top 300 drugs by class Flashcards

Question

Diclofenac Patch

Answer 1

analgesic, NSAID

Answer 2

PO: 50mg 2-3x/d

Answer 3

Patch: apply 1 patch BID to most painful area

Answer 4

Gel: apply 2-4g of 1% gel to affected areas 4x/d

Answer 5

[BBW]: NSAIDs cause an increased risk of serious adverse cardiovascular thrombotic events, including MI and stroke. Risk may occur early during treatment and may increase with duration of use [BBW]: NSAIDs cause an increased risk of serious gastrointestinal inflammation, ulceration, bleeding, and perforation; elderly patients and patients with history of peptic ulcer disease and/or GI bleeding are at greater risk for serious GI events. These events may occur at any time during therapy and without warning

Answer 6

Abstral, Duragesic, Fentora

Answer 7

analgesic, opioid

Answer 8

IV: 50-100mcg LD with 25-50mcg/h titrated to pt need

Answer 9

Transdermal: 25-100mcg/h

Answer 10

Life-threatening respiratory depression Addiction, abuse, and misuse Risk of concomitant use with benzodiazepines or other CNS depressants

Answer 11

renal | hepatic

Answer 12

Norco, Vicodin, Lorcet

Answer 13

analgesic, opioid

Answer 14

PO: Hydrocodone 2.5-10 mg Q 4-6h. | Max APAP <4g/day

Answer 15

Severe CNS depression Severe respiratory depression [BBW]: Hepatotoxicity [BBW]: addiction, abuse, and overdose [BBW]: concomitant use with benzodiazepines or CNS depression

Answer 16

renal | hepatic

Answer 17

analgesic, opioid

Answer 18

PO: Initial: 2-4 mg Q 4-6h prn (tablets) parenteral doses are NOT equivalent; parenteral doses are up to 5 times more potent. Opiate naïve (lower doses to start)

Answer 19

[BBW]: Addiction, abuse misuse [BBW]: Life threatening respiratory depression and QT prolongation [BBW]: Risk when used with benzodiazepines or CNS depressants [BBW]: Prolonged maternal use of opioids during pregnancy can cause neonatal withdrawal syndrome in the newborn, which may be life-threatening if not treated. If prolonged opioid therapy is required in a pregnant woman, ensure treatment is available and warn of risk to the neonate [BBW]: Because of the risk of severe adverse effects with the epidural or intrathecal route, patients must be observed in a fully equipped and staffed environment for at least 24 hours after the initial dose

Answer 20

hepatic | renal

Answer 21

2.5 mg- 10 mg Q 3-6h prn (oral solution). parenteral doses are NOT equivalent; parenteral doses are up to 5 times more potent. Opiate naïve (lower doses to start)

Answer 22

IV: 0.2-1mg Q2-3h PRN

Answer 23

Motrin, Advil

Answer 24

Analgesic, NSAID

Answer 25

400-800mg 3-4x/d (max 3200mg/d)

Answer 26

Concurrent use with ketorolac (NSAID) or pentoxifylline Treatment of perioperative pain with CABG

Answer 27

200-400 mg Q 4-6h (max 1200mg/d)

Answer 28

Indocin; Tivorbex

Answer 29

analgesic, NSAID

Answer 30

PO: 20mg TID

Answer 31

PO: ER 75mg QD-BID

Answer 32

IV administration with neonates CABG surgery History of asthma, urticarial

Answer 33

Analgesic, NSAID

Answer 34

IV: 30mg single dose | or 30mg Q6h (120mg)

Answer 35

NSAID -->> High risk of bleeding, Active or history of peptic ulcer disease, Recent or history of GI bleeding or perforation, Concurrent ASA or other NSAID use Patients with advanced renal disease or risk of renal failure Prophylaxis before major surgery Suspected or confirmed cerebrovascular bleeding Hemorrhagic diathesis

Answer 36

hepatic | renal

Answer 37

Lidoderm, Xylocaine

Answer 38

anesthetic analgesic, local antiarrhythmic class IB

Answer 39

Apply 4.5 mg/kg/day divided in four doses Apply 5% patch to painful area for 12h QD

Answer 40

[BBW]: fatal events and young children Use with caution in patients with known drug sensitivities Accumulation of metabolites may be increased in renal dysfunction

Answer 41

Analgesic, COX2 Selective NSAID

Answer 42

5-15mg daily (max 15 mg/day)

