exceptions to the parol evidence rule include evidence that corrects a (i) ______ ______, or a document that establishes a (ii) ______ that a contract was never formed.

A

(i) clerical error; (ii) defense

62
Q

A seller can disclaim all (i) ______ warranties, but not (ii) ________ warranties. Implied warranty means that the goods are fit for the buyer’s (iii) _______ _______. If the seller knows the buyer has a special purpose and is relying on the merchant to select suitable goods, failure of the goods to comply will be a breach of contract.

A

(i) implied; (ii) express; (iii) particular purpose.

63
Q

When a seller delivers a nonconforming deliver of goods (non-perfect / non-conforming tender) to the buyer, the delivery is simultaneously acceptance and breach of contract. The buyer has three options: (i) accept the goods and pay the _______ _______; (ii) timely reject and sue for __________; (iii) the buyer can accept _____ of the delivery, and _______ the rest

A

(i) contract price; (ii) damages; (iii) some; reject

64
Q

A notice of __________ in delivery of non-conforming tender is a counter-offer (not an acceptance and breach). This notice gives the buyer the choice of accepting the non-conforming goods, or returning them (at the seller’s cost) for a new delivery.

A

Accommodation

65
Q

When a non-breaching party covers, they recover the difference between the cover price and the (i) ______ price; this is the standard remedy under the UCC. The cover price need not be the market price or the lowest bid, but it need be reasonable (for the same good).

66
Q

A contract that is FOB to the Seller’s City is a Shipment Contract. A Contract that is FOB followed by any other city is a destination contract. In a shipment contract, the seller must get the goods to a (i) ______ _______, (ii) ______ the buyer, and then risk shifts to the buyer. In a Destination Contract, the seller bares the risk until the Goods arrive to the Buyer.

A

(i) common carrier; (ii) notify

67
Q

If the buyer is picking-up the goods from a merchant, the merchant bears risk until the buyer (i) _____ _______; but if the buyer is picking up goods from a non-merchant, the risk-of-loss shifts to the buyer as soon as the non-merchant (ii) __________ (makes them available to buyer)

A

(i) takes possession; (ii) tenders

68
Q

Contracting parties can cancel or amend a contract prior to a 3rd party’s rights (i) ______; thereafter, a change or cancellation requires the 3d party to (ii) ________. A 3d party beneficiary can vest their rights when they (iii) _____ and ______ to the contract; (iv) learn and _____ on the contract; (v) learn and immediately ______ to enforce rights.

A

(i) vests; (ii) assent; (iii) learn and assent; (iv) learn and rely; (v) learns and sues

69
Q

Under common law, perfect performance is not required; (i) _________ performance is required, meaning that there is no (ii) __________ breach.

A

(i) substantial; (ii) material

70
Q

Under the UCC, a seller who fails to make perfect tender may be able to cure. If (i) ________ under the contract has not yet expired, the seller may cure; (ii) if time has expired, cure may be allowed if there were _____ _______ to think the buyer would accept.

A

(i) time; (ii) reasonable grounds

71
Q

If a buyer of goods keeps the goods after having an (i) _______ to ________, there’s implied acceptance. However, if the buyer later discovers a (ii) _________ defect, the buyer may be able to revoke.

A

(i) opportunity to inspect; (ii) latent

72
Q

Once a buyer (i) _______ delivery, it’s too late to (ii) ______, but for non-perfect tender, (iii) _______ may still be available.

A

(i) accepts; (ii) reject; (iii) damages

73
Q

If a buyer validly rejects a delivery, he can (i) ______ the goods at the seller’s expense, (ii) get a ______ of any money paid, and get (iii) ______.

A

(i) return; (ii) refund; (iii) damages

74
Q

An (i) __________ repudiation provides an excuse. You cannot retract your repudiation (anticipatory breach) if the other party has (ii) ________ on your repudiation.

A

(i) anticipatory; (ii) relied

75
Q

A party with (i) ______ _______ for being insecure may, in writing, request additional assurances. Without those adequate assurances, the party can defend against any breach.

A

(i) reasonable grounds

76
Q

An (i) _______ is an agreement to accept a different (ii) ________ in future satisfaction of an existing duty. The underlying duty is (iii) ________, but it is not excused until the (iv) ________ is satisfied.

A

(i) accord; (ii) performance; (iii) suspended; (iv) accord

77
Q

A (i) _______ is an agreement to substitute a new party for an existing one.

A

(i) novation

78
Q

A later, (i) __________ event that makes performance (ii) _________ may provide the seller with an excuse for performance. An act of God will qualify.

A

(i) unforeseen; (ii) impossible

79
Q

Destruction of a (i) ______ _______ of the contract is an excuse for non-performane

A

(i) subject matter

80
Q

In an Act of God, a seller who has born the risk of loss may be excused due to (i) ________, but only if the goods for shipment to the buyer were (ii) ________.

