Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

astech term test 1 > topic 5: Diagnostic Techniques > Flashcards

topic 5: Diagnostic Techniques Flashcards

1
Q

list of diagnostic techniques

A
  • blood and haematology
  • blood serum biochemistry
  • urine samples/urinalysis
  • parasite detection
  • culture samples/biological samples on agar plates
  • cytology: evaluating changes in blood cell appearance
  • ELISA
  • monitoring disinfection/sanitation effectiveness (RODAC plate VS bioluminescence detection)
  • necropsy + sending out of samples
  • radiography/radiation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

blood and haematology (plasma/serum)

A
  • whole blood (EDTA tube - CBC)
  • plasma: liquid portion of unclotted blood (Lit. Hep tube) > mix blood with anticoagulant gently to avoid damaging cells. centrifuge and collect the plasma
  • serum: liquid portion of clotted blood (normal, plain tube) > antibodies/blood biochemistry. leave blood to clot with no anticoagulants. centrifuge.
  • serum can identify lipedema
  • serum may be jaundiced (icteric in appearance) if liver issues are present
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

handling blood for haematology

A
  • after blood has been drawn, remove the needle before transferring the blood into the tube to minimise the lysis of blood cells
  • tilt blood tubes when transferring the blood to drip the blood into the tube slowly
  • use the correct size of needles (27G for rats and mice & 23G for dogs and cats)
  • use proper syringes (3mL)
  • proper blood tubes (EDTA? Lit. Hep? Plain? each tube has a different purpose based on what you want to collect & the test to be done)
  • volume of blood (total volume is 6% of animal’s body weight. only 1% can be taken for a one time sampling. if repeated samplings must be done, limit it to 0.1%)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is haemolysis? what causes it?

A
  • rupture of RBC
  • due to improper collection, wrong needle size, incorrect mixing or wrong tubes used
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

complete blood count (CBC)

A
  • whole blood in EDTA tube
  • RBC count: platelets, haematocrit, haemoglobin, packed cell volume (PCV) & RBC indices
  • WBC count: neutrophils, lymphocytes, eosinophils, monocytes & basophils
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

diagnostic machines require __ maintenance before samples can be run

A
  • DAILY!
  • boot up the machine every morning before samples are to be run
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

blood serum biochemistry

A
  • serum (Plain tube)
  • studies the changes of biochemistry in the blood
  • enzymes (e.g. alanine transferase)
  • metabolic waste (BUN/blood urea nitrogen - indicator of kidneys)
  • electrolytes (sodium & free ions)
  • blood serum biochemistry is broad. Once an issue has been identified, more specific tests can be used to determine/confirm the severity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

urine samples/urinalysis

A
  • collected by manual expression cystocentesis (under ultrasound/catheterisation)
  • expression is recommended as free catch can be difficult
  • metabolic cages can be used for rodents (type of device that catches urine/faeces)
  • fresh samples are required!
  • check physical properties of the urine!
  • dipstick to compare colour coding
  • refractometer measurement (urine specific gravity/USG)
  • prepare urine for centrifugation
  • after centrifugation, prepare urine for microscopic evaluation (check for crystals)
  • urinary sediment (sign of urinary tract disorder)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what does USG indicate?

A
  • kidney function
  • hydration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

physical properties of urine

A
  • colour
  • clarity
  • odour
  • volume
  • presence of foam
  • USG
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what does foam in urine indicate?

A
  • protein in the urine (proteinuria)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

parasite detection

A
  • ectoparasites & endoparasites
  • mites, pinworms, protozoa, lice, fleas, roundworms, tape worms, etc.
  • skin scrape
  • cellophane tape test
  • gross microscopy/wet mount/direct smear
  • faecal flotation test/faecal sedimentation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

faecal flotation test STEPS

A
  • place a teaspoon of faecal sample into the WHITE outer Fecalyzer container
  • add Fecasol Solution to the halfway mark on the container
  • stir the faecal sample and mix well with the Fecasol Solution using the GREEN INNER SHEATH
  • after mixing, top up the Fecasol Solution to the top, forming a meniscus
  • place a cover slip at the opening of the Fecalyzer container without touching the Fecasol Solution with your hands
  • after 20 MINUTES, lift the cover slip DIRECTLY UPWARDS and place it (wet side down) on a microscope slide
  • examine the slide at 100X magnification (check for presence of helminth eggs) and 400X magnification (for identification of helminth eggs)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how does faecal flotation work?

