Topic 3 Flashcards

1
Q

what is a eukaryotic cell

A

cells that contain a nucleus and organelles enclosed by a plasma membrane

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2
Q

what is a prokaryotic cell

A

A type of cell that does not contain any membrane bound
organelles or a nucleus

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3
Q

what organelles have a double membrane

A

nucleus, mitochondria and chloroplasts

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4
Q

what is the rough endoplasmic reticulum

A

system of interconnected membrane-bound, flattened sacs that have ribosomes attached to the outer surfaces
proteins that are made on these ribosomes are transported through the ER to other parts of the cell

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5
Q

what are ribosomes

A

organelles made up of ribosomal RNA and protein
are found free in the cytoplasm or attached to the endoplasmic reticulum and are the site of protein synthesis

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6
Q

what are lysosomes

A

spherical sacs containing digestive enzymes and bound by a single membrane
involved in breakdown of unwanted structures/destruction of whole cells when old ones need to be replaced/during development.
acrosome is a specialised lysosome

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7
Q

what is the smooth endoplasmic reticulum

A

makes lipids and steroid
similar to rER but has no ribosomes attached

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8
Q

what is the golgi apparatus

A

stacks of flattened, membrane-bound sacs formed by the fusion of vesicles from the ER
modifies and packages proteins into vesicles for transport

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9
Q

what are centrioles

A

hollow cylinders made up o 9 protein microtubules
involved in formation of the spindle during nuclear division and in transport within cell cytoplasm

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10
Q

describe the production of proteins and their route through the cell

A
  1. transcription of DNA to mRNA
  2. mRNA leaves nucleus
  3. proteins made on ribosomes enter the rough ER
  4. protein moves through the ER, assuming 3D shape
  5. vesicles pinched off the rough ER contain the protein
  6. vesicles from the rER fuse to form the flattened sacs of the Golgi apparatus
  7. proteins are modified within the Golgi
  8. vesicles pinched off the Golgi apparatus contain modified protein
  9. vesicles fuses with cell surface membrane releasing the protein such as extracellular enzymes
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11
Q

define features of an egg cell

A

incapable of independent movement
wafted by ciliated cells along fallopian tube
cytoplasm contains lots of protein and lipid food reserves for a developing embryo
has a coating = zona pellucida

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12
Q

define features of the sperm

A

has a flagellum enabling it to swim
large reserve of mitochondria

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13
Q

describe steps of fertilisation

A
  1. sperm reach ovum
  2. chemicals released from ells surrounding ovum to trigger acrosome reaction
  3. acrosome swells and fuses with sperm cell membrane membrane
  4. digestive enzymes in acrosome are released.
  5. enzymes digest through the follicle cell and the zona pellucida surrounding ovum
  6. sperm fuses with the ovum membrane and the sperm nucleus enter ovum
  7. enzymes released from lysosomes in ovum to thicken zona pellucida to prevent other sperm entry
  8. nuclei of sperm and ovum fuse
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14
Q

what kind of nucleus do sperm have

A

haploid
to ensure a full set of chromosomes at fertilisation

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15
Q

what is the cortical reaction

A

when the lysosomes release enzymes to harden the zona pellucida

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16
Q

what is a locus

A

the fixed point on a chromosome occupied by a gene

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17
Q

explain how shortening the spindle fibres affects mitosis

A

sister chromatids cannot be separated
mitosis will stop at metaphase
daughter cells are produced with incorrect numbers of chromosomes

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18
Q

explain each stage of the cell cycle

A
  1. Interphase: new organelles synthesised and DNA replication occurs
  2. Mitosis
    a) Prophase: chromosomes condense and chromatids become visible; spindle starts to form from centrioles; spindle fibres start to form and the equator is established
    b) Metaphase: chromosomes’ centromeres attach to the spindle fibres at the equator
    c) Anaphase: centromeres split; spindle fibres shorten; pulling each half of each centromere towards each pole; ends when separated chromatids reach the poles and spindle breaks down
    d) Telophase: chromosomes unravel, nuclei form and the two separate sets of info become enclosed in each
  3. Cytokinesis: ring of protein filaments bound to inside of surface cell membrane contract until cell as split into two
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19
Q

how is DNA folded from its double helix to a chromosome

A

is wound around histone proteins
they then coil to form chromatin fibres
chromatin fibre attaches to a protein scaffold forming loops
folding the protein scaffolding produces the condensed chromosome structure seen during nuclear division

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20
Q

what is the process of meiosis

A
  1. chromosomes replicate before division, after replication, each chromosome is made up of 2 strands of genetic material: 2 chromatids
  2. homologous chromosomes pair up and then separate
  3. they then separate again
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21
Q

what is the cell surface membrane

A

phospholipid bilayer containing proteins and other molecules forming a partially permeable membrane

