Topic Notes Flashcards

1
Q

How many lobes does the right lung have compared with the left one?

A

Right lung has 3 lobes (superior, middle and inferior) whereas the left lung has 2 lobes (superior (superior and inferior division) and inferior).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

List the Chest wall deformities and explain what they are.

A

The chest wall deformities varies from mild to severe. They are congenital. Severity progresses rapidly in puberty.

  1. Pectus excavatum (congenital) → depression in lower half of the sternum due to unequal growth of the costal cartilages that connect ribs to sternum. Sunken appearance
  2. Pectus Carinum (“ pigeon chest”, congenital) → protrusion of the sternum that occurs as a result of an abnormal and unequal growth of costal cartilages.
  3. Jeune’s syndrome → a form of dwarfism, extremely small chest. Ribs are broad, short and irregularly joined. Bell-shaped inflexible chest cavity. Might need mechanical ventilation.
  4. Poland syndrome → abnormalities of one side of the chest including absence of pectoralis, under development of breast tissue and areala, rib abnormalities, and inadequate development of arm. Right side more affected.
  5. Barrel chest: increase AP diameter of chest wall. Most often associated with emphysema.
  6. Kyphoscoliosis: abnormal curve of the spine on 2 planes: coronal plane (Side to side)and sagittal plane (back to front)
    7.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Borders of the lung (for percussion)

A
  1. Anteriorly the apex of each lung rises 2-4 cm above the inner third of the clavicle
  2. 6th rib at mid-clavicular line
  3. 8th rib at mid-axillary line
  4. 9th rib at scapular line
  5. 10th-11th thoracic spinous process at the paravertebral line
  6. Trachea bifurcates at sternal angle, at the 4th thoracic spinous process posteriorly.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Percussion sounds

A
  1. Resonant sounds are low pitched, hollow sounds heard over normal lung tissue.
  2. Flat - solid areas such as bones.
  3. Dull or thudlike - when fluid or solid tissue replaces air. pneumonia, pleural effusions, or tumors.
  4. Hyperresonant - COPD, or patients having an acute asthmatic attack. An area of hyperresonance on one side of the chest may indicate a pneumothorax.
  5. Tympanic - indicate excessive air in the chest, such as may occur with pneumothorax
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Pathological respiratory sounds:

A
  1. wheeze/ronchi (continuous, high pitched (wheeze), low ronchi, both on I/E, whistling/musical, airway narrowing (asthma, copd)
  2. stridor (continous, high pitch, mostly on I, whistling, musical, epiglottitis, laryngeal edema, croup)
  3. inspiratory gasp (continuous, high pitch, I, whoop, pertussis (whooping cough)
  4. crackles/crepitations (discontinuous, high or low coarse, I clicking, pneumonia, edema, tuberculosis, bronchitis)
  5. friction rub (discontinous-low pitch- I=E, repeated rhythmic sounds, lung tumors, pleuritis)
  6. hamman’s sign (discontinous-rasping sound- pneumomediastinum, pneumopericardium)
  7. ronchi (sounds like snoring)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

tactile fremitus decreases when?

A

effusion, fibrosis, pneumothorax, infiltrating tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

when is the tactile fremitus increased?

A

in lobar pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Indications for CXR (posterior-anteior):

A

• Infection: exclude pneumonia, positive Mantoux test • Major trauma: exclude widened mediastinum, pneumothorax and haemothorax 10 CXR anatomy • Acute chest pain: exclude pneumothorax, perforated viscus, aortic dissection • Asthma/bronchiolitis: when diagnosis unclear and/or not responding to usual therapy • Acute dyspnoea: exclude heart failure, pleural effusion • Chronic dyspnoea: exclude heart failure, effusion and interstitial lung disease • Haemoptysis • Suspected mass, metastasis or lymphadenopathy anatomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

possible radiological finidings on chest x ray

A

• Increased transparency (‘hyperlucency’)àincreased air content (e.g. emphysema, air filled cavitation, accumulation in pleural cavity - pneumothorax • Decreased transparency (‘hypolucency’)àconsolidations, fluid accumulations, atelectasis (volume reduction), pneumonia, alveolar disease, interstitial disease • Shadows o round, homogenous - tuberculoma, benign tumor, cysts, metas o infiltrative - inflammatory disease, shows up without sharply demarcated margins o striped - when connective tissue accumulates around lymph vessels, seen with resolving tb, chronic bronchitis, pleural fibrosis o patchy - scattered, dense nodules like those of tb, sarcoidosis o ringed - reflect tb caverna or abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