A
  • it determines if eggs and larvae of metazoan parasites were present in the faecal sample
  • helminth eggs will float to the surface of the Fecasol due to lower density!!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

culture samples/biological samples on agar plates

A
  • growth of swabs/plate streaking
  • gram positive/negative
  • detects microorganisms
  • antibiotics resistance testing
  • sensitivity testing
  • fungus/virus medium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

cytology

A
  • vaginal cytology
  • aspiration of lumps/pustules
  • skin scraping
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

ELISA (enzyme linked immunosorbent assay): what does it do? what are ANTIGENS and ANTIBODIES?

A
  • detects and counts certain antibodies, antigens, proteins & hormones in a sample (may be blood/plasma/urine/saliva/CSF)
  • antibodies = substances made by the body that binds to unwanted substances in order to remove them
  • antigens = markers that antibodies recognise (usually sugars/proteins found on cell surfaces of viruses)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

ELISA data

A
  • qualitative: Positive or Negative. results are compared to a blank well containing no ag or an unrelated ag as a control.
  • false positive: shows substance is present when it is absent in reality
  • false negative: shows substance is absent when it is present in reality
  • quantitative: results are interpreted in comparison to a standard curve (dilution of a known, purified ag) to PRECISELY calculate the concentration of ag in a sample
  • semi-quantitative: compares relative levels of ag in assay samples. signals vary according to the concentration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

4 main steps of ELISA

A
  1. coating with ag/ab
  2. blocking (usually with BSA)
  3. detection (by adding a substrate like HRP (blue) or AP (yellow) that produces a colour)
  4. final read
    - wash between each step
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

4 types of ELISA

A
  1. direct (ag-coated plate to screen for ab)
  2. indirect (ag-coated plate to screen for ab/ag)
  3. sandwich (ab-coated plate to screen for ag)
  4. competitive/inhibition (screening for ab. the other types can also be adapted into competitive formats)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

potential interfering factors of ELISA

A
  • PLATE ASSAY (shape/quality of the wells, material of the plates, uneven coating)
  • BUFFER (pH, any contamination)
  • ANTIBODY USED for detection (incubation time, temperature, specificity, titre (concentration/strength), affinity)
  • BLOCKING BUFFER (cross-reactivity, concentration, contamination)
  • TARGET AG (conformation, stability, epitopes (AAs))
  • ENZYME CONJUGATE (type, concentration, function, cross-reactivity)
  • WASHES (contamination, frequency, volume, duration, composition)
  • SUBSTRATE (quality/manufacturer)
  • DETECTION (instrument-dependent factors
  • READER/HUMAN ERROR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

advantages of ELISA

A
  • high sensitive and specificity
  • high throughput (can process a lot of samples at once, commercially available in 96 & 394 well plates)
  • easy to perform (easy to follow, minimal hands-on time)
  • quantitative (can determine the conc of ag in a sample)
  • able to test a variety of samples (serum, plasma, cellular, tissue extract, urine, saliva, etc.)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

disadvantages of ELISA

A
  • temporary readouts (detection is based on enzyme/substrate reactions so readouts must be obtained within a short time span)
  • limited information about the ag (results obtained are limited to the amount or presence of ag in the sample)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

epitopes

A
  • group of AA/other chemical group exposed on the surface of a molecule
  • can generate antigenic responses
  • binds antibodies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

direct ELISA Steps

A
  • COATING: buffered solution of ag is added to each well of a microtitre plate
  • incubate for 1h at 37°C or overnight at 4°C to allow the ag to adhere to the plastic through charge interactions (immobilises them to a solid surface)
  • BLOCKING: a solution containing non-reactive proteins (Bovine Serum Albumin) is added to each well to cover any uncoated plastic surface in the well
  • wash with a suitable buffer solution
  • primary ab with an a conjugated (attached) enzyme (amplifier) is added
  • incubate for 2h to allow the primary ab to bind to the ag that has coated the well
  • wash with a suitable buffer solution
  • DETECTION: add a SUBSTRATE for the enzyme. usually HRP (Horse Radish Peroxidase).
  • the substrate chosen should change colours upon reaction with enzymes
  • if ab is binded to the ag, the enzyme should react with the substrate and change colours
  • FINAL READ: high concentration of ag = stronger colour change (measure with spectrometer)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