Answer 43

[BBW]: NSAIDs cause an increased risk of serious adverse cardiovascular thrombotic events [BBW]: NSAIDs cause increased risk of serious GI inflammation, ulceration, bleeding, and perforation; elderly patients and patients with history of peptic ulcer disease and/or GI bleeding are at greater risk [BBW]: Use is contraindicated in the setting of coronary artery bypass graft surgery (CABG) Renal damage can occur (avoid use with severe impairment) Increase in blood pressure (monitor)

Answer 44

analgesic opioid

Answer 45

PO: 2.5mg Q8h titrated increase to achieve stable dose IV: 2.5-10mg Q 8-12h detoxification: PO: titrate to about 40mg/d in divided doses to achieve stabilization

Answer 46

[BBW]: Addiction, abuse misuse [BBW]: Life threatening respiratory depression and QT prolongation [BBW]: Risk when used with benzodiazepines or CNS depressants [BBW]: The concomitant use of methadone with all cytochrome P450 (CYP450) 3A4, 2B6, 2C19, 2C9, or 2D6 inhibitors

Answer 47

Duramorph, MS Contin

Answer 48

analgesic opioid

Answer 49

IV: 2.5-5mg Q3-4h

Answer 50

30-100mcg/kg as a single dose

Answer 51

[BBW]: Addiction, abuse misuse [BBW]: Life threatening respiratory depression and QT prolongation [BBW]: Risk when used with benzodiazepines or CNS depressants [BBW]: Patients should not consume alcoholic beverages or medication containing ethanol while taking ER capsules; ethanol may increase morphine plasma levels, resulting in fatal overdose [BBW]: Prolonged maternal use of opioids during pregnancy can cause neonatal withdrawal syndrome in the newborn, which may be life-threatening if not treated. If prolonged opioid therapy is required in a pregnant woman, ensure treatment is available and warn of risk to the neonate [BBW]: Because of the risk of severe adverse effects with the epidural or intrathecal route, patients must be observed in a fully equipped and staffed environment for at least 24 hours after the initial dose Caution in both renal and liver impairment—monitor patients

Answer 52

Naprosyn, Aleve

Answer 53

analgesic, NSAID

Answer 54

250-750mg BID (max1500mg/kg)

Answer 55

[BBW]: NSAIDs cause an increased risk of serious adverse cardiovascular thrombotic events, including fatal MI and stroke. [BBW]: NSAIDs cause an increased risk of serious gastrointestinal inflammation, ulceration, bleeding, and perforation (may be fatal); elderly patients and patients with history of peptic ulcer disease and/or GI bleeding are at greater risk for serious GI events. [BBW]: Use is contraindicated in the setting of coronary artery bypass graft surgery (CABG) Renal damage can occur (avoid use with severe impairment) Increase in blood pressure (monitor)

Answer 56

analgesic opioid

Answer 57

IR: 5-15mg Q4-6h prn (range 5-20mg/dose)

Answer 58

ER tab: 10mg Q12h ER caps: 9mg Q12h ER caps not equivalent to ER tab

Answer 59

Severe CNS depression Severe respiratory depression [BBW]: Hepatotoxicity [BBW]: addiction, abuse, and overdose [BBW]: concomitant use with benzodiazepines or CNS depression [BBW]: Swallow ER tablets whole; crushing, chewing, or dissolving can cause rapid release and a potentially fatal dose

Answer 60

renal | hepatic

Answer 61

Endocet, Percocet

Answer 62

analgesic/ opioid comb

Answer 63

IR: 5mg moderate pain 10 mg severe pain ER: 2 tab Q12h the second initial dose may be administered as early as 8 hours after the first initial dose if needed (Do not exceed 4 g/day of acetaminophen)

Answer 64

[BBW]: APAP--> acute liver failure--> liver transplant and death. Most of the cases of liver injury are associated with the use of acetaminophen at doses that exceed 4 g/day [BBW]: Serious, life-threatening, or fatal respiratory depression may occur. Monitor closely for respiratory depression, especially during initiation or dose escalation. Swallow oxycodone/acetaminophen ER whole; crushing, chewing, or dissolving ER can cause rapid release and absorption of a potentially fatal dose of oxycodone

Answer 65

hepatic | renal

Answer 66

Azo, Pyridium

Answer 67

urinary analgesic

Answer 68

200mg TID after meals for 2 days

Answer 69

190mg TID with or after meals up to 2 days

Answer 70

Reddish-orange discoloration of the urine occurs. Drug should be discontinued if skin or sclera develop a yellow color (may indicate drug accumulation due to impaired renal excretion).

