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Biology Edexcel Sophie > Topic 1 Circulatory Systems > Flashcards

Topic 1 Circulatory Systems Flashcards

1
Q

What percentage of a cell’s contents is made up of water?

A

About 80%

Water is crucial for various biological functions within cells.

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2
Q

What is one key function of water in biological systems?

A

Water is a solvent

Most biological reactions occur in solution, making water essential.

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3
Q

How does water facilitate the transport of substances?

A

Water transports substances by dissolving them

Substances like glucose and oxygen can be transported easily when dissolved in water.

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4
Q

What is the chemical structure of a water molecule?

A

One atom of oxygen joined to two atoms of hydrogen

The structure involves shared electrons between the atoms.

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5
Q

What charge does the oxygen atom in a water molecule carry?

A

Slightly negative charge

This is due to the unshared negative electrons on the oxygen atom.

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6
Q

What charge do the hydrogen atoms in a water molecule carry?

A

Slightly positive charge

This occurs because the shared electrons are pulled toward the oxygen atom.

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7
Q

What type of molecule is water considered due to its charge distribution?

A

Dipolar molecule

Water has a partial negative charge on one side and a partial positive charge on the other.

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8
Q

What is hydrogen bonding in relation to water?

A

Attraction between slightly negatively charged oxygen and slightly positively charged hydrogen

Hydrogen bonds give water its unique properties.

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9
Q

How does water’s dipolar nature contribute to its cohesiveness?

A

It allows water molecules to stick together

Cohesion helps water to flow and transport substances effectively.

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10
Q

What is cohesion?

A

Attraction between molecules of the same type

In water, this refers to the attraction between water molecules.

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11
Q

What type of substances does water dissolve effectively?

A

Ionic substances

This includes substances like salt, which consists of positive and negative ions.

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12
Q

Why do multicellular organisms require mass transport systems?

A

To deliver raw materials and remove waste

Diffusion alone is insufficient due to the larger distances in multicellular organisms.

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13
Q

What is the role of the circulatory system in mammals?

A

It pumps blood around the body

The system transports nutrients and oxygen to cells while removing metabolic waste.

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14
Q

Fill in the blank: Water’s dipole nature makes it useful as a _______ in living organisms.

A

solvent

This property allows important ions and substances to dissolve in biological fluids.

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15
Q

True or False: In single-celled organisms, raw materials can diffuse directly into the cell.

A

True

The short distances allow for quick diffusion.

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16
Q

What do individual cells in tissues and organs obtain from the blood?

A

Nutrients and oxygen

They also dispose of metabolic waste into the blood.

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17
Q

Explain how the structure of water enables it to transport substances.

A

Water’s dipolar nature allows it to dissolve ionic substances and facilitates cohesion, aiding transport

The combination of these properties makes water an effective transport medium.

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18
Q

What are the two main muscular pumps of the heart?

A

Left ventricle and right ventricle

The heart consists of two muscular pumps that work together to circulate blood.

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19
Q

What is the main function of the left ventricle?

A

To pump blood all the way round the body

The left ventricle has thicker walls to contract powerfully for this purpose.

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20
Q

What is the primary role of the right ventricle?

A

To pump blood to the lungs

The right side of the heart only needs to get blood to the lungs, which are nearby.

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21
Q

Why do the ventricles have thicker walls than the atria?

A

Because they have to push blood out of the heart

Atria only need to push blood a short distance into the ventricles.

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22
Q

What are atrioventricular (AV) valves responsible for?

A

Linking the atria to the ventricles and preventing backflow into the atria

Cords attach the AV valves to the ventricles to ensure they do not get forced up into the atria.

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23
Q

What do semi-lunar (SL) valves do?

A

Link the ventricles to the pulmonary artery and aorta, preventing backflow into the heart

These valves operate after the ventricles contract.

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24
Q

How do valves in the heart function?

A

They open or close based on the relative pressure of the heart chambers

Higher pressure behind a valve forces it open, while higher pressure in front forces it shut.

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25
Q

What is the function of arteries?

A

Carry blood from the heart to the rest of the body

Arteries are thick-walled and muscular to withstand high pressure.

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26
Q

What is the structure of veins?