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22
Q

what is a mitochondrion

A

the inner of its 2 membranes is folded to form projections - cristae
site of later stages of respiration

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23
Q

what is the nucleus

A

enclosed by a envelope of 2 membranes which is perforated by pore
contains chromosomes an nucleolus
chromosomes are made of DNA and contain genes that control the synthesis of protein

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24
Q

what is independent assortment

A

when homologous chromosomes align
randomly and separate
ensures genetic diversity in gametes

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25
Q

what is a homologous chromosome pair

A

chromosome pairs of approximately the same length, centromere position and staining pattern for genes with the same corresponding loci

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26
Q

what is a chromatid

A

one of the 2 identical halves of a chromosome that has been replicated in preparation in cell division

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27
Q

what is a chromatin

A

mass of genetic material that is composed of DNA and proteins that condense to chromosomes during eukaryotic cell division

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28
Q

what is “crossing over”

A

exchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes

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29
Q

what are sister chromatids

A

2 identical copies of the same chromosome formed by DNA replication

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30
Q

how are sister chromatids attached

A

by a centromere

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31
Q

in crossing over
what is the name given to the points of contact between a homologous pair of chromosomes

A

chiasmata

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32
Q

what happens during interphase

A

new organelles are synthesised and DNA replication occurs

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33
Q

what happens during mitosis

A

prophase: chromosomes condense and microtubules from cytoplasm form a spindle and establish a cell equator
breakdown of nuclear envelope signals end of prophase
Metaphase: spindle fibres attach to centromeres
Anaphase: spindle fibres shorten, pulling 2 halves of centromeres in opposite directions, one chromatid to each end of cell
Telophase: chromosome unravels, nuclear envelope reforms, each set of genetic info enclosed in separate nuclei

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34
Q

what happens in cytokinesis

A

it is thought that: ring of protein filaments bound to inside surface of cell surface membrane contract until cell divides
myosin and actin responsible
Plant cells synthesise a new cell plate between the 2 new cells

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35
Q

how does meiosis result in genetic variation

A

shuffling of existing genetic material into new combinations during meiosis
including independent assortment and crossing over

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36
Q

what happens during prophase 1 in meiosis

A

crhomosoems condense
pairs oh HOMOLOGOUS chromosomes line up closely together
1 centriole from each cell moves towards opposite poles of the cell
nuclear membrane break down

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37
Q

describe and explain what happens during anaphase

A

sister chromatids separate
they move to opposite poles of the cell

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38
Q

why is a stain used in mitosis experiment

A

to make DNA/genetic material visible

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39
Q

why is mitosis important in the life of an organism

A

growth/increase in cell number
replace cells/ repair tissues/organs/body
genetically identical daughter cells
asexual reproduction

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40
Q

describe what happens in
a) metaphase
b) anaphase

A

a) spindle is formed and chromosomes line up on the equator
b) chromosomes separate and are pulled apart to opposite poles of the cell

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41
Q

why is it advantageous for cells to complete cell cycle in a short time

A

cells can be replaced quickly

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41
Q

why might a drug that inhibits DNA polymerase be effective against cancer

A

prevents DNA from being replicated so new cells cannot be formed

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42
Q

why do you put the plant roots in acid

A

to stop mitosis; to separate cells; to hydrolyse the cell wall; to allow stain to into the cell; allows cells to be more easily squashed

43
Q

what precautions must you take when handling hydrochloric acid

A

eye protection
add water to spills immediately
gloves worn
do not pour away down the sink

44
Q

a student compares mitotic index in the roots of 2 different species
what should they take into consideration

A

roots/plants of the same age
same distance from root tip
same pressure when squashing them
same growing conditions
same amount of time in acid
picked at same time of day

45
Q

describe appearance and behaviour of chromosomes

A

chromosomes condense and become visible
chromosomes appear as 2 sister chromatids joined at the centre by a centromere
chromosomes line up at equator
attach to spindle fibres by the centromeres
centromere splits
chromosomes pulled to opposite poles
chromosomes uncoil

46
Q

describe and explain the processes that occur during meiosis that increase genetic variation

A

homologous chromosomes pair up
independent assortment
maternal and paternal chromosomes are shuffled into random combinations
crossing over leads to exchange of parts of alleles between homologous chromosomes
both create new combinations of alleles

47
Q

describe the role of the centromere in mitosis

A

holds the chromosomes together; attaches to the spindle; allows the chromatids to be separated

48
Q

describe 2 events during interphase which prepare a cell for mitosis

A

DNA Replication
protein synthesis
increase in cytoplasm
replication of organelles

49
Q

describe the behaviour of chromosomes during mitosis and explain how this results in the production of 2 genetically identical cells

A

chromosomes thicken and shorten
chromosomes are made up of 2 identical chromatids due to replication
chromosomes move to the equator and attach to individual spindle fibres
spindle fibres contract and centromeres divide
chromosomes separate and move to opposite directions/poles
each pole receives identical copies of each chromosome
nuclear envelope forms around each group of chromosomes at each pole

50
Q

explain why meiosis is important in sexual reproduction, apart from producing gametes are genetically different

A

produces haploid cells
fertilisation maintains diploid

51
Q

what is a totipotent stem cell

A

a stem cell that can differentiate into all other types of cell

52
Q

what is a pluripotent stem cell

A

a stem cell that can differentiate into most other types of cell

53
Q

what is a multipotent stem cell

A

a stem cell that can differentiate into some other types of cell

54
Q

what is a blastocyst

A

a hollow ball of cells formed 5 days after conception
outer layer goes on to form the placenta

55
Q

what is the epigenome

A

chemical markers that attach to histone proteins
role is to influence which genes are transcribed in a particular cell

56
Q

what does methylation of DNA do

A

attaches to cytosine of DNA and causes the nucleosomes to pack together tightly
prevents transcription factors from binding to DNA and the genes are not expressed

57
Q

what does acetylation of DNA do

A

attaches to the histone proteins and results in the DNA being loosely packed
transcription factors can bind to DNA and the genes can be expressed

58
Q

why are cells of the pancreas all the same even after division

A

during DNA replication, epigenetic markers are copied with the DNA so when the cells divide, it forms a cell with the same markers

59
Q

what do epigenetics do

A

involve changes in gene function without changing the base seqence

60
Q

what is the promoter region

A

a region of DNA where RNA polymerase begins to transcribe a gene

61
Q

what is a gene repressor and how does it work

A

it attaches to the operator gene and switches the gene off as it blocks the attachment site where RNA polymerase attaches to the promotor region

62
Q

what is the operon

A

the operator and genes associated

63
Q

explain how cells differentiate to become specialised tissues

A

signals/ stimulus cause some genes to be activated
only activated genes are transcribed and mRNA is synthesised
mRNA leads to the synthesis of specific proteins
cell structure is then determined

64
Q

what do chemical signals do

A

causes certain genes to be activated
only the activated genes are transcribed and mRNA synthesised
synthesis leads to specific proteins being made which causes cell modification

65
Q

what is a gene regulatory proteins

A

any protein that influences DNA through activation and repression

66
Q

what are activators

A

transcription factors that increase the rate of transcription
they work by helping RNA polymerase to bind to the start of a gene and to begin transcription of that gene

67
Q

what are repressors

A

transcription factors decrease the rate of transcription
they work by stopping RNA polymerase from binding to the DNA at the start of the gene, inhibiting transcription of that gene

68
Q

what do eukaryotes use to control gene expression

A

transcription factors

69
Q

what is a transcription factor

A

a protein that controls the transcription of genes by binding by a specific region of the DNA
they ensure that genes are being expressed in the correct cells, at the correct time and at the right level

70
Q

describe how pluripotent cells become specialised

A

stimulus
some genes are active
active genes are transcribed to mRNA
mRNA translated to produce protein
protein determines cell structure and function

71
Q

explain how a bone marrow cell can give rise to red blood cells

A

by differentiation
due to certain stimuli
which causes some genes to be deactivated
mRNA produced from active genes
removal of nucleus/ produces a bio concave shape

72
Q

explain how groups of specialised cells can produce the same enzyme

A

genes can be activated/ deactivated
cells receive the same stimulus
all these cells have the same gene for the enzyme activated
resulting in production of mRNA for the enzyme

73
Q

define polygenic

A

a characteristic showing continuous variation caused by multiple genes at different loci

74
Q

Explain how epigenetic changes affect the development of tissues in the embryo.

A

DNA is wrapped around histones
modification/ acetylation of histone affects binding of RNA polymerase
methylation of DNA affects transcription of genes
therefore gene expression is altered

75
Q

They have a mutation in a gene coding for a protein in the cell membrane.
Deduce why this mutation makes these people resistant to HIV infection.

A

the protein is a receptor that HIV attaches to
viral RNA cannot enter cell

76
Q

give a difference between a tissue and an organ

A

a tissue is made of one type of cell whereas an organ is made up of different tissues

77
Q

Describe the decisions that society has to make about the use of these embryonic stem cells.

A

embryonic stem cells are totipotent and can be used in a wider range of treatment
source of embryonic stem cells has to be regulated/considered
moral/ethical issues as use of embryonic stem cells destroys embryos
need for research establishments to be regulated

78
Q

Give the meaning of the term totipotent cell.

A

a cell that has the ability to differentiate into all types of cell

79
Q

Describe how cells become specialised.

A

chemical signals some genes to be switched on
only activated genes are transcribed
mRNA leads to synthesis of specific proteins which cause cell modifications

80
Q

Explain why stem cells from the heart cannot be used to grow cells to repair the cornea.