indirect ELISA Steps

A
  • similar to direct but with an additional step of adding a secondary enzyme-linked ab that is complementary to the primary detection ab
  • COATING: buffered solution of ag is added to each well of a microtitre plate
  • incubate for 1h at 37°C or overnight at 4°C to allow the ag to adhere to the plastic through charge interactions (immobilises them to a solid surface)
  • BLOCKING: a solution containing non-reactive proteins (Bovine Serum Albumin) is added to each well to cover any uncoated plastic surface in the well
  • wash with a suitable buffer solution
  • primary ab is added (WITH NO CONJUGATED ENZYME)
  • incubate for 2h to allow the primary ab to bind to the ag that has coated the well
  • wash with a suitable buffer solution to remove any excess
  • EXTRA STEP DIFFERENT FROM DIRECT ELISA: ENZYME-CONJUGATED SECONDARY AB IS ADDED & incubated for it to bind to the primary ab
  • wash with a suitable buffer solution to remove excess
  • DETECTION: add a SUBSTRATE for the enzyme. usually HRP (Horse Radish Peroxidase).
  • the substrate chosen should change colours upon reaction with enzymes
  • if ab is binded to the ag, the enzyme should react with the substrate and change colours
  • FINAL READ: high concentration of ag = stronger colour change (measure with spectrometer)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

direct VS indirect ELISA

A
  • indirect has higher sensitivity
  • indirect is more flexible & less expensive as there are more possible primary ab that can be used
  • indirect has a higher risk of cross-reactivity between secondary detection antibodies (direct does not use any secondary antibodies)
  • direct is faster (less steps & less incubation time)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

sandwich ELISA

A
  • requires 2 antibodies specific for different epitopes of ag (matched antibody pairs must be highly specific)
  • 1 of the antibodies is capture ab (facilitates immobilisation of the ag)
  • the other antibody is secondary ab (conjugated to an enzyme, facilitates the detection of the antigen)
  • suitable for complex samples
  • high flexibility: can use both indirect and direct methods
  • demanding design: it is difficult to find 2 abs that work well together against the same target while recognising different epitopes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

sandwich ELISA Steps

A
  • capture ab is used to coat the well of the plate
  • wash off excess capture ab with appropriate rinsing buffer
  • Ag from the sample is added to the plate
  • wash off excess Ag with appropriate rinsing buffer
  • Enzyme-conjugated secondary ab is added and washed with suitable buffer to remove excess
  • Incubate
  • Substrate for the enzyme (usually HRP: Horse Radish Peroxidase) is added
  • the substrate changes colour upon reaction with the enzyme
  • observe for colour change
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

competitive/inhibition ELISA

A
  • measures ag concentration by detecting signal interference
  • low specificity (cannot use for diluted samples)
  • sample ag competes with reference ag to bind to a specific amount of labelled ab (or vice versa)
  • NEGATIVE = colour change (enzyme-conjugated ab binds to reference ag and not sample ag)
  • POSITIVE = no colour change (presence of sample ag in test serum)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

competitive/inhibition ELISA Steps

A
  • Sample ag is incubated with labelled ag
  • Reference ag is pre-coated onto the wells
  • wash off excess with appropriate rinsing buffer
  • Sample ag & labelled ab complex is added to the coated wells
  • Incubate
  • wash off excess with appropriate rinsing buffer
  • substrate for enzymes (usually HRP: Horse Radish Peroxidase) is added.
  • substrate changes colour upon reaction with enzymes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

RODAC plate (monitoring disinfection/sanitation effectiveness)