HRCT

A

a narrow slice width is used (usually 1–2 mm), a high spatial resolution image reconstruction algorithm is used, field of view is minimized, so as to minimize the size of each pixel, and other scan factors (e.g. focal spot) may be optimized for resolution at the expense of scan speed. Indications: • diagnosis and assessment of interstitial lung disease (e.g. fibrosis) and other lung diseases (e.g. emphysema, bronchiectasia). • Distribution of nodules. Perilymphatic, centrilobular and random categories. Well defined (interstitial), ill-defined (intra-alveolar). MRI o Perilymphatic à deposits at periphery of the secondary lobule and respect pleural surfaces and fissures. (Sarcoidosis, lymphangitic spread of carcinoma, silicosis, coal worker’s pneumoconiosis) o Centrilobular à deposits at center of the secondary lobule, but spares pleural surfaces. (endobronchial tuberculosis, bronchopneumonia, endobronchial spread of tumor, and again silicosis or coal workers’ pneumoconiosis) o randomly distributed à miliary tuberculosis, fungal pneumonia, hematogenous metastasis and diffuse sarcoidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

MRI

A

• When CT is contraindicated. • assess abnormal masses (e.g. cancer) for size, extend and degree of spread • display lymph nodes and blood vessels. • assess disorders of the chest bones (vertebrae, ribs and sternum) and chest wall soft tissue (muscles and fat). • characterize mediastinal or pleural lesions seen by other imaging modalities, such as chest x-ray or CT.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

US (3.5 MHz)

A

• guiding pleural interventional procedures. (empyema drainage and aspiration/biopsy of pleural-based lesions) o However, obesity and massive oedema degrade image quality and CT-guidance might be required. • Detection of pleural pathology – more sensitive than chest radiography at detecting the presence of pleural fluid and differentiating pleural fluid from lung consolidation in the critically-ill patient. o Compared with CT, pleural ultrasonography has a 95 percent sensitivity for the detection of pleural fluid in patients with a “white out” on plain chest radiograph, but is slightly less sensitive in detecting small amounts of fluid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

pulmonary causes of chest pain

A

Pulmonary causes: o Pulmonary?? o Pulmonary embolism o Pneumonia o Hemothorax o Pneumothorax and tension pneumothorax o Pleuritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Diagnosing or ruling out an ACS

A

• ACS: • AMI (both STEMI and NSTEMI) • Stable angina • Unstable angina • ECG and cardiac enzymes are able to diagnose ACS • Angiography (PCI) is used to directly visualize the coronary arteries, and if indicated, placing of stents to reopen narrowed coronaries (angioplasty)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Diagnosing or ruling out aortic dissection

A

chest patient history and do appropriate tests including a chest CT scan with contrast, MRI, or transesophageal echocardiography.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Diagnosing or ruling out PE

A

(should be considered in presence of respiratory symptoms, pleuritic chest pain, hemoptysis or history of coagulation abnormalities. Initial tests usually include CT angiography or a lung scan (V/Q scintigraphy), which are sometimes combined with lower extremity venous ultrasound or D-dimer testing. If a PE is suspected, the CXR may be normal, although atelectasis may be seen. • The advantages of CT include a high specificity and sensitivity for PE, and the ability to identify other disease processes that may mimic PE as pneumonia and MI and the ability to scan the leg veins at the same time to look for DVTs. • CT is the most available and thus the initial choice for management, but the gold standard for diagnosing PE is catheter pulmonary angiographyàpassing a catheter from a peripheral vein (femoral) through the right side of the heart and into the pulmonary outflow tract under fluoroscopic guidanceàIodinated contrast is injected and multiple rapid sequence radiographs are done. If an intraluminal filling defect is seen or cut off of the pulmonary arteries, it’s a conclusive sign.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Diagnosing or ruling out tension pneumothorax

A

when air is trapped in the pleural cavityàleads to severe oxygen shortage, hypotension and progression to cardiac arrest if untreated. Diagnosis is done by physical examination and a medical imaging (CT/X-ray) which show shift of the mediastinum from the affected side. • However, tension PTX is ideally treated before imaging – if tension PTX is suspected, treatment should start before tests are done. • Treatment involves removal of air from pleural cavity by aspiration, chest tube and in some cases surgery is also indicated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Diagnosing or ruling out cardiac tamponade