A

Wider than arteries, with thin walls and valves to prevent backflow

Veins carry blood back to the heart under lower pressure.

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27
Q

What are capillaries and their primary function?

A

The smallest blood vessels where metabolic exchange occurs

Capillary walls are only one cell thick to facilitate diffusion.

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28
Q

Fill in the blank: The inner lining of arteries is called _______.

A

endothelium

The endothelium is folded to allow expansion under high pressure.

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29
Q

What is the significance of capillary beds?

A

Increase the surface area for exchange

This structure helps in the efficient exchange of substances like glucose and oxygen.

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30
Q

True or False: The left ventricle has thinner walls than the right ventricle.

A

False

The left ventricle has thicker walls due to its role in pumping blood throughout the body.

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31
Q

What precautions should be taken during a heart dissection?

A

Cut away from yourself and disinfect work surfaces

Safety is paramount to avoid injury and contamination.

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32
Q

Describe the structure of an artery.

A

Thick muscular walls with elastic tissue and folded endothelium

This structure helps arteries cope with high pressure from the heartbeat.

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33
Q

What are the three stages of the cardiac cycle?

A
  • Ventricular diastole, atrial systole
  • Ventricular systole, atrial diastole
  • Cardiac diastole

These stages describe the sequence of events in the heart during each cycle of pumping blood.

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34
Q

What occurs during ventricular diastole, atrial systole?

A

The atria contract, decreasing the volume of the chambers and increasing the pressure inside the chambers, pushing blood into the ventricles.

This stage involves the opening of AV valves and slight increase in ventricular pressure.

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35
Q

What happens during ventricular systole, atrial diastole?

A

The ventricles contract, decreasing their volume and increasing their pressure, forcing the AV valves shut and opening the SL valves to eject blood into the aorta and pulmonary artery.

This prevents back-flow and ensures blood is pushed out of the heart.

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36
Q

What is the role of the AV valves during the cardiac cycle?

A

The AV valves open to allow blood flow from the atria to the ventricles and close to prevent back-flow during ventricular contraction.

AV stands for atrioventricular valves.

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37
Q

What occurs during cardiac diastole?

A

The ventricles and atria relax, SL valves close to prevent back-flow, and blood fills the atria from the vena cava and pulmonary vein.

This relaxation phase prepares the heart for the next cycle.

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38
Q

True or False: The pressure in the ventricles is always higher than in the atria during the cardiac cycle.

A

False.

The pressure in the ventricles is lower than in the atria during the relaxation phase (cardiac diastole) which allows the AV valves to open.

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39
Q

Fill in the blank: Blood starts flowing into the aorta when the ventricles are _______.

A

[contracting]

This occurs during ventricular systole when the pressure in the ventricles exceeds that in the aorta.

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40
Q

What causes the SL valves to close during the cardiac cycle?

A

Higher pressure in the pulmonary artery and aorta compared to the ventricles.

This prevents back-flow of blood into the ventricles.

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41
Q

What is the heart rate of a person if one cardiac cycle takes 0.54 seconds?

A

110 beats per minute

Calculated by dividing 60 seconds by 0.54 seconds per cycle.

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42
Q

During which phase do the AV valves open?

A

During cardiac diastole when the pressure in the atria exceeds that in the ventricles.

This allows passive filling of the ventricles.

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43
Q

What happens to the pressure in the ventricles during ventricular systole?

A

The pressure increases as the ventricles contract.

This increase in pressure is necessary to eject blood into the arteries.

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44
Q

Between what times are the AV valves shut?

A

Between the times when the ventricles are contracting and the pressure in the ventricles is higher than in the atria.

This typically occurs during ventricular systole.

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45
Q

Describe what happens to the ventricles and atria during cardiac diastole.

A

Both ventricles and atria relax, filling with blood as the pressure in the atria rises above that in the ventricles.

This phase prepares the heart for the next contraction.

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46
Q

What is a microscope slide?

A

A strip of clear glass or plastic used to hold specimens for viewing under a microscope.

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47
Q

What are the two main ways of preparing a microscope slide?

A
  • Dry mount
  • Wet mount
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48
Q

Describe the process of creating a wet mount.