A
  • Replicate Organism Direct Agar Contact plates
  • Touch the plates to the surfaces to be inspected
  • areas to be inspected should be clean, dry & disinfected before touching the RODAC plate
  • For irregular surfaces: sterile swab (with sterile water) is used to swab before rubbing on the RODAC plate
  • Send for incubation and observe it after 24-48 hours.
  • None = excellent!
  • Slight = acceptable!
  • Moderate = poor
  • Heavy = not acceptable.
  • used to measure cleanliness of the lab animal facility
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Bioluminescence detector (monitoring disinfection/sanitation effectiveness)

A
  • uses ATP detection as a rapid assessment of sanitation
  • uses bioluminescence to detect ATP from any organic matter (microorganisms) that may be on the surface
  • If there are microorganisms = lights up = sanitation was not effective
  • Makes use of Firefly enzymes (luciferin-luciferase) which gives off light in the presence of ATP
  • More intense glow = more microorganisms
  • used to measure cleanliness of the lab animal facility
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Necropsy & sending of samples

A
  • When an animal dies, the cause of death is determined
  • find out of the animal was normal during the experiment/colony health surveillance by checking case history
  • Store in fridge not freezer
  • Consistent, thorough, systemic approach (from external surfaces to the different body parts)
  • Lesions, abnormalities etc. before making incisions and collecting specimens of organs
  • Specimens are collected, placed in formalin and sent for histopathology
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Imaging equipment (radiography & radiation)

A
  • X-ray, fluoroscopy
  • computed tomography CT
  • ultrasound
  • magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
  • positron emission therapy (PET)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Lab rodents that harbour diseases impact…

A
  • research results
  • animal health
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

We should purchase _____ animals from commercial vendors with ______________.

A
  • disease-free animals
  • strict health surveillance
  • strict quarantine
  • testing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

conduct ______ within the lab animal facility periodically.

A
  • colony surveillance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Diseases can be detected through ____ or through ____________. Some animals may not show clinical signs.

A
  • PCR
  • health surveillance serology tests
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Mouse hepatitis virus (MHV): Causative agent & transmission

A
  • Causative agent: Enveloped RNA coronavirus (digestive tract, suppresses immune system)
  • Transmission: faecal-oral, direct contact, aerosol, fomite.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Mouse hepatitis virus (MHV): Clinical signs

A
  • Diarrhoea
  • weight loss
  • low fertility
  • focal hepatic necrosis
  • Potential death in infant mice
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Mouse hepatitis virus (MHV): Prevention

A
  • cease breeding for 2-4 months
  • rederivation of animals via caesarean/embryo transfer
  • regular health surveillance testing of sentinel animals
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Rederivation of animals via caesarean/embryo transfer

A

removing embryos from sick mothers and transferring them to a healthy one to be carried to full term

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Mouse hepatitis virus (MHV): Diagnosis and treatment

A
  • No treatment
  • diagnosed via serology and clinical signs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Sialodacryoadenitis virus (SDAV): Causative agents & transmission

A
  • Causative agent: Enveloped RNA coronavirus
  • Transmission: direct contact, aerosol
  • Animals that are infected are unfit to be used for experiments
  • Contagious
  • related to MHV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Sialodacryoadenitis virus (SDAV): Clinical signs

A
  • Eye and/or nose discharge
  • Porphyrin staining around the eyes
  • eye lesions
  • corneal clouding ulcers
  • enlarged eyeballs
  • swelling in the neck and salivary glands
  • swelling leads to reduced food intake which affects growth.
47
Q

Sialodacryoadenitis virus (SDAV): Prevention

A
  • depopulation
  • cleaning and rederivation of animals via caesarean/embryo transfer
  • regular health surveillance testing of sentinel animals
48
Q

Sialodacryoadenitis virus (SDAV): Diagnosis and treatment

A
  • Serology (ELISA, IFA)
  • only detectable after 7-10 days of infection
  • No treatment
49
Q

Enveloped viruses

A
  • remains infectious in the environment for about a week.
  • susceptible to detergents & disinfectants, drying & ethanol
50
Q

Sialodacryoadenitis Virus (SDAV) “burn out”