A

(CXR and US) a medical emergency with accumulation of fluid in the pericardial space, resulting in reduced ventricular filling and subsequent hemodynamic compromise. - Signs of classical cardiac tamponade include three signs, known as Beck’s triad: • Hypotension occurs because of decreased stroke volume • Jugular-venous distension due to impaired venous return to the heart • Muffled heart sounds due to fluid inside the pericardium -Other signs of tamponade include ST segment changes on the ECG, which may also show low voltage QRS complexes, as well as general signs & symptoms of shock (tachycardia, dyspnea and loss of consciousness)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Chest pain algorithm

A
  • On the basis of the above, a number of tests may be ordered: • X-rays of the chest and/or abdomen (CT scanning may be better but is often not available) • ECG • V/Q scintigraphy or CT pulmonary angiogram(PE) • Blood tests: o Complete blood count o Electrolytes and renal function (creatinine) o Liver enzymes o Creatine kinase (and CK-MB fraction in many hospitals) o Troponin I or T (to indicate myocardial damage) o D-dimer (when suspicion for pulmonary embolism is present but low) - Serum amylase to exclude acute pancreatitis • Ultrasound (tamponade)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

PHARMACOLOGICAL AND NON-PHARMACOLOGICAL TREATMENT OF STABLE COPD

A

Bronchodilators, corticosteroids, oxygen therapy, antibiotics, rehabilitation and support, surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

first line Treatment of pulmonary TB

A

● Isoniazid ● Rifampicin ● Pyrazinamide “RIPE” Drugs: Rifampin (RA) Isoniazide (INH) Pyrazinamide (PZA) Ethambutol (ETB)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

second line treatment of pulmonary TB

A
  • Less effective than first line - Toxic side effects - Unavailable in developing countries ● Aminoglycosides (amikacin, kanamycin) ● Polypeptides ● Fluoroquinolones (ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin) ● Thioamides (Ethionamide) Others: Cycloserine, PAS (para-aminosalicylic acid), Capreomycin, Rifabutin, Linzolid, Bedaquiline, Delamanid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the current standard treatment of TBC?

A

The current standard treatment of TBC consists of 6 months of rifampicin and isoniazid, supplemented by pyrazinamide and ethambutol for the first 2 months. Prolonged treatment is needed to eradicate dormant bacilli.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the adverse effects of anti TBC drugs?

A

Adverse effects: hepatotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is a pulmonary abcess?

A

A lung abscess is a localized collection of pus with in cavitated necrotic lesion in the lung parenchyma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the causes of pulmonary abcesses?

A

● Oropharyngeal aspiration: most common cause ● Infection of the upper airways: sinusitis and dental abscesses ● Bronchial obstruction ● Pneumonia ● Tuberculosis ● Pulmonary emboli: pulmonary infarction with secondary infection giving rise to an abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the symptoms of a pulmonary abcess?

A
  • Patient usually complains of a cough with expectoration of large amounts of foul material often accompanied by hemoptysis, fever, weight loss and malaise. Hemoptysis can occur.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How is a pulmonary abcess diagnosed?

A
  • Chest X-ray shows cavitating lesion containing a fluid level. - sputum:?? - DDx: other cavitating lung lesions can be squamous cell carcinoma. Do a bronchoscopy or FNA.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How do you treat pulmonary abcesses? What is the treatment in this case?

A
  • Drainage of pus from the abscess cavity - Percutaneous drainage is achieved by positioning a catheter drainage tube under radiological guidance - Antibiotics in accordance with the likely organism - Surgery: Surgical excision of the abscess is sometimes required
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is community aquired pneumonia?

A

refers to pneumonia (any of several lung diseases) contracted by a person with little contact with the healthcare system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the causes of community acquired pneumonia?

A

Its causes include bacteria, viruses, fungi and parasites, but most common pathogens are: • Streptococcus pneumoniae – 60% • Mycoplasma pneumoniae – 10% • Haemophilus influenzae – 10% • Viruses (e.g. influenza) – 10% • Others – 10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the symptoms of community acquired pneumonia?

A

Common symptoms: • Coughing which produces greenish or yellow sputum • A high fever, accompanied by sweating, chills and shivering • Sharp, stabbing chest pains • Rapid, shallow, often-painful breathing (dyspnoea)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the treatment options for community acquired pneumonia?

A

Depends on severity, microbiological investigation and patients’ response • For community acquired pneumonia, S. pneumonia is the most likely pathogen and amoxicillin 500mg orally is an appropriate ATB. • Where there is suspicion of atypical pneumonia addition of a macrolide ATB such as erythromycin/clarithromycin is required. • In severe pneumonia the initial ATB regimen must cover all likely pathogens and cover potential ATB resistance, IV cefuroxime and clarithromycin are appropriate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is hospital aquired pneumonia?