A
  1. Pipette a small drop of water onto the slide.
  2. Use tweezers to place the specimen on top of the water drop.
  3. Tilt and lower a cover slip onto the specimen to avoid air bubbles.
  4. Optionally, add a stain by placing a drop next to the cover slip and using a paper towel to draw it under.
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49
Q

What is a dry mount?

A

A method where the specimen is placed directly on the slide with a cover slip on top, without adding water or stain.

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50
Q

What is the first step in using a light microscope?

A

Clip the slide containing the specimen onto the stage.

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51
Q

Which objective lens should be selected first when using a light microscope?

A

The lowest-powered objective lens.

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52
Q

What is the purpose of the coarse adjustment knob?

A

To move the stage up or down to bring the specimen into focus.

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53
Q

How do you calculate the heart rate of Daphnia?

A

Count the number of heartbeats in 20 seconds and multiply by three to get beats per minute.

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54
Q

What is the effect of caffeine concentration on Daphnia heart rate?

A

Heart rate increases as caffeine concentration increases.

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55
Q

What should be done to ensure valid results when investigating the effect of caffeine on heart rate?

A

Keep other factors constant, such as temperature and type of Daphnia.

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56
Q

What ethical concerns are associated with using invertebrates in experiments?

A
  • Lack of consent from the animals
  • Potential for causing distress or suffering
  • The debate over whether it’s acceptable to experiment on simpler organisms compared to vertebrates.
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57
Q

True or False: Daphnia are considered vertebrates.

A

False

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58
Q

Fill in the blank: A good way to visualize the effect of caffeine concentration on heart rate is to draw a _______.

A

[graph]

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59
Q

List the steps to investigate the effect of caffeine on Daphnia heart rate.

A
  • Prepare caffeine solutions of different concentrations
  • Transfer Daphnia to a cavity slide
  • Add caffeine solution and wait for absorption
  • Observe under a microscope and count heartbeats
  • Repeat with different concentrations and a control solution.
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60
Q

What is the purpose of the fine adjustment knob?

A

To refine the focus of the image until it is clear.

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61
Q

What is a control solution in an experiment?

A

A solution that has no caffeine, used for comparison against other concentrations.

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62
Q

What is the relationship between caffeine concentration and heart rate as shown in the experiment?

A

A positive correlation exists; as caffeine concentration increases, heart rate also increases.

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63
Q

What is the first step in preparing a microscope slide?

A

Put the specimen on a slide.

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64
Q

What are the two main ways of preparing a microscope slide?

A
  • Dry mount
  • Wet mount
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65
Q

What is a wet mount used for?

A

Looking at tiny organisms that live in water.

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66
Q

How do you create a wet mount slide?

A

Pipette a small drop of water onto the slide, place the specimen on top, and cover with a cover slip.

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67
Q

What should you avoid when placing the cover slip on a wet mount?

A

Getting air bubbles under the slip.

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68
Q

What is the purpose of adding a stain to a wet mount?

A

To enhance visibility of the specimen.

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69
Q

How is a dry mount slide prepared?

A

Place the specimen directly on the slide with a cover slip on top, without adding water or stain.

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70
Q

What is the first step when using a light microscope?

A

Clip the slide containing the specimen onto the stage.

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71
Q

What should you select before viewing a specimen under a microscope?

A

The lowest-powered objective lens.

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72
Q

What is the function of the coarse adjustment knob?

A

To move the stage up or down to focus the image.

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73
Q

What should you do if you need greater magnification after focusing?

A

Swap to a higher-powered objective lens and refocus.

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74
Q

How do you measure the heart rate of Daphnia?

A

Count the number of heartbeats in 20 seconds and multiply by three.

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75
Q

What should be kept constant when investigating the effect of caffeine on heart rate?

A
  • Temperature
  • Volume of caffeine solution
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76
Q

What does a positive correlation in the results of the Daphnia experiment indicate?

A

As caffeine concentration increases, heart rate also increases.

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77
Q

What are some ethical considerations when experimenting on invertebrates?

A
  • They cannot give consent
  • They may be subjected to painful procedures
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78
Q

Why might some people find it more acceptable to experiment on invertebrates than vertebrates?