Answer 71

Phenergan with Codeine

Answer 72

analgesic, opioid, antitussive, H1 antagonist 1st generation

Answer 73

PO: 5ml (Promethazine 6.25/10 mg codeine) Q4-6h (max 30ml/d)

Answer 74

[BBW]: Ultra-Rapid metabolism of codeine [BBW]: Respiratory depression in children [BBW]: Promethazine injection can cause severe tissue injury Coma or CNS depressants Altered cardiac conduction Anticholinergic side effects Extrapyramidal symptoms

Answer 75

renal | hepatic

Answer 76

25-100mg Q4-6h prn (400mg/d)

Answer 77

Paralytic ileus Severe respiratory depression Drug abuse and dependence Increase risk of seizures Serotonin syndrome

Answer 78

hepatic | renal

Answer 79

Suboxone, Bunavail, Zubsoly

Answer 80

opioid partial agonist/antagonist

Answer 81

initial: sublingual: Buprenorphine 2mg/ naloxone 0.5mg or Buprenorphine 4mg/ naloxone 1 mg may titrate dose

Answer 82

CNS and respiratory depression (opioid) Avoid for severe hepatic dysfunction

Answer 83

Eyzio, Narcan

Answer 84

opioid antagonist

Answer 85

IV, IM, SubQ: Initial 0.4 -2 mg Q 2 -3 minutes up to 10 mg total Intranasal: 4 mg (1 spray) as single dose in one nostril. May repeat in 3-5 min if respiratory depression persists

Answer 86

Shingles 800mg 5 x/day for 7-10 days. Initiate at earliest sign or symptom; most effective when initiated ≤72 hours after rash onset IV: 10-15 mg/kg/dose q8h for 10-14 days

Answer 87

neurotoxicity esp with renal failure

Answer 88

Prophylaxis: 75 mg QD Treatment: 75 mg BID

Answer 89

Treatment, initial episode: PO: 1 g BID for 7-10 days Treatment, recurrent episode: PO: 500 mg BID for 3 days or 1 g QD for 5 days. ``` Suppressive therapy (eg, for severe and/or frequent recurrences): PO: 500 mg or 1 g QD ```

Answer 90

Fosamax, Binosto

Answer 91

Bisphosphonate

Answer 92

Prophylaxis: 5mg qd or 35mg q wk treatment: 10mg qd or 70mg q wk

Answer 93

Esophageal abnormalities or high risk for adverse esophageal effects Hypocalcemia Inability to sit or stand upright for at least 30 minutes Atypical femur fractures

Answer 94

Bisphosphonate

Answer 95

PO: 150mg Q month IV: 3mg Q 3 months

Answer 96

Esophageal abnormalities or high risk for adverse esophageal effects Hypocalcemia Inability to sit or stand upright for at least 30 minutes

Answer 97

Bisphosphonate

Answer 98

IR: Prevention and treatment: 5 mg QD or 35 mg Q wk or 150 mg Q month DR: 35 mg Q wk

Answer 99

Esophageal abnormalities which delay esophageal emptying Hypocalcemia Inability to sit or stand for 30 minutes Atypical femur fractures Osteonecrosis of the jaw

Answer 100

IR: 0.25-0.5 mg 3x/d (max 4mg/day) ER: 0.5 -1 mg QD; titrate dose every 3 to 4 days in increments ≤1 mg/day (range: 3 to 6 mg/day)

Answer 101

Benzodiazepines have been associated with anterograde amnesia [BBW]: Concomitant use of benzodiazepines and opioids may result in profound sedation, respiratory depression, coma, and death

Answer 102

0.25-2mg BID (max 4mg/day)

Answer 103

[BBW]: Concomitant use of benzodiazepines and opioids may result in profound sedation, respiratory depression, coma, and death Anterograde amnesia CNS depression Potential for abuse

Answer 104

Valium, Diastat (rectal)

Answer 105

Anxiety PO, IM, IV: 2-10 mg 2-4x/ day PRN (note: IM has erratic absorption and is not recommended) Rectal: 0.2-0.5 mg/kg (max 20 mg)

Answer 106

Anterograde amnesia Drug abuse potential

Answer 107

Anxiety PO: 2-6mg in divided doses (10 mg/day) Agitation IV: 0.02-0.06 mg/kg every 2-6 hours

Answer 108

Severe respiratory depression Abuse potential [BBW]: Concomitant use of benzodiazepines and opioids may result in profound sedation, respiratory depression, coma, and death

Answer 109

Nayzilam (nasal)

Answer 110

Pre-op sedation IV: 0.1 to 0.35 mg/kg over 20 to 30 seconds Seizures (nasal): 5 mg (one spray) as a single dose in one nostril; may repeat dose in 10 minutes in alternate nostril based on response and tolerability