A

cell not totipotent
therefore some genes have already been activated/ deactivated
therefore will not be able to specialize into cornea cells

81
Q

Explain why chemicals from the eye are needed to produce corneal cells from a suitable source of stem cells.

A

chemicals cause some genes to be switched on
genes are transcribed producing specific mRNA
specific mRNA are translated into specific proteins
these proteins cause the cell to develop into corneal cell

82
Q

State what is meant by the term stem cell

A

a cell that is undifferentiated
that can give rise to specialised cells
that can divide to produce more stem cells

83
Q

Compare and contrast the results of mitosis and meiosis in the production of sperm cells from stem cells.

A

both increase number of cells
mitosis produces diploid cells, meiosis produces haploid cells
meiosis produces genetically different daughter cells, mitosis produces genetically identical daughter cells
mitosis produces 4 sperm cells, meiosis produces 8 sperm cells

84
Q

Explain what is meant by the term sex-linked disorder.

A

disorder caused by mutated gene on the X/Y chromosome
therefore disorder is more likely in one gender than the other

85
Q

Epigenetic changes can cause monozygotic twins to have different body masses.
Explain how epigenetic changes can cause differences in a characteristic.

A

histone modification/ DNA methylation
affects activation of genes
affecting metabolism

86
Q

Explain how epigenetic changes affect the activation of genes in daughter cells

A

genes are deactivated because of DNA methylation
the same genes will be activated in the daughter cells

87
Q

Explain why an individual may have a greater adult height than their biological parents

A

height is affected by the environment as well as the genotype
height is an example of polygenic inheritance
offspring can inherit a mixture of alleles from both parents
could have a higher protein diet

88
Q

Describe how a tissue differs in structure from a system.

A

tissue contains one type of cell
system contains different tissues/organs

89
Q

Describe how mesenchymal stem cells can give rise to different types of cell

A

different stimuli activate different genes
genes activated are transcribed
mRNA translated to produce proteins
proteins determine structure/function of cells
different genes activated result in different types of cell being produced

90
Q

The function of TET is to remove methyl groups from DNA.
Explain how a mutation in the gene for succinate dehydrogenase can increase the risk of developing cancer.

A

mutation is a change in the base sequence in gene/ DNA
succinate dehydrogenase less/non- functional
succinate then accumulates
accumulation inhibits TET
therefore methyl groups are not removed
affects gene transcription
greater methylation of DNA is associated with increased cancer risk

91
Q

Explain how epigenetic events might be involved in regulating collagen synthesis in rats given alcohol.

A

exposure to alcohol may result in changes of methylation of DNA
so that collagen gene is more likely to be activated

92
Q

define continuous variation

A

A type of variation within a population produced by polygenic
inheritance where the phenotypes are spread over a range of values.

93
Q

define differential gene expression

A

the switching on or off of genes o control functions within a cell by varying the production of proteins.

94
Q

what is the lac operon

A

A group of genes that control lactose uptake and metabolism in certain types of
bacteria and are all regulated by the binding of the lac repressor to the lac operator.

95
Q

575 identified mutations to the F9 gene that cause severe symptoms of
haemophilia.
The same percentage of these types of mutation is found in the F8 gene.
Calculate the number of mutations to the F8 gene that produce severe symptoms.

A

575/1133 = 0.5075/0.51
2931 x 0.51 = 1495

96
Q

Devise an investigation to determine the effect of exposure time to Agil on the rate of mitosis in onion root tips.

A

controlled conc of Agil
control temperature
roots exposed to agil for a range of different times
macerate roots
use toluidine blue stain
count number of cells undergoing mitosis

97
Q

explain how crossing over may differ in sex chromosomes

A

crossovers cannot form between the X and Y chromosome
because they are not homologous chromosomes

98
Q

Explain why DNA is replicated before mitosis begins

A

to ensure that the daughter cell has a diploid number of chromosomes
ensures that they are genetically identical

99
Q

Explain how large numbers of cells with the same phenotype can be produced in a tissue

A

mitosis produces genetically identical cells
phenotype is determined by genotype and the effect of environment

100
Q

explain why the nucleus cannot be observed at the end of prophase in eukaryotic cells

A

nuclear envelope has broken down
DNA is condensed into individual chromosomes

101
Q

describe how each gamete receives only 1 allele of each gene

A

homologous chromosomes are separated from one another
sister chromatids are also separated from one another
spindle fibres pull chromatids to opposite poles of the cell

102
Q

describe the events that occur during prophase

A

nuclear envelope breaks down
chromosomes condense
spindle + spindle fibres form

103
Q

what is the purpose of the cortical reaction

A

to ensure that only 1 sperm fertilises the egg

104
Q

give a reason for the high density of mitochondria found in the midpiece of a sperm cell

A

energy/ ATP for the movement of flagellum/ swim