A

Invertebrates are considered simpler organisms with less sophisticated nervous systems.

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79
Q

Fill in the blank: The average heart rate is calculated by taking the average of _______ readings at each caffeine concentration.

A

10

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80
Q

True or False: It is ethical to cause distress or suffering to any living organism during experiments.

A

False

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81
Q

What is cardiovascular disease associated with?

A

The heart and blood vessels.

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82
Q

What is the first step in the formation of an atheroma?

A

Damage to the endothelium.

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83
Q

What are the components that clump together to form fatty streaks under the endothelium?

A
  • White blood cells
  • Lipids (fats)
  • Connective tissue
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84
Q

What is the fibrous plaque formed during atheroma development called?

A

Atheroma.

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85
Q

What condition results from the hardening of arteries caused by atheromas?

A

Atherosclerosis.

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86
Q

What triggers thrombosis in arteries?

A

Rupture of an atheroma.

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87
Q

What can occur as a result of a blood clot formed from thrombosis?

A
  • Complete blockage of the artery
  • Dislodging and blocking a blood vessel elsewhere
88
Q

What are three forms of cardiovascular disease caused by blood clots?

A
  • Heart attack
  • Stroke
  • Deep vein thrombosis
89
Q

Fill in the blank: Thrombosis is used by the body to prevent _______ when a blood vessel is damaged.

A

blood loss

90
Q

What protein is released from a damaged blood vessel to initiate blood clot formation?

A

Thromboplastin.

91
Q

What does thrombin catalyze the conversion of?

A

Fibrinogen to fibrin.

92
Q

What forms the mesh that traps platelets and red blood cells to create a blood clot?

A

Fibrin fibres.

93
Q

What is a myocardial infarction more commonly known as?

A

Heart attack.

94
Q

What happens when a coronary artery becomes completely blocked by a blood clot?

A

An area of the heart muscle is cut off from its blood supply.

95
Q

What is coronary heart disease (CHD)?

A

When the coronary arteries have many atheromas, restricting blood flow to the heart.

96
Q

What is a stroke?

A

A rapid loss of brain function due to a disruption in blood supply to the brain.

97
Q

What is deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

A

Formation of a blood clot in a vein deep inside the body, usually in leg veins.

98
Q

What factors can increase the risk of DVT?

A
  • Prolonged inactivity
  • Age
99
Q

True or False: A heart attack can cause damage and death of the heart muscle.

A

True.

100
Q

What lifestyle factor increases the risk of cardiovascular disease due to high cholesterol levels?

A

A diet high in saturated fat

A high saturated fat diet increases atheroma formation, which can lead to blood clots and cardiovascular events.

101
Q

How does a diet high in salt affect cardiovascular disease risk?

A

It increases the risk of high blood pressure

High blood pressure is a significant risk factor for cardiovascular disease.

102
Q

What is the effect of high blood pressure on artery walls?

A

It increases the risk of damage to the artery walls

Damaged artery walls can lead to atheroma formation and cardiovascular disease.

103
Q

What harmful substance in cigarette smoke reduces oxygen transport in the blood?

A

Carbon monoxide

Carbon monoxide combines with hemoglobin, reducing oxygen delivery to tissues.

104
Q

What effect does nicotine have on blood platelets?

A

It makes platelets sticky

Sticky platelets increase the chance of blood clots forming, raising cardiovascular disease risk.

105
Q

How does smoking affect antioxidants in the blood?

A

It decreases the amount of antioxidants

Fewer antioxidants lead to increased cell damage in artery walls, promoting atheroma formation.

106
Q

What is a consequence of physical inactivity regarding cardiovascular disease?

A

It increases blood pressure

Higher blood pressure is a risk factor for cardiovascular disease.

107
Q

What genetic factor can increase the risk of cardiovascular disease?

A

Inheritance of particular alleles

Certain alleles may lead to high blood pressure or cholesterol levels.

108
Q

How does age affect the risk of cardiovascular disease?

A

The risk increases with age

Plaque can build up slowly over time, leading to cardiovascular disease.

109
Q

Which gender is more likely to suffer from cardiovascular disease?

A

Men

Men are three times more likely to develop CVD than pre-menopausal women.

