Topic 1 - Concepts of Health & Disease Flashcards

1
Q

A state of complete physical, mental and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease and infirmity.

A

Health

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2
Q

Primary role is to direct and coordinate international health within the United Nations system. Its main areas of work are health systems, health through the life-course, non-communicable & communicable diseases, preparedness, surveillance & response and corporate services.

A

World Health Organization (WHO - 1948)

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3
Q

The decision-making body of the WHO, comprised of health ministers from member states, who determine the WHO’s policies and approve the programme budget.

A

World Health Assembly (WHA - 1977)

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4
Q

Where is the Health Assembly held annually?

A

Geneva, Switzerland

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5
Q

Every 10 years (since 1979), the US Department of ______ & _____ ________ sets data-driven national objectives to improve health and well-being over the next decade.

A

US Department of Health & Human Services

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6
Q

The conditions in the environments where people are born, live, learn, work, play, worship and age that affect a wide range of health, functioning and quality-of-life outcomes and risks.

A

Social Determinants of Health (SDOH)

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7
Q

The overarching goals of _______ ______ ____ include:
- Attain healthy, thriving lives and well-being free of preventable disease, disability, injury and premature death
- Eliminate health disparities, achieve health equity and attain health literacy to improve the health and well-being of all
- Create social, physical and economic environments that promote attaining the full potential for health and well-being for all
- Promote healthy development, healthy behaviours and well-being across all life stages
- Engage leadership, key constituents and the public across multiple sectors to take action and design policies that improve the health and well-being of all

A

Healthy People 2030

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8
Q

The main Government of Canada agency responsible for public health in Canada.

A

Public Health Agency of Canada (PHAC)

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9
Q

______ ______ ______ of ______ services and information provided include:
- Public Health Notices
- Chronic Diseases
- Travel Health
- Food Safety
- Immunization & Vaccines
- Biosafety & Biosecurity
- Emergency Preparedness & Response
- Injury Prevention
- Health Promotion

A

Public Health Agency of Canada (PHAC)

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10
Q

Under the Canadian constitution, health care falls largely under the authority of the _________. Only the provincial government has the power to pass laws governing the financing and delivery of health services to the majority of Canadians.

A

Provinces

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11
Q

______ ______ in Ontario is under the responsibility of the Ontario Ministry of Health and Long-Term Care.

A

Public Health

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12
Q

What are the 3 main focuses of Ontario’s public health programs?

A

1) Prevention
2) Screening
3) Education

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13
Q

Public health programs are delivered across the province by ___ public health units.

A

36

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14
Q

Government health agencies that are set up by one or more municipalities to provide community health programs and these programs are carried out by full-time, specially qualified staff.

A

Public Health Units

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15
Q

Runs a public health unit and reports to a local board of health, which is largely made up of elected representatives from the local municipal councils. The ministry shares the cost of public health programs with the municipalities.

A

Medical Officer of Health

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16
Q

An interruption, cessation or disorder of a body system or organ structure that is characterized by a recognized etiologic agent, an identifiable group of signs and symptoms or consistent anatomic alterations.

A

Disease

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17
Q

The study of disease process affecting the physiological functions of the body.

A

Pathophysiology

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18
Q

The study of the nature and cause of disease, which involves changes in structures and function.

A

Pathology

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19
Q

A microorganism that causes a disease.

A

Pathogen

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20
Q

A disease or abnormal condition can involve _____ changes at the organ or system level, and/or microscopic changes at the cellular level.

A

Gross

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21
Q

Performed on living tissue by pathology laboratory studies to establish the cause of a disease. Involves a small amount of tissue being excised and then examined.

A

Biopsy

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22
Q

A biopsy that is performed after death and is often referred to as a post-mortem examination.

A

Autopsy

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23
Q

The study of the causative factors in a particular disease and there may be one or many causative factors.

A

Etiology

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24
Q

Fill in the blanks for the recognized etiological agents:
1) __________ agents (e.g. bacteria, viruses)
2) ________ trauma (e.g. trauma, burns, radiation)
3) ________ agents (e.g. poisons, alcohol)
4) ___________ excesses and deficits

A

Biological
Physical
Chemical
Nutritional

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25
Q

Term used to describe when a disease is present at birth.

A

Congenital

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26
Q

Term used to describe when a disease surfaces later in life.

A

Acquired

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27
Q

Term used when the cause of the disease is unknown.

A

Idiopathic

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28
Q

Term used when a treatment, procedure or error may cause a disease.

A

Iatrogenic

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29
Q

Factors that indicate a risk for a disease.

A

Predisposing Factors

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30
Q

The following are all examples of ____________ factors.
- Race
- Age
- Sex
- Socioeconomic status
- Nutrition
- Weight
- Blood glucose levels
- Smoking
- Activity

A

Predisposing Factors

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31
Q

Elements that cause or contribute to the occurrence of a disorder versus causing the disorder itself.