A

Hospital acquired (nosocomial) pneumonia is defined as pneumonia developing 2 or more days after admission to a hospital for some other reason.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the cause/aetiology of a hospital acquired pneumonia?

A

Aetiology: Use of broad-spectrum antibiotics and impaired host defenses promote the colonization of the nasopharynx of hospitalized patients with Gram-negative organisms. ● Gram negative bacteria- 50% - Pseudomonas aeruginosa, E.Coli, klabsiella, proteus ● Staphylococcus aureus ● Streptococcus pneumoniae ● Anaerobes/fungi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the symptoms of a hospital acquired pneumonia?

A

● Cough with greenish or pus-like phlegm (sputum) ● Fever ● Sharp chest pain that gets worse with deep breathing or coughing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How do you diagnose a hospital acquired pneumonia?

A

General Investigations: Chest X Ray / Hematology and biochemistry tests Specific investigations: Sputum gram stain/ sputum culture/blood culture/pleural fluid aspiration and examination/antigen detection tests/serological tests Auscultation of lung: Crepitations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How do you treat a hospital acquired pneumonia?

A
  • Sufficient oxygen should be given to maintain arterial pO2>60 mmHG and oxygen saturation>90% - Adequate non sedative analgesia (NSAIDS) should be given to control pleuritic pain. - Gram negative being the most common organisms, combination of aminoglycoside (gentamicin) and third generation cephalosporin (ceftazidime) is commonly used.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the clinical course of primary TBC?

A
  • Pattern seen with the first infection in a person without specific immunity to tuberculosis - Acquired by inhalation of organisms from an infected individual by droplet transmission - The lesion typically develops in the peripheral subpleural region of the lung followed by a reaction in the hilar lymph nodes. - Primary complex on CXR; peripheral area of consolidation (GOHN FOCUS) and hilar adenopathy - An immune response develops (positive tuberculin test), the disease may heal or progress - Healing in 4-8 weeks which may leave calcified nodules on the CXR - Bronchial spread of infection may cause progressive consolidation and cavitation of the lung parenchyma and pleural effusion. - Lymphatic spread→ lymph node enlargement→ bronchiectasis of the middle lobe - Hematogenous spread → military TBC and lethal complication of tuberculosis meningitis - Infection spread during this initial illness may lie dormant in any organ of the body, only to reactivate many years later.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the clinical course of Secondary TBC?

A

Apices of the lungs are the most common site - Direct progression of the initial infection - Reactivation of the latent infection - Exogenous reinfection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Diagnosis of TBC?

A

Identification of M.tuberculosis, Radiological diagnosis CXR. Laboratory diagnosis - Ziehl-Neelsen stain: acid-fast bacteria which appear as red rods on a blue background - Sputum cultures: LOwenstein-Jensen medium 4-7 weeks for positive culture - Biopsy: caseating granuloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are some extrapulmonary signs of TBC infection?

A

Extrapulmonary signs - Pleuritis - Meningitis - Tuberculous cervical lymphadenitis - Urogenital tuberculosis - Pott’s disease when spread to the spine- a form of osteomyelitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the pulmonary signs and symptoms of a TBC infection?

A

Pulmonary signs and symptoms - Chest pain - Productive prolonged cough - Hemoptysis - Infection may erode the pulmonary artery resulting in Rasmussen’s aneurysm-bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the treatment of TBC?

A

BCG- vaccination is a live attenuated strain of tuberculosis. Given intradermal injection and produces a local skin reaction. General principle on treatment: Treatment of TBC has to be prolonged and combinations of antibiotics had to be used because of the capacity of the M.tuberculosis to lie dormant and to develop resistance to antibiotics. There are two line of drugs for TBC (cf topic 14)

45
Q

What is the first line drugs used for pulmonary TBC infection

A

● Isoniazid ● Rifampicin ● Pyrazinamide

46
Q

What are the second line drugs used for pulmonary TBC?

A
  • Less effective than first line - Toxic side effects - Unavailable in developing countries ● Aminoglycosides (amikacin, kanamycin) ● Polypeptides ● Fluoroquinolones (ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin) ● Thioamides (Ethionamide)
47
Q

How long is the treatment give for?

A

The current standard treatment of TBC consists of 6 months of rifampicin and isoniazid, supplemented by pyrazinamide and ethambutol for the first 2 months. Prolonged treatment is needed to eradicate dormant bacilli.