110
Q

What is the definition of risk in the context of cardiovascular disease?

A

The chance of something unfavourable happening

For example, smoking increases the chance of developing cardiovascular disease.

111
Q

True or False: The statistical chance of dying from cardiovascular disease is lower for smokers than non-smokers.

A

False

Smokers have a 60% higher risk of dying from cardiovascular disease.

112
Q

What can lead people to overestimate the risk of developing cardiovascular disease?

A

Constant exposure to health-related information

Media articles can create heightened awareness and fear regarding health risks.

113
Q

What could cause someone to underestimate their risk of cardiovascular disease?

A

Lack of information

Being unaware of the contributing factors to diseases like CVD can lead to underestimation.

114
Q

Fill in the blank: A _______ is a fatty deposit that can lead to cardiovascular disease.

A

atheroma

Atheromas can cause thrombosis, increasing the risk of cardiovascular events.

115
Q

What is the role of fibrin in the blood clotting process?

A

Fibrin forms a mesh that stabilizes the blood clot

It is essential for the final stage of blood clot formation.

116
Q

How does excessive alcohol consumption affect cardiovascular disease risk?

A

It increases blood pressure

High blood pressure is a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease.

117
Q

What is the difference between correlation and causation?

A

Correlation does not prove that a change in one causes a change in the other.

This distinction is crucial when interpreting data on risk factors.

118
Q

What was the sample size of the first study regarding smoking and breast cancer?

A

The study analyzed data from 53 studies worldwide, including 22,255 women with breast cancer and 40,832 women without.

This totals to 63,087 women.

119
Q

What conclusion can be drawn from the first study about smoking and breast cancer?

A

Smoking is not associated with an increased risk of breast cancer for women who don’t drink alcohol.

However, the study does not account for women who drink alcohol.

120
Q

What factors were not considered in the first study that could affect breast cancer risk?

A
  • Hormone replacement treatment
  • Physical activity
  • Alcohol consumption

These factors could impact the validity of the study’s conclusions.

121
Q

What is conflicting evidence in the context of health studies?

A

Conflicting evidence refers to studies that lead to different conclusions about the same health risk.

For example, one study may find a health risk while another does not.

122
Q

What was the sample size of the second study on smoking and breast cancer?

A

The study involved 116,544 women without breast cancer in California.

A large sample size increases the reliability of the results.

123
Q

What does the second study conclude about smoking and breast cancer risk?

A

Smoking is associated with an increased risk of breast cancer for women in California.

This conclusion conflicts with the first study’s findings.

124
Q

What should be evaluated when assessing the design of a study?

A
  • Sample size
  • Selection of sample
  • Control of variables
  • Data collection methods
  • Presence of controls
  • Repetition by other scientists

Each of these factors affects the reliability and validity of study results.

125
Q

How does controlling variables improve a study’s validity?

A

Controlling variables ensures that only the intended factor is being tested.

This reduces confounding factors that could skew results.

126
Q

What is a potential drawback of using questionnaires for data collection?

A

Questionnaires can introduce bias, which decreases the reliability of the results.

Bias can occur if respondents do not answer truthfully or consistently.

127
Q

Fill in the blank: The more reliable the results, the greater the number of _______.

A

people used in a study.

128
Q

True or False: Study two confirms the conclusions of study one.

A

False.

Study two presents conflicting evidence regarding smoking and breast cancer risk.

129
Q

Why is it important to look at the data collection method when evaluating study design?

A

It affects the reliability of the results; less bias leads to more reliable data.

Data collection methods can significantly influence the outcome and interpretation of a study.

130
Q

What are two reasons why a study involving 168,000 people shows strong evidence for a link between waist measurement and cardiovascular disease?

A
  • Large sample size increases reliability
  • Independent association shows a direct link

The strength of the correlation is enhanced by the large and diverse sample.

131
Q

What are two ways to increase the reliability of study results?

A
  • Increase sample size
  • Control for more variables

These actions help to ensure that the findings are more generalizable and valid.

132
Q

What is the primary goal of antihypertensives in treating CVD?

A

Reduce high blood pressure

Antihypertensives can include beta blockers, diuretics, and vasodilators.