Answer 111

[BBW]: Has been associated with respiratory depression and respiratory arrest, especially when used for sedation in noncritical care settings Anterograde amnesia

Answer 112

7.5-30mg at bedtime

Answer 113

Pregnancy Benzodiazepines have been associated with anterograde amnesia [BBW]: Concomitant use of benzodiazepines and opioids may result in profound sedation, respiratory depression, coma, and death

Answer 114

antidepressant, SSRI

Answer 115

Insomnia | 25mg-200mg at bedtime

Answer 116

[BBW]: Antidepressants increase the risk of suicidal thinking and behavior in children, adolescents Serotonin syndrome Prolongs the QT/QTc interval

Answer 117

antidepressant SSRI

Answer 118

10mg QD for 7days | then increase to 20 then 40 QD

Answer 119

[BBW]: Suicidal thoughts and behavior Serotonin syndrome

Answer 120

antidepressant, SSRI

Answer 121

10-20mg QD (max 20mg/day)

Answer 122

[BBW]Antidepressants increase the risk of suicidal thinking and behavior in children, adolescents, and young adults Potentially life-threatening serotonin syndrome has occurred with serotonergic agents

Answer 123

renal | hepatic

Answer 124

Prozac, Sarafem

Answer 125

antidepressant, SSRI

Answer 126

5-20 mg QD (max 80mg/day)

Answer 127

[BBW]: Antidepressants increase the risk of suicidal thinking and behavior in children, adolescents, and young adults Potentially life-threatening serotonin syndrome (SS) has occurred with serotonergic agents When discontinuing antidepressant treatment that has lasted for >3 weeks, gradually taper the dose

Answer 128

antidepressant, SSRI

Answer 129

Depression IR: 20 mg QD; may increase dose based on response and tolerability in increments of 10 to 20 mg/day at intervals ≥1 week to a maximum of 50 mg/day CR: 25 mg QD; may increase based on response and tolerability in increments of 12.5 mg/day at intervals ≥1 week to a maximum of 62.5 mg/day

Answer 130

[BBW]: Antidepressants increase the risk of suicidal thinking and behavior in children, adolescents, and young adults Potentially life-threatening serotonin syndrome (SS) has occurred with serotonergic agents When discontinuing antidepressant treatment that has lasted for >3 weeks, gradually taper the dose Discontinuing paroxetine or switching to another antidepressant unless the benefits of therapy justify continuing treatment during pregnancy

Answer 131

renal | hepatic

Answer 132

antidepressant, SSRI

Answer 133

Depression | 50-100mg/day (max 200mg/day)

Answer 134

[BBW]: Antidepressants increase the risk of suicidal thinking and behavior in children, adolescents, and young adults Potentially life-threatening serotonin syndrome (SS) has occurred with serotonergic agents When discontinuing antidepressant treatment that has lasted for >3 weeks, gradually taper the dose

Answer 135

antidepressant, SSRI

Answer 136

Depression: 10-40 mg daily Due to the risk of QT prolongation, the maximum recommended daily dose for all indications is 40 mg. A lower maximum daily dose of 20 mg is recommended in patients >60 years of age, those with significant hepatic impairment, and patients who are concurrently receiving medications that significantly increase citalopram levels (eg, cimetidine, omeprazole) or known poor metabolizers of CYP2C19 substrates

Answer 137

[BBW]: Antidepressants increase the risk of suicidal thinking and behavior in children, adolescents, and young adults Potentially life-threatening serotonin syndrome (SS) has occurred with serotonergic agents Avoid use in CYP2C19 poor metabolizers

Answer 138

hepatic | renal

Answer 139

Pristiq, Khedezla

Answer 140

25-50 mg daily (some studies support titration up to 400 mg daily) When discontinuing antidepressants that has lasted for >3 weeks, gradually taper the dose (eg, over 2 to 4 weeks) to minimize withdrawal symptoms

Answer 141

[BBW]: suicidal thoughts and behavior Serotonin syndrome

Answer 142

renal | hepatic

Answer 143

Depression | 37.5-75mg QD (225mg/day)

Answer 144

[BBW]: Antidepressants increase the risk of suicidal thinking and behavior in children, adolescents Serotonin syndrome

Answer 145

hepatic | renal

Answer 146

antidepressant, SNRI

Answer 147

30-60mg QD (max 120mg/day)

Answer 148

[BBW]: Antidepressants increase the risk of suicidal thinking and behavior in children, adolescents, and young adults (18 to 24 years of age) with major depressive disorder and other psychiatric disorders Concurrent use of MAOI, TCA, or linezolid