48
Q

What are the adverse effects of tbc drugs?

A

hepatotoxicity

49
Q

What are the differences between SCLC AND NSCLC?

A

Categorization into SCLC and NSCLC is done due to different therapeutic treatment, additionally the cell type origin also differs.

50
Q

Adenocarcinoma

A

Adenocarcinomas - Malignant cancer of an epithelium that originates from glandular tissue - Most common type - Periphery of the lung - Metastasize widely at an early stage

51
Q

Squamous cell carcinomas

A
  • Men > Women- smoking - Arise centrally in major bronchi and eventually spreads to local lymph nodes, but they disseminate outside the thorax later than the other types
52
Q

Large-cell lung carcinomas

A
  • Undiffirentiated malignant epithelial tumors that lack the cytological features of small cell carcinomas and glandular or squamous differentiation - Large nuclei, prominent nucleoli and moderate cytoplasm
53
Q

Small-cell lung carcinoma

A
  • Derived from neuroendocrine cell - Highly malignant and grow rapidly with early metastasis
54
Q

TNM staging

A

Staging of cancers is based on the size of the primary lesion, its extent of spread to regional lymph nodes and presence or absence of metastasis. - Important in determining possibility of surgical resection and prognosis of the patient. T: Primary tumor (1-4) -T1:<3 cm and not involving main bronchus -T2: >3cm, or involving the main bronchus -T3: Any size invading chest wall, or within 2 cm of carina -T4: Invading mediastinum, great vessels or trachea N: Regional lymph node involvement (0-3) -N0: Tumor cells absent from regional -N1: Ipsilateral hilar node metastases - N2: Ipsilateral mediastinal node metastases -N3: Contralateral/distal lymph node metastases M: Metastases (0/1) -M0: No distant metastasis -M1: Metastasis to distant organs (beyond regional lymph nodes)

55
Q

What is the prognosis of lung cancers?

A
  • At diagnosis, distant metastasis is observed in over 50% of lung cancer patients – 1⁄4 have metastasis to regional lymph nodes. - Prognosis of lung cancer is poor; the 5-year survival rate for all stages of all lung cancers is approx. 15% -Localized carcinomas have a 5-year survival rate of approx. 45%
56
Q

General presentation of symptoms and diagnosis valid for all type of cancer:

A

attach image

57
Q

Diagnosis of lung cancers is done by…?

A
  1. Physical examination and anamnesis 2. Chest X-ray 3. Histological-cytological diagnosis 4. Immunohistochemistry 5. Bronchoscopy
58
Q

Chest X-ray

A
  • A peripheral tumor may be seen as a small nodule or mass in the lung field - A cavitating mass is characteristic of SCC - Central tumors may cause bronchial obstruction→ atelectasis - Metastasis to bone, pleura, hilar or mediastinal structure
59
Q

Histological-cytological diagnosis

A
  • Sputum collection is positive in 40% of cases - Peripheral tumors may be sampled by percutaneous needle biopsy - Central tumors biopsied during bronchoscopy
60
Q

Immunohistochemistry

A
  • TTF-1 indicative of a primary adenocarcinoma - Chromogranin A indicative of SCLC (neuroendocrine origin)
61
Q
  1. Bronchoscopy
A

??

62
Q

Treatment of Non Small cell lung carcinoma

A

Surgical resection offers the best chance of cure. Only possible if the tumor itself is operable (I-II-IIIA, see table). Operable tumors should be assessed by CT of the chest to assess hilar and mediastinal nodes to exclude enlarged nodes indicative of metastasis. !!! FEV1 < 50% or pO2<60 mmHG → NO SURGERY!! If inoperable→ Chemotherapy but is mainly for palliation of symptoms. Combination of chemotherapeutic agents is given in pulses every 3-4 weeks. 50% show reduction of tumor size and median survival of 10 months. Radiotherapy is used for relief of symptoms in SVC-obstruction, lobar collapse, hemoptysis, chest pain.

63
Q

Where can metastases spread too?

A

Metastases eventually cause symptoms that vary by location. Metastases can spread to the ● Liver, causing pain, nausea, early satiety, and ultimately hepatic insufficiency ● Brain, causing behavioral changes, confusion, aphasia, seizures, paresis or paralysis, nausea and vomiting, and ultimately coma and death ● Bones, causing severe pain and pathologic fractures ● Adrenal glands, rarely causing adrenal insufficiencyW

64
Q

What are paraneoplastic syndromes?

A

Paraneoplastic syndromes are symptoms that occur at sites distant from a tumor or its metastases.

65
Q

Common paraneoplastic syndromes in patients with lung cancer include….?

A

● Hypercalcemia (in patients with squamous cell carcinoma, which results because the tumor produces parathyroid hormone–related protein) ● Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion ● Finger clubbing with or without hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy ● Hypercoagulability with migratory superficial thrombophlebitis (Trousseau syndrome) ● Myasthenia-like symptoms (Eaton-Lambert syndrome) ● Cushing syndrome ● Various other neurologic syndromes : neuropathies, encephalopathies, cerebellar disease

66
Q

diagnosis of metastatic cancers?

A

● Chest x-ray ● CT or combined PET–CT ● Cytopathology examination of pleural fluid or sputum ● Usually bronchoscopy-guided biopsy and core biopsy ● Sometimes open lung biopsy

67
Q

treatment of metastatic cancers?

A

The goal of treatment is to control the growth of the cancer or to relieve any symptoms. There are numerous different treatments available depending on: - Age - General status of the patient - medical history - type of primary tumor - location of the tumor - size of the tumor - number of tumors Chemotherapy is often used to treat metastatic cancer to the lungs. This drug therapy helps destroy cancerous cells in the body. It’s the preferred treatment option when the cancer is more advanced and has spread to other organs in the body. In some cases, surgery may also be performed to remove the metastatic tumors in the lung. This is usually done if someone already had their primary tumor removed or if the cancer has only spread to limited areas of the lung. Other possibilities of treatment: - Radiation: High-energy radiation shrinks tumors and kill cancer cells. - Laser therapy: High-intensity light destroys tumors and cancer cells. - Stents: Your doctor places tiny tubes in the airways to keep them open.

68
Q

What are the normal sleep stages?

A

Normal sleep is divided into two stages: Rapid eye movements (REM) and non-rapid eye movements (NREM), which is further divided into four stages. These stages are distinguished on the basis of electroencephalogram (EEG), electromyogram (EMG) and electro-oculogram (EOG).

69
Q

wake stage

A

In the awake and relaxed states with eye closed, EEG shows predominantly alpha activity, especially over the occipital area. The EEG rhythm shows moderately low voltage, mixed frequency pattern. REM and eye blinks are seen on the EOG with the eyes open, while the chin EMG shows tonic activity.

70
Q

rapid eye movement sleep

A

This period of sleep is characterized by very rapid eye movement, and resembles wakeful pattern but has greatly reduced muscle activity. It generally represents dreaming activity.

71
Q

non-rapid eye movement sleep stage 1

A

Relaxed wakefulness state with closed eye, exhibit alpha activity in EEG. Disappearance of this alpha activity is seen in this stage and the patient can be easily aroused.

72
Q

non-rapid eye movement sleep stage 2

A

Appearance of K complexes (large biphasic waves) and sleep spindles is seen in this stage.

73
Q

non-rapid eye movement sleep stage 3 and 4

A

Appearance of delta waves (large amplitude waves). This stage constitutes the deepest sleep. The percentage of delta wave declines with increasing age.

74
Q

???

A

Transitions from wake state to NREM sleep, withdrawal of wakefulness drive results decrease in minute ventilation. There is progressive reduction in central respiratory drive through stage 1 to 4 of NREM Sleep. PaCO2 increases by 3-7 mmHg. During NREM the respiration is regular and predominantly under metabolic control as opposed to REM sleep, when respiration becomes irregular and depends on behavioral factor. Hypoxia and hypercapnic ventilatory responses fall on transition from wakefulness to NREM sleep and further depresses during REM sleep.

75
Q

Clinical signs of mediastinal mass:

A

• -chest pain • -fever - dysphagia • -cough • -hemoptysis • -hoarseness • -venous congestion • -spinal cord compression

76
Q

Diagnosis:

A

CT is very useful in evaluation of mediastinal diseases which are often difficult to see on a plain X- ray.

77
Q

A.Rheumatoid lung disease

A

Connective tissue diseases: Disease of the lung associated with rheumatoid arthritis (1/4 of patients with RA develops rheumatoid lung disease Several complications are seen: - Involvement of the cricoarytenoid joint causes hoarseness and sometimes stridor - Obliterative bronchiolitis results in progressive peripheral airway obstruction - Pleural effusions are common and analysis of the pleural fluid characteristically shows a high protein level (i.e. exudate) with low glucose concentration and high titre or rheumatoid factor. - Rheumatoid nodules may develop in the lung parenchyma and show the same histological features as the rheumatoid subcutaneous nodules - When rheumatoid lung disease occurs in association with coal workers pneumoconiosis, large cavitating pulmonary nodules may develop (Caplan’s syndrome) Systemic sclerosis (scleroderma) - Diffuse fibrosing alveolitis is the most common complication of systemic sclerosis. - Pulmonary vasculitis with pulmonary hypertension and cor pulmonale occur. - Chest wall restriction by contraction of the skin is rare - Aspiration pneumonia may occur due to esophageal dysmotility in the CREST variant of the disease; CREST: Calcinosis (formation of calcium deposits in soft tissues) Raynaud’s phenomenon Esophageal dysmotility Sclerodactyly (localized thickening and tightness of the skin of the fingers or toes) Telangiectasia (dilated blood vessels near the surface of skin/mucous membranes)

78
Q

treatment for pulmonary manifestations of systemic autoimmune diseases (RA, SSC, SLE)

A

Due to the immunosuppressant treatment, patients are predisposed to opportunistic infections.

79
Q

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

A

Systemic autoimmune disease, most often involving heart, joints, skin, lungs, blood vessels, liver, kidneys and nervous system. When involving the lung, two complications are seen; pleural effusions and fibrosing alveolitis;

80
Q

Systemic sclerosis (scleroderma)

A
  • Diffuse fibrosing alveolitis is the most common complication of systemic sclerosis. - Pulmonary vasculitis with pulmonary hypertension and cor pulmonale occur. - Chest wall restriction by contraction of the skin is rare - Aspiration pneumonia may occur due to esophageal dysmotility in the CREST variant of the disease; CREST: Calcinosis (formation of calcium deposits in soft tissues) Raynaud’s phenomenon Esophageal dysmotility Sclerodactyly (localized thickening and tightness of the skin of the fingers or toes) Telangiectasia (dilated blood vessels near the surface of skin/mucous membranes)
81
Q

Connective tissue diseases:

A

Rheumatoid lung disease Systemic sclerosis (scleroderma) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

82
Q

What is NIV?

A

Non invasive ventilation: Small-sized units. Used in intensive care, hospital ward and at home. Usually portable

83
Q

How is the structure and what is the principles of operation like for the non invasive ventilations?

A

Nasal mask and nasal pillow: less dead space, better communication, more effective cough Oronasal mask: risk of aspiration, bigger dead space Full face mask: higher pressures can be used without sealing problems

84
Q

What is a CPAP and what are its indications?

A

CPAP stands for constant (continous) positive airway pressure. Spontaneus ventilation. Its indications include cardiogenic APE and PO of abdominal surgery, mild moderate sleep apnea

85
Q

What is the BIPAP (BILEVEL)

A

Two pressure levels (IPAP and EPAP) flow cycled. Its indications are: acute hypercapnia, for respiratory muscle rest; cardiogenic APE and in immunosuppressed individuals with infection.

86
Q

What are the contraindications of noninvasive ventilation?

A

Absolute:

  1. Apnea
  2. Shock
  3. Inability to protect the airway
  4. significantly altered mental status
  5. pneumothorax
  6. recent gastric laryngeal and esophageal surgery
  7. significant facial fractures (especially those involving the cribiform plate)
  8. Inability to cooperate with fitting and wearing a mask
  9. rapid deterioration
  10. inadiquate staff to closely monitor patient for deterioration

Relative:

  1. Nausea and vomiting
  2. agitation
  3. cardiac arrhythmias
  4. cardiac ischemia or AMI ( an absolute contraindication in some studies - reperfusion injury? oxidative stress?)
  5. significant chest trauma
87
Q

How many segments does the superior lobe have in the right lung and what are they called?

A

3 segments

  • apical segment (1)
  • posterior segment (2)
  • anterior segment (3)
88
Q

How many segments does the middle right lobe have and what are there names?

A

2 segments:

  • lateral segment (4)
  • medial segment (5)
89
Q

How many segments are found on the Inferior right lobe and what are they called?

A

4 segments:

  • superior (apical) segment (6)
  • medial basal segment (7)
  • anterior basal segment (8)
  • lateral basal segment (9)
  • posterior basal segment (10)
90
Q

What are the segments of the superior division of the left lung superior lobe?

A

1+2)apico-posterior segment (apical and posterior fused together)

91
Q

what are the segmenst of the inferior division

A

3) anterior segment
4) superior lingular seg
5) inferior lingular seg

92
Q

inferior lobe

A

6) superior (apical) seg
7) absent
8) anterior basal segment
9) lateral basal segment
10) posterior basal seg

93
Q

What are the 5Rs and 5A of smoking cessation

A

5rs

5a’s

94
Q

What pharmacons can be given for smoking cessation?

A
  1. Varenicline
  2. Buproprion
  3. cytisine
  4. nicotine replacement therapy (plaster, chewing gum, lozenges, nose spray + inhaler)
  5. (clonidine)
95
Q

How do you calculate pack years?

A
96
Q

What is the test called for smoking addiction?

A

Fagerstrom test for nicotine dependence.

97
Q

What are the key components of diagnosing patients in pulmo?

A
  1. good history taking: including complaints of dypnea, orthopnoea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea (PND), chest pain, wheezing, stridor, cough and sputum, haemoptysis.
  2. physical examination: inspection (physical signs,chest wall deformities, abnormal breating patterens etc.), ascultation (character and volume of breath sounds, added sounds, presence or absence of vocal sounds). Percussion, palpitation (respiratory expansion and tactile fremitus, diaphragmatic excursion etc). Borders of the lung.
  3. Chest x ray and other subsequent testing like pulmonary function testing, ABG analysis, CT and other chest imaging tests and bronchoscopy.
98
Q

What are the signs of respiratory difficulty and hypoxemia?

A
  1. restlessness
  2. tachypnea
  3. cyanosis
  4. accessory muscle use
99
Q

signs of possible chronic pumonary disease?

A
  1. clubbing of fingers and toes (bronchial carcinoma, cystic fibrosis)
  2. barrel chest (chronic bronchitis, copd)
  3. pursed lip breathing (copd)
100
Q

abnormal breathing patterns

A
  1. Cheyne-stokes respiration: periodic breathing of apnea and hyperapnea (HF, stroke, advanced dementia)
  2. Kussmaul respirations: (metabolic acidosis)
  3. Air trapping
  4. Biot’s
  5. Ataxic
  6. Bradypnea or Tachypnea
  7. hyperventilation (hyperpnea)
101
Q

sounds on ascultation

A
  1. reduction in intensity (obstruction in a large bronchus, pleural effusion, copd, asthma, ptx)
  2. vesicular breath sounds (i>e)
  3. bronchial breath sounds (i<e>
    </e><li>bronchovesicular (I=E)</li><li>Tracheal</li><li>turbulent airflow in central airways = tracheal and bronchial sounds, peripheral vesicular. bronchial or bronchovesicular breath sounds are heard in locations distant form the normal (lung with fluid or solid tissue inside, lobar pneumonia, pulm. edema or hemorrhage)</li><li>wheeze (diffuse- asthma or copd, one sided (obstruction of bronchus (carcinoma, foreign body)</li><li>ronchi (caused by secretion i or e, chronic bronchitis)</li><li>crackles (crepitations)- collapsed airway or alveoli, atelectasis, pulmonary edema and ILD (pulmonary fibrosis) (course (bronchiectasis) or fine) early insp and exp -chronic bronchitis), late insp =pneumonia, CHF or actelectasis </li><li>stridor (wheese-entirely or predom inspiratory)-partial obstruction of the larynx or trachea and demands immediate attention. </li><li>croup</li><li>pleural friction rub "creaking" localised and indicate rough pleural surfaces (lung tumors, pleuritis)</li>

</e>

102
Q

What can be the possible pathologies behind dullnuss when percussing over the lung?

A
  1. pleural effusion
  2. tumor
  3. pneumonia
103
Q

What does it most likely indicate if the is hyperresonace on percussion over the lung?

A
  1. children and very thin patients can have these findings
  2. ephysema
  3. copd or patients with acute asthmatic attack
  4. ptx if its unilateral
104
Q

what can be the causes behind tympanic sounds on percussion over the lung?

A
  1. normal over gastric air bubble
  2. ptx
105
Q

What could be the cause behind decreased tactile fremitus?

A
  1. pleural effusion
  2. fibrosis
  3. ptx
  4. infiltrating tumor
106
Q

what can be the cause behind a increased tactile fremitus?

A

increased in consolidation (lobar pneumonia)

107
Q

What is asthma?

A

Asthma is a chronic inflammatory disease of the airways characterized by recurrent episodes of wheezing, breathlessness, chest tightness and cough. Making the airways narrow and more difficult to breath through.

108
Q

What are the causes/etiology of asthma?

A
  1. genetic suceptibilty
  2. indoor environmental factors
  3. outdoor environmental factors
    4.