A
  • if infected animals are to be kept, euthanasia of all non-essential animals and a strict quarantine is recommended until they can be rederived.
  • “burn out” in immunocompromised rats where the virus is spread deliberately until all rats are infected
  • the virus is only cleared after all rats are infected to prevent multiple rounds of infections
51
Q

Mouse parvovirus: Causative agent and transmission

A
  • Causative agent: Non-enveloped DNA parvovirus (small, single-stranded DNA around 5kb)
  • Transmission: Faecal-oral, urine, oronasal secretions, fomites
52
Q

Mouse parvovirus: Clinical signs

A
  • no clinical signs
  • no histologic lesions
53
Q

Mouse parvovirus: Prevention

A
  • total depopulation
  • thorough cleaning of all aspects of the animal room with aggressive chemical decontamination
  • restock of the animals
  • caesarean rederivation and embryo transfer when the environment has been cleared
54
Q

Mouse parvovirus: Diagnosis and treatment

A
  • Serology (ELISA/IFA)
  • No treatment
55
Q

Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus: Transmission

A
  • zoonotic
  • affects immune system of mice, inhibits tumour induction in research rodents
  • Transmission: direct contact with urine, saliva or milk
56
Q

Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus: Clinical signs

A
  • Runted
  • weight loss
  • severe retardation of growth and hair development
  • post-mortem hepatomegaly (enlargement of the liver)
  • splenomegaly (enlargement of the spleen)
  • lymphadenopathy (swelling of the lymph nodes)
  • swollen and pitted kidneys due to glomerulonephritis (inflammation and damage to the filtering part of the kidneys)
  • destruction of brain regions
57
Q

Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus: Prevention

A
  • screening of tissue culture, tumours and any potential animal carriers
58
Q

Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus: Diagnosis and treatment

A
  • PCR testing
  • no treatment
59
Q

Sendai virus: Transmission

A
  • Impacts research
  • affects the very young or old
  • suppresses immune system, causing secondary bacterial infection in animals
  • Transmission: aerosol
60
Q

Sendai virus: Clinical signs

A
  • Rough hair coat
  • hunched posture
  • dyspnea
  • chattering respiratory sounds
  • bronchitis (infection of bronchial tubes)
  • bronchiolitis (infection of respiratory tract)
  • Pneumonia (inflammation and fluid in lungs)
61
Q

Sendai virus: Prevention

A
  • rederivation of animals through caesarean/embryo transfer
  • use of micro-isolation housing
62
Q

Sendai virus: Diagnosis and treatment

A
  • Serology, clinical signs
  • No treatment
63
Q

Mousepox: Causative agent and transmission

A
  • Causative agent: Ectromelia virus
  • Transmission: Faecal-oral, direct contact, aerosol
64
Q

Mousepox: Clinical signs

A
  • skin lesions
  • purulent rash
65
Q

Mousepox: Prevention

A
  • regular health surveillance testing of sentinel animals
  • vaccination of mice
66
Q

Mousepox: Diagnosis and treatment

A
  • Serology (ELISA)
  • electron microscopic examination of tissues in suspected cases (distinctive eosinophilic cytoplasm and poxvirus particles)
  • No treatments
  • affected colonies must be destroyed and rooms and equipment disinfected.
67
Q

Helicobacter spp. Causative agent and transmission (bacterial)

A
  • Causative agent: Helicobacter hepaticus, H. bilis, H. muridarum, H. rodentium, etc.
  • Transmission: Faecal-oral
68
Q

Helicobacter spp. Clinical signs (bacterial)

A
  • hepatitis
  • hepatic necrosis
  • hepatomegaly (enlargement of the liver)
  • typhlitis (inflammation of the cecum)
  • colitis (inflammation of the inner lining of the colon)
  • rectal prolapse (rectum slipping down to the anus)
  • diarrhoea
  • wasting
69
Q

Helicobacter spp. Diagnosis and treatment (bacterial)

A
  • No treatment
  • affected colony must be destroyed
  • PCR
  • histology
  • bacterial culture
70
Q

Salmonellosis: Causative agent and transmission (bacterial)

A
  • Zoonotic
  • Causative agent: Salmonella typhimurium, salmonella enteritidis
  • Transmission: ingestion of contaminated feed
71
Q