A

(i) impracticability; (ii) identified

81
Q

(i) _______ compliance is required for (ii) _______ conditions in the contract. Look for words like “if”, “as long as,” “provided that”

A

(i) strict; (ii) express

82
Q

Generally, all contracts are (i) ________ and (ii) ________ except for (iii) ________ personal services and long-term (iv) _______ contracts.

A

(i) assignable; (ii) delegable; (iii) unique: (iv) requirements

83
Q

Equitable remedies are generally only available in contract if monetary damages are (i) _________.

A

Inadequate

84
Q

A (i) ___________ assignment is freely revocable, whereas an assignment (ii) for _______ is irrevocable.

A

(i) gratuitous; (ii) value

85
Q

Generally, a seller cannot reclaim its goods for non-payment. However, it may be able to reclaim the goods if the buyer is (i) _________ when it receives the goods, and the seller demands return within 10 days, or the buyer (ii) _________ _________ to the seller in writing, within three months prior of the delivery date.

A

(i) insolvent; (ii) misrepresented solvency

86
Q

Under common law, damages are for (i) _______ losses.

A

expectation

87
Q

Under the UCC, the Buyer has 3 damage options: (i) _______ (difference in price paid in good faith and contract price); (ii) _________ price minus contract price (if cover was not in good faith or doesn’t cover at all); (iii) value as promised minus value as ___________ (if buyer keeps the non-conforming goods).

A

(i) cover; (ii) market; (iii) delivered

88
Q

If the breaching party sues under a services contract, they are entitled to the (i) _______ ________ of service provided, minus the (ii) __________ ________ by the non-breaching party.

A

(i) reasonable value; (ii) damages incurred

89
Q

Under the UCC, if a buyer breaches and does not accept delivery, the seller has three options for damages: (i) ______ damages (contract price minus resale price, if sold in good faith); (ii) ________ damages (contract price minus market price, even if no re-sell); (iii) ______ _______ (if goods cannot e resold, like custom-made goods).

A

(i) resale; (ii) market; (iii) contract price

90
Q

If the seller is a (i) _____ dealer, and the buyer breaches, the seller is able to gain lost (ii) _______.

A

(i) volume; (ii) profit

91
Q

Costs to the injured buyer or seller for transporting and caring for goods, or arranging for a substitute transaction, are always (i) __________.

A

(i) recoverable

92
Q

An injured party in a common law contract cannot recover damages if he did not attempt to (i) _______.

A

(i) mitigate

93
Q

If multiple parties are assigned a contract for value, the (i) _______ assignment wins.

94
Q

A contract can expressly (i) _______ assignment

95
Q

An owner who (i) ________ his goods to a merchant who deals in those kinds of goods has no rights against a future (ii) _____ _______ purchaser. He will have rights against the merchant, but not the new owner.

A

(i) entrusts; (ii) bona fide purchaser

96
Q

Under the UCC, an offer to buy goods for current or prompt shipment is accepted upon (i) ______ or (ii) a promise to ________

A

shipment; ship

97
Q

Under the UCC, if any party is not a (i) _________, then the additional terms are mere (ii) __________ to modify the contract, and do not take effect unless the offeror expressly agrees.

A

(i) merchant; (ii) proposals

98
Q

If an offeree sends a rejection and then an acceptance (separately), the ______ to _________ is effective (exception to the mailbox rule)

A

First to arrive

99
Q

If an offeree sends an acceptance, and then a rejection, the acceptance is effective (mailbox rule) unless the rejection arrives _______ and the offeror ______ ______ on the rejection

A

first; detrimentally relies

100
Q

Promissory Estoppel / Detrimental Reliance: (i) ______ is not necessary if the promisor should reasonably expect to (ii) _______ action or forbearance and such action or forbearance is (iii) _______ induced. The Second Restatement of Contracts provides that a remedy “may be limited as justice requires.”

A

(i) consideration; (ii) induce; (iii) actually

101
Q

In an ambiguous term, (confusion / misunderstanding), if neither party is aware, there is (i) ___ _______ unless the parties intended the same meaning; there is (ii) ___ _____ if both parties are aware, unless they intended the same meaning, and where one party is aware, the contract binds based on what the (iii) _______ party reasonably believed the term to mean.

A

(i) no contract; (ii) no contract; (iii) ignorant

102
Q

Signature should be broadly construed, and includes typed signatures, initials, and even formal ________

A

letterhead

103
Q

If the statute of frauds is not raised as a (i) ______ in the (ii) _______, it is waived.

A

(i) defense; (ii) answer

104
Q

Common instance of unconscionable contracts include: (i) fine print that ________ shifts _______ to an unusual party; (ii) contracts of _______, that give a “take it or leave it” option to a signer who cannot otherwise procure such goods; (iii) an ________ clause that limits negligence liability (unless a hazardous activity); and (iv) a contract that inconspicuously limits _______, and the only remedy provided is terrible.

A

(i) inconspicuously, risk; (ii) adhesion; (iii) exculpatory; (iv) remedies