133
Q

What are the benefits of using antihypertensives?

A

Different types work in combination to lower blood pressure and allow for home monitoring

This helps patients track the effectiveness of their treatment.

134
Q

What are some side effects of antihypertensives?

A

Palpitations, abnormal heart rhythms, fainting, headaches, drowsiness, allergic reactions, and depression

135
Q

How do statins help in the treatment of CVD?

A

Reduce the amount of ‘bad’ LDL cholesterol in the blood

This lowers the risk of atheroma formation.

136
Q

What are the risks associated with statins?

A

Muscle and joint pain, digestive problems, increased risk of diabetes, nosebleeds, headaches, and nausea

137
Q

What is the primary function of anticoagulants in CVD treatment?

A

Reduce the formation of blood clots

138
Q

What are the benefits of using anticoagulants?

A

Prevent existing blood clots from growing and prevent new clots from forming

139
Q

What are the risks of using anticoagulants?

A

Excessive bleeding, allergic reactions, osteoporosis, tissue swelling, and potential harm to a fetus during pregnancy

140
Q

What do platelet inhibitory drugs do?

A

Prevent platelets from clumping together to form blood clots

141
Q

What are the benefits of platelet inhibitory drugs?

A

Can treat people with existing blood clots or CVD

142
Q

What are the risks associated with platelet inhibitory drugs?

A

Rashes, diarrhea, nausea, liver function problems, and excessive bleeding

143
Q

True or False: Anticoagulants can eliminate existing blood clots.

A

False

Anticoagulants can only prevent clots from growing or new clots from forming.

144
Q

Fill in the blank: Statins reduce the risk of developing CVD by lowering _______.

A

blood cholesterol levels

145
Q

What condition can antihypertensives help reduce the risk of developing?

A

Coronary heart disease (CHD)

146
Q

Name one disadvantage of taking antihypertensives.

A

Potential for side effects like fainting or headaches

147
Q

Name a medication type that can be prescribed for high blood pressure.

A

Antihypertensives

148
Q

What should patients be aware of regarding the effectiveness of CVD medications?

A

They do not cure the problem; they prevent worsening of conditions

149
Q

What is an energy budget?

A

The amount of energy taken in by an organism (in food) and the amount of energy used up by an organism.

150
Q

What happens when there is an energy imbalance in an organism’s energy budget?

A

It will affect the person’s weight.

151
Q

What causes weight gain in relation to energy intake and output?

A

If energy intake is higher than energy output, the excess energy will be turned into fat reserves.

152
Q

Fill in the blank: If a person consumes food containing 4000 Calories a day and burns 3000 Calories a day, they will have an excess of _______ Calories per day.

A

1000

153
Q

What can sustained excess energy intake lead to?

A

Obesity

154
Q

What causes weight loss in relation to energy intake and output?

A

If energy intake is lower than energy output, the body will turn some fat reserves into energy.

155
Q

Fill in the blank: If a person consumes food containing 2500 Calories a day but burns 3000 Calories a day, they will have an energy deficit of _______ Calories per day.

A

500

156
Q

What can sustained energy deficit lead to?

A

Underweight

157
Q

What chemical is used to measure the amount of Vitamin C in food?

A

DCPIP

158
Q

What is the first step in measuring vitamin C concentration using DCPIP?

A

Make up several vitamin C solutions of different, known concentrations.

159
Q

What should be kept constant during the experiment to measure vitamin C concentration?

A

All other variables, e.g. temperature.

160
Q

What is the purpose of creating a calibration curve in the vitamin C experiment?

A

To find the concentration of vitamin C in an unknown solution.

161
Q

What is the recommended daily intake of Calories for women?

A

2000

162
Q

What is the recommended daily intake of Calories for men?

A

2500

163
Q

What formula is used to calculate a person’s energy budget?

A

Energy input - energy output = energy budget

164
Q

What did Ranjit’s energy budget calculation reveal?

A

His energy budget is balanced.

165
Q

How many Calories does cooking use per hour?

A

159

166
Q

What is the number of Calories used per hour for swimming?

A

328

167
Q

True or False: Eating beans can increase the amount of Calories used for bodily functions.