Salmonellosis: Clinical signs (bacterial)

A
  • Acute/chronic diarrhoea
  • liver necrosis
72
Q

Salmonellosis: Prevention (bacterial)

A
  • stock hygiene
  • stock selection
  • pest management
73
Q

Salmonellosis: Diagnosis and treatment (bacterial)

A
  • Diagnosed with bacterial culture
  • Treated with antibiotics
74
Q

Respiratory mycoplasmosis: Causative agent and transmission (bacterial)

A
  • Causative agent: Mycoplasmosis pulmonis
    (primary agent), may have a secondary illness concurrently
  • Transmission: inhalation of aerosols
75
Q

Respiratory mycoplasmosis: Clinical signs (bacterial)

A
  • Pneumonia
  • nasal discharge
  • sneezing
  • otitis media (infection of the middle ear)
  • head tilt
  • circling
  • incoordination
76
Q

Respiratory mycoplasmosis: Prevention (bacterial)

A
  • Stock selection
  • rederivation of animals via caesarean/embryo transfer
  • disinfection of contaminated material
77
Q

Respiratory mycoplasmosis: Diagnosis and treatment (bacterial)

A
  • ELISA, PCR
  • Anitbiotics (tetracyclines/doxycycline/enrofloxacin)
  • NSAID (meloxicam)
78
Q

Pasteurellosis: Causative agent and transmission (bacterial)

A
  • can also occur in rabbits
  • Causative agents: Pasteurella pneumotropica, Pasteurella multocida
  • Transmission: Faecal-oral, respiratory aerosol
79
Q

Pasteurellosis: Clinical signs (bacterial)

A
  • pneumonia
  • URTI (upper respiratory tract infection)
  • abscesses in skin
  • lymph nodes
  • uterus and urinary system
  • pus in nasal cavity
  • ocular discharge
80
Q

Pasteurellosis: Prevention (bacterial)

A
  • isolate affected animals
  • buy pasteurella-free rodents from vendors
81
Q

Pasteurellosis: Diagnosis and treatment (bacterial)

A
  • PCR
  • bacterial culture
  • serological testing
  • clinical findings
  • Treated with Antibiotics (oxytetracycline) or antihistamine (chloramphenicol)
82
Q

Streptobaccillosis: Causative agent and transmission (bacterial)

A
  • Zoonotic.
  • causes Haverhill form of rat bite fever in humans (38-41C fever, chills, joint pains, diffuse red rashes on hands and feet)
  • Causative agents: Streptobacillus moniliformis
  • healthy rodents may be asymptomatic carriers
  • Transmission: Faecal-oral route, contact with urine or bodily secretions
83
Q

Pasteurellosis: Clinical signs & prevention (bacterial)

A
  • Clinical signs: Asymptomatic
  • Prevention: rederivation of animals via caesarean/embryo transfer
84
Q

Pasteurellosis: Diagnosis and treatment (bacterial)

A
  • ELISA, PCR
  • Antibiotics (tetracycline, cephalosporin, clindamycin, doxycycline)
85
Q

Mouse pinworm (gastro-intestinal endo-parasites): Clinical signs

A
  • rough hair coat
  • decreased growth rate
  • constipation
  • rectal prolapse
86
Q

Mouse pinworm (gastro-intestinal endo-parasites): Transmission

A
  • Infective eggs from environment is ingested by mice
  • eggs hatch in the colon
87
Q

Mouse pinworm (gastro-intestinal endo-parasites): Prevention

A
  • Rederivation of animals via caesarean/embryo transfer
  • frequent room and cage sanitation
  • purchase only from vendors with documented history of pinworm free mice
  • environmental decontamination
88
Q

Ecto-parasites in rats

A
  • Lice and mites
  • Flea infestations are uncommon
  • Lice: Polyplax
  • Mites: Liponyssis, laelaps, radfordia
89
Q

Ecto-parasites in mice

A
  • Fur mites: Myopia, myocoptes, radfordia
  • Flea infestations are uncommon
90
Q

Clinical signs of ecto-parasites

A
  • Pruritus (itchiness)
  • alopecia
  • dermatitis from self-induced trauma
  • lesions on back of the neck
91
Q