A

Precipitating Factors

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32
Q

The following are all examples of common _____________ factors of asthma attacks.
- Mold
- Pet dander
- Dust mites
- Colds
- Strong smells
- Pollen
- Cockroaches
- Weather
- Smoke
- Exercise

A

Precipitating

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33
Q

__________ of disease is closely linked to etiology and predisposing factors for a specific disease.

A

Prevention

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34
Q

A type of prevention measure that includes vaccination, safety equipment, staying active/fit and removing risk factors.

A

Primary Prevention

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35
Q

A type of prevention measure that detects disease early when it’s still asymptomatic and treatment measures can affect a cure or stop it from progressing.

A

Secondary Prevention

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36
Q

A type of prevention measure that involves clinical intervention to prevent further deterioration or reduce the complications of disease once it has been diagnosed.

A

Tertiary Prevention

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37
Q

Refers to the sequence of cellular and tissue events that take place from the time of initial contact with an etiological agent until the ultimate expression of disease.

A

Pathogenesis

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38
Q

The onset of disease can be _____ or _________.

A

Acute
Insidious

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39
Q

The onset of disease that is sudden and obvious, such as gastroenteritis with vomiting, diarrhea and abdominal cramps.

A

Acute

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40
Q

The onset of disease that has a gradual progression with vague or mild symptoms, such as hepatitis in some cases.

A

Insidious

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41
Q

Indicates a short-term illness that develops quickly with marked signs and symptoms.

A

Acute Disease

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42
Q

A milder condition which develops gradually. It persists for a long period of time, usually causes more permanent tissue damage and is sometimes marked by intermittent acute episodes.

A

Chronic Disease

43
Q

The course or progress of a disease may be marked by __________ and _____________.

A

Remissions
Exacerbations

44
Q

The manifestations of a disease subside during a _________.

A

Remission

45
Q

The manifestations of a disease increase during an ____________.

A

Exacerbation

46
Q

Exists in those conditions where pathological changes occur, but no obvious manifestations are exhibited by the patient, perhaps because of great reserve capacity of an organ.

A

Subclinical State

47
Q

What are the 5 stages of an infectious disease?

A

1) Incubation Period
2) Prodromal Period
3) Acute/Clinical Stage
4) Convalescent/Carrier Stage
5) Resolution

48
Q

An initial latent or silent stage. A time between exposure to the microorganism and the onset of signs and symptoms. Time period is variable and disease agent is communicable during this period.

A

Incubation Period

49
Q

The time in the early development of disease when the body is undergoing changes, but signs and symptoms are non-specific.

A

Prodromal Period

50
Q

The time of appearance of more specific signs and symptoms and includes the period of illness and decline.

A

Acute/Clinical Stage

51
Q

The time when the individual harbours an organism, but does not have an active infection. This person can transmit the infection to others.

A

Convalescent/Carrier Stage

52
Q

The time of total elimination of the pathogen without residual signs and symptoms of the disease.

A

Resolution

53
Q

The clinical evidence of effect of a disease that can be local (found at the site of the problem) or systemic (involving multiple organ systems of the body).

A

Clinical Manifestations

54
Q

Any perceptible change in the body or function that indicates disease or pathology. It is considered to be subjective, meaning the information is based on the patient’s personal perception of what they are feeling.

A

Symptom

55
Q

Headache, fatigue, nausea and pain are examples of ________.

A

Symptoms

56
Q

An objective indicator of a disease. A manifestation that is noted by an observer.

A

Sign

57
Q

Fever, swelling, skin rash and high blood pressure are examples of _____.

A

Signs

58
Q

May be related to the primary disorder or they may represent the body’s attempt to compensate for the altered function caused by the pathologic condition. Usually occurs together in response to certain conditions.

A

Signs/Symptoms (S/S)

59
Q

A collection of signs/symptoms that often affect more than one organ and indicate the presence of a specific disorder.

A

Syndrome

60
Q

Refers to the designation as to the nature or cause of a health problem. It usually requires a careful history, physical examination and sometimes additional diagnostic tests.

A

Diagnosis

61
Q

Secondary or additional problems that arise after the original disease begins, such as the development of congestive heart failure following a heart attack.

A

Complications

62
Q

Changes that massage therapists take into consideration, such as an ankle sprain causing hip issues due to limping.

A

Compensatory Factors

63
Q

The potential unwanted outcomes of the primary condition (disease or injury), such as paralysis following recovery from a stroke. It is an after-effect or consequence.

A

Sequelae

64
Q

Treatment measures used to promote recovery or slow progress of a disease. These can include:
- Drug therapy
- Surgery
- Physiotherapy
- Massage therapy

A

Therapeutic Interventions

65
Q

The period of recovery and return to the normal health state that may last for several days or months.

A

Convalescence (aka. Rehabilitation)

66
Q

The likelihood of recovery, partial recovery or other outcomes.

A

Probability

67
Q

Indicates the disease rates within a group. It is sometimes used to indicate the function impairment that certain conditions cause within a population.

A

Morbidity (Incidence / Population)

68
Q

Indicates the relative number of deaths resulting from a particular disease.

A

Mortality (Deaths / Population)

69
Q

The study of disease occurrence in the human population and looks for patterns of persons affected with a particular disorder.

A

Epidemiology

70
Q

Looks at when a disease happens and these findings help to determine how a disease is spread as well as how to control, prevent and eliminate a disease.

A

Epidemiologist

71
Q

_________ and __________ are measures of disease frequency and disease occurrence. Both are typically reported as rates.

A

Incidence
Prevalence

72
Q

_______ cases be either existing cases or newly diagnosed cases within a given period.

A

Disease

73
Q

Refers to the number of new, old or pre-existing cases within a specific population and time period.

A

Prevalence (All Cases)

74
Q

Reflects the number of new cases arising in a population at risk within a stated time period.

A

Incidence (New Cases)

75
Q

Occur when there are higher than expected numbers of cases of an infectious disease within a given area.

A

Epidemic

76
Q

Involve a higher number of cases in many regions of the globe.

A

Pandemic

77
Q

Infections that can spread from one person to another.

A

Communicable Diseases

78
Q

Must be reported by the physician to certain designated authorities to prevent further spread of disease. In Ontario, it would be to the Medical Officer of Health in the local public health unit.

A

Cases Requiring Notification (aka. Reportable Disease)

79
Q

Examples of __________ diseases include:
- Measles
- Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS)
- Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

A

Reportable

80
Q

Refers to progression and projected outcome of the disease without medical intervention.

A

Natural History

81
Q

The study of _______ _______ can be used to:
- Determine disease outcome
- Establish priorities for health care services
- Determine the effects of screening and early detection programs on disease outcomes
- Compare results of new treatments with the expected outcome without treatment
- Study prognosis

A

Natural History

82
Q

Refers to the probable outcome and prospect of recovery from a disease and is often presented in relation to treatment options.

A

Prognosis

83
Q

Removal of visible dust, soil, and other foreign material.

A

Cleaning

84
Q

Reduction in microbial population on an inanimate object to a safe or relatively safe level.

A

Sanitizing (aka. Sanitization)

85
Q

Removing disease-producing microorganisms and rendering objects safe for handling.

A

Decontamination

86
Q

What are the 2 types of decontamination?

A

1) Disinfection
2) Sterilization

87
Q

A type of decontamination that involves killing or destroying most disease-producing microorganisms. It is generally used on inanimate objects, and rarely kills all spores.

A

Disinfection

88
Q

The 6 types of _____________ include:
- Alcohol
- Halogens
- Phenolic
- Ammonia Compounds
- Aldehydes
- Heat

A

Disinfectants

89
Q

A disinfectant that kills fungi, bacteria (including TB) and eventually viruses. It is not effective on spores and is often used on thermometers and skin.

A

Alcohol

90
Q

What are the 2 types of halogens?

A

1) Chlorine
2) Iodine

91
Q

A halogen that is meant for bacteria and viruses (including Hep B/HIV). It is not effective on spores and is often used on toilets, bathtubs and laundry/hydrotherapy tanks. It commonly dilutes bleach 1:9 water.

A

Chlorine

92
Q

A halogen that has a similar effect of chlorine and can be used on skin.

A

Iodine

93
Q

A disinfectant that is meant for bacteria and viruses, but not spores. It is used on floors, walls and furnishings.

A

Phenolic

94
Q

A disinfectant that is meant for bacteria and viruses, but not spores. It is used on floors and walls, but never on instruments.

A

Ammonia Compunds

95
Q

A disinfectant that is considered a toxic substance and meant for bacteria, fungi, viruses as well as spores.

A

Aldehydes

96
Q

A disinfectant that is used for washing, rinsing and boiling in water.

A

Heat

97
Q

A type of decontamination that kills all forms of microorganisms (harmful or not), including bacteria, viruses, fungi and spores.

A

Sterilization

98
Q

The 3 types of ___________ include:
- Thermal
- Irradiation
- Chemical

A

Sterilizers

99
Q

What are the 2 types of thermal sterilizers?

A

1) Moist
2) Dry

100
Q

A type of thermal sterilizer in which steam autoclave kills everything (121°C for 10-30 minutes).

A

Moist

101
Q

A type of thermal sterilizer utilizing hot air oven (160°C for 60 minutes).

A

Dry

102
Q

A sterilizer that includes UV light and ionizing.

A

Irradiation

103
Q

A sterilizer that is generally unreliable.

A

Chemical

104
Q

Used on living tissue and inhibits the growth of dangerous microorganisms.

A

Antiseptic