A

True

168
Q

If a woman takes in 2000 Calories a day and maintains her basic bodily functions using 1200 Calories, what will be her energy budget after swimming and gardening?

A

It must be calculated using the given activities’ calorie expenditure.

169
Q

What short-term effect does a balanced energy budget have on a person’s weight?

A

No significant change in weight.

170
Q

What long-term effect can an energy budget imbalance have?

A

Weight gain or loss depending on the imbalance.

171
Q

What are carbohydrates primarily composed of?

A

Long chains of monosaccharides

Monosaccharides are the small basic molecular units of carbohydrates.

172
Q

What is a monosaccharide?

A

A single sugar unit

Examples include glucose and fructose.

173
Q

What is the structure of glucose?

A

Six carbon atoms in each molecule

Glucose is the primary energy source for animals and plants.

174
Q

What are the two types of glucose you need to learn about?

A

Alpha (α) and beta (β)

Only alpha-glucose is needed for this section.

175
Q

What type of bond joins monosaccharides together?

A

Glycosidic bonds

Formed during a condensation reaction where water is released.

176
Q

What happens during a hydrolysis reaction?

A

A molecule of water reacts with a glycosidic bond, breaking it apart

This is the reverse of a condensation reaction.

177
Q

What is a disaccharide?

A

A molecule formed by two monosaccharides

Examples include maltose and sucrose.

178
Q

What are the two polysaccharides you need to learn about?

A

Starch and glycogen

Both are composed of alpha-glucose.

179
Q

What is starch’s primary function?

A

Energy storage material in plants

Plants store excess glucose as starch.

180
Q

What are the two components of starch?

A

Amylose and amylopectin

Both are polysaccharides of alpha-glucose.

181
Q

Describe amylose.

A

A long, unbranched chain of glucose with 1-4 glycosidic bonds

Its coiled structure makes it compact for storage.

182
Q

Describe amylopectin.

A

A long, branched chain of glucose with 1-4 and 1-6 glycosidic bonds

Side branches allow quick glucose release.

183
Q

What is glycogen’s primary function?

A

Energy storage material in animals

Animals store excess glucose as glycogen.

184
Q

How does glycogen differ from starch?

A

Glycogen has more side branches than amylopectin

This allows for quicker glucose release.

185
Q

What is the significance of glycogen being insoluble in water?

A

It prevents cells from swelling by osmosis

This characteristic is important for storage.

186
Q

What two monosaccharides form lactose?

A

Beta-glucose and galactose

Lactose contains a 1-4 glycosidic bond.

187
Q

What two monosaccharides form sucrose?

A

Alpha-glucose and fructose

Sucrose contains a 1-2 glycosidic bond.

188
Q

Fill in the blank: A polysaccharide is formed when more than _______ monosaccharides join together.

A

two

189
Q

What are triglycerides?

A

Triglycerides are a kind of lipid made of one molecule of glycerol with three fatty acids attached to it.

Triglycerides are the main form of fat stored in the body.

190
Q

What is the basic structure of a fatty acid?

A

All fatty acids consist of a hydrocarbon ‘tail’ and a carboxylic acid group. The tail varies in length.

The tail is often represented by the letter R in diagrams.

191
Q

What is the difference between saturated and unsaturated lipids?

A

Saturated lipids do not have double bonds between carbon atoms, while unsaturated lipids do.

Unsaturated lipids can be further classified into monounsaturated and polyunsaturated based on the number of double bonds.

192
Q

Where are saturated lipids primarily found?

A

Saturated lipids are mainly found in animal fats, such as butter.

Examples include meats and dairy products.

193
Q

Where are unsaturated lipids primarily found?

A

Unsaturated lipids are mostly found in plants, such as olive oil.

Other sources include nuts and fish.

194
Q

What happens to triglycerides during condensation reactions?

A

Three fatty acids and a single glycerol molecule are joined together by ester bonds, releasing a molecule of water.

This is the process of forming triglycerides.

195
Q

What is the process called that breaks triglycerides apart?

A

Hydrolysis reactions break triglycerides apart by adding a molecule of water to each ester bond.

This results in the formation of three fatty acids and one glycerol molecule.

196
Q

What is cholesterol?

A

Cholesterol is a type of lipid made in the body that is necessary for normal functioning.

Cholesterol is also a precursor for steroid hormones and vitamin D.

197
Q

What are the two types of lipoproteins?

A
  • High Density Lipoproteins (HDLs)
  • Low Density Lipoproteins (LDLs)

HDLs are considered ‘good’ cholesterol, while LDLs are often referred to as ‘bad’ cholesterol.

198
Q

What is the function of High Density Lipoproteins (HDLs)?

A

HDLs transport cholesterol from body tissues to the liver for recycling or excretion, reducing total blood cholesterol.

This process helps maintain cardiovascular health.

199
Q

What is the function of Low Density Lipoproteins (LDLs)?

A

LDLs transport cholesterol from the liver to the blood, increasing total blood cholesterol when levels are too low.

High levels of LDLs are associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular disease.

200
Q

True or False: A diet high in saturated fat decreases the risk of developing cardiovascular disease.

A

False.

A diet high in saturated fat increases blood cholesterol levels, which is associated with a higher risk of cardiovascular disease.

201
Q

Fill in the blank: Increased cholesterol levels are thought to increase _______ formation.

A

atheroma

Atheromas are fatty deposits that can lead to the narrowing of arteries.

202
Q

What is the relationship between LDL cholesterol levels and cardiovascular events?

A

The relative risk of a cardiovascular event increases as the level of LDL cholesterol in the blood increases.

This indicates a positive correlation between LDL cholesterol levels and cardiovascular risk.

203
Q

What should you consider when interpreting data on cardiovascular events?

A

Check if conclusions match the data and consider sample characteristics, such as gender representation and causation versus correlation.

For instance, data showing trends in women cannot be generalized to men.

204
Q

Why is a large sample size important in studies?

A

A large sample size is more representative of the whole population and shares more characteristics of that population.

This increases the reliability of the study’s conclusions.

205
Q

What lifestyle changes can reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease (CVD)?

A

Changes include reducing saturated fat intake and maintaining a healthy weight through diet and exercise.

Scientific studies have linked high saturated fat diets to increased CVD risk.

206
Q

What is the normal BMI range for adults?

A

The normal BMI for adults is between 18 and 25.

BMI is calculated using the formula: BMI = body mass (kg) / height² (m²).

207
Q

How is waist-to-hip ratio calculated?

A

Waist-to-hip ratio = waist measurement (cm) / hip measurement (cm).

208
Q

What is the significance of obesity indicators?

A

Obesity indicators help assess whether individuals are overweight or obese and guide lifestyle changes to reduce CVD risk.

Examples include waist-to-hip ratio and BMI.

209
Q

What type of lipid is found in olive oil?

A

Olive oil contains monounsaturated lipids.

210
Q

What is a polyunsaturated lipid?

A

A polyunsaturated lipid contains multiple double bonds in its fatty acid chains.

211
Q

What is a lipoprotein?

A

A lipoprotein is a complex of lipids and proteins that transports fats in the bloodstream.

212
Q

True or False: Smoking has been linked to an increased risk of CVD.

A

True.

Scientific research has established a connection between smoking and cardiovascular disease risk.

213
Q

What are two examples of initiatives to encourage people to stop smoking?

A
  • TV adverts warning about smoking risks
  • NHS providing free advice and nicotine patches
214
Q

What is the difference between high-density lipoproteins (HDL) and low-density lipoproteins (LDL)?

A

HDL is considered ‘good cholesterol’ due to its role in transporting cholesterol away from arteries, while LDL is known as ‘bad cholesterol’ as it can lead to plaque buildup.

The structure and function of these lipoproteins differ significantly.

215
Q

How can changes in lifestyle be monitored using obesity indicators?

A

Obesity indicators can be used to track changes in weight and assess the effectiveness of lifestyle modifications.

For example, tracking BMI before and after a diet.

216
Q

Fill in the blank: A person’s waist-to-hip ratio is calculated using the formula _______.

A

waist measurement (cm) / hip measurement (cm)

217
Q

Fill in the blank: BMI is calculated using the formula _______.

A

body mass (kg) / height² (m²)

Biology Edexcel Sophie (8 decks)

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