Answer 149

hepatic | renal

Answer 150

Amitriptyline

Answer 151

Antidepressant, TCA

Answer 152

Depression: 25-50 mg QD at bedtime or in divided doses, can gradually increase to 100-300 mg daily

Answer 153

[BBW]: Antidepressants increase the risk of suicidal thinking and behavior in children, adolescents, and young adults (18 to 24 years of age) with major depressive disorder (MDD) and other psychiatric disorders Abrupt discontinuation or interruption of antidepressant therapy has been associated with a discontinuation syndrome Use with caution in patients with a history of cardiovascular disease; the risk of conduction abnormalities with this agent is high relative to other antidepressants Use with caution in patients at risk of seizures, including those with a history of seizures, head trauma, brain damage, alcoholism, or concurrent therapy with medications which may lower seizure threshold

Answer 154

antidepressant, TCA

Answer 155

Depression 25mg 3-4x/day (150mg/day)

Answer 156

[BBW]: Antidepressants increase the risk of suicidal thinking and behavior in children, adolescents, and young adults (18 to 24 years of age) with major depressive disorder (MDD) and other psychiatric disorders Abrupt discontinuation or interruption of antidepressant therapy has been associated with a discontinuation syndrome Use with caution in patients with a history of cardiovascular disease; the risk of conduction abnormalities with this agent is high relative to other antidepressants Use with caution in patients at risk of seizures, including those with a history of seizures, head trauma, brain damage, alcoholism, or concurrent therapy with medications which may lower seizure threshold Nortriptyline is metabolized hepatically; use with caution

Answer 157

Wellbutrin, Frofivo, Aplenzin (hydrobromide salt)

Answer 158

antidepressant, dopamine reuptake inhibitor

Answer 159

150mg daily (max 450mg/day) for HCl salt | conversions available for hydrobromide salt

Answer 160

[BBW]: Antidepressants increased the risk of suicidal thoughts and behavior May cause a dose-related risk of seizures. Use is contraindicated in patients with a history of seizures or certain conditions with high seizure risk

Answer 161

hepatic | renal

Answer 162

Antidepressant, alpha 2 antagonist

Answer 163

MDD: 15mg QD at bedtime increase dose in 15mg increments at intervals no less than Q 1-2wks (45mg/day)

Answer 164

[BBW]: Antidepressants increase the risk of suicidal thinking and behavior in children, adolescents, and young adults

Answer 165

Anti anxiety agent

Answer 166

10-15mg/day in 2-3 divided doses | max 60mg/day

Answer 167

Potentially life-threatening serotonin syndrome has occurred with serotonergic agents, including buspirone, particularly when used in combination with other serotonergic agents (eg, triptans, TCAs, fentanyl, lithium, tramadol, buspirone, St John's wort, tryptophan) or agents that impair metabolism of serotonin (eg, MAOIs intended to treat psychiatric disorders, other MAOIs [ie, linezolid and IV methylene blue])

Answer 168

renal | hepatic

Answer 169

antiarrhythmic class III

Answer 170

PO: 200-1600 mg/day in 1-2 divided doses

Answer 171

IV: 150-300mg infused over 10 min

Answer 172

Hypersensitivity to iodine [BBW]: Hepatotoxicity (may be fatal). Obtain baseline and periodic liver transaminases and discontinue or reduce dose if the increase exceeds 3 times normal or doubles in a patient with an elevated baseline [BBW]: Amiodarone can exacerbate arrhythmias; initiate therapy in a clinical setting where continuous ECGs and cardiac resuscitation are available [BBW]: Only indicated for patients with life-threatening arrhythmias because of risk of substantial toxicity. Alternative therapies should be tried first [BBW]: Pulmonary toxicity has been reported (including fatalities). Prior to initiation, obtain a baseline chest X-ray and pulmonary function tests, including diffusion capacity. Repeat every 3 to 6 months.

Answer 173

Lanoxin, Digitek

Answer 174

cardiac glycoside, antiarrhythmic class IV

Answer 175

PO:0125-0.25mg QD Total digitalizing dose: Initial: IV: 0.25 to 0.5 mg over several minutes, with repeat doses of 0.25 mg every 6 hours to a maximum of 1.5 mg over 24 hours

Answer 176

Correct electrolyte disturbances, especially hypokalemia or hypomagnesemia, prior to use and throughout therapy

Answer 177

Calan SR, Verelan, Verelan PM

Answer 178

``` antihypertensive, CCB antiarrhythmic, class IV ```

Answer 179

PO: IR: 80-160mg 3x/day SR: 180-480mg QD IV: 2.5-10mg over 2 min, repeat if