Treatment and diagnosis of ecto-parasites

A
  • treated with ivermectin and ascaricides
  • diagnosed with microscopic examination and clinical signs
92
Q

Prevention of ecto-parasites

A
  • Pest control
  • hygiene
  • careful inspection on arrival
93
Q

Neoplasia (non-infectious diseases)

A
  • high incidence of spontaneous neoplasia occurs in certain strains of mice and rats
  • Tumours: pulmonary tumours (mice), leukaemia (mice), mammary tumours (rats and mice)
  • Treated with surgical removal.
  • Recurrence is common and if left untreated, they will enlarge and eventually ulcerate and become infected
94
Q

Causes of fight wounds (husbandry related diseases)

A
  • Poor husbandry: lack of resources such as feed and water
  • overcrowded cages
  • introducing a new mouse into cages with already established hierarchies
95
Q

Clinical signs of fight wounds (husbandry related diseases)

A
  • missing patches of fur
  • bites and scratches at the head
  • perineum and lumbosacral skin
96
Q

Prevention of fight wounds (husbandry related diseases)

A
  • Ensure there is sufficient food and water supply at all times
  • ensure rodents are weaned in a timely manner
  • Avoid combining mice into new cages after weaning unless necessary
97
Q

Treatment of fight wounds (husbandry related diseases)

A
  • iodine (disinfectant) on the wound with a sterile cotton swab
  • re-establish social harmony by removing the dominant animal
98
Q

What is barbering? (husbandry related diseases)

A
  • pulling out of hair
  • different to fight wounds where there are wounds and bleeding
99
Q

Clinical signs of barbering (husbandry related diseases)

A
  • Missing patches of fur over the face and shoulders
  • affected areas are non-pruritic (not itchy)
100
Q

Prevention of barbering (husbandry related diseases)

A
  • avoid mixing cages that already have an established hierarchy
  • avoid overcrowding
101
Q

Treatment of barbering (husbandry related diseases)

A
  • Re-establish social harmony by removing the dominant animals
102
Q

Ringtail in rats

A
  • Ring of necrotic tissue forms around the circumference of the tail in rats
  • Young rats are more susceptible
  • due to low humidity in the microenvironment
103
Q

Clinical signs of ringtail

A
  • circular ring/oozing sore at the base of the tail
  • swelling
  • inflammation and/or necrosis of the portion of the tail distal to the ring
104
Q

Prevention of ringtail

A
  • Checking the humidity of the microenvironment
105
Q

Treatment of ringtail

A
  • Amputation of the tail
106
Q

Clinical signs of malocclusion

A
  • ill thriving at weaning
  • abnormally shaped nose/face
107
Q

Malocclusion

A
  • hereditary
  • may affect rodents, guinea pigs or rabbits
  • Overgrowth of mandibular incisors (preventing normal weaning)
  • incisors may grow into a curve and pierce the palate
  • Animal will be unable to eat and starve to death
108
Q

Prevention of malocclusion

A
  • Good record keeping to avoid breeding from pairs that produce offspring with malocclusion
109
Q

Treatment of malocclusion

A
  • Trim teeth regularly
  • under GA with blunt-tipped scissors
  • powdered diet
110
Q

Chromodacryorrhea

A
  • excess porphyrin in Harderian gland
  • most common in rats
  • Porphyrin-filled tears overflowing from the eye
  • dry around the eyelids
  • dark red crust on eyes and nostrils
  • may be mistaken for blood
  • usually caused by environmental stress/irritants/pain/poor nutrition/water deprivation/infections/injuries affecting the eye
111
Q

clinical signs of Chromodacryorrhea

A
  • reddish/rust-coloured stains around eyes/nose
112
Q

prevention of chromodacryorrhea

A
  • ensure a good water supply
  • optimal environmental conditions
113
Q

treatment of chromodacryorrhea

A
  • remove the source of stress/irritants
  • identify the underlying infection
  • pain-relief for injury
114
Q

diagnosis of chromodacryorrhea

A
  • using Wood’s lamp to confirm porphyrin
  • porphyrin fluoresces pink under the UV light source.

astech term test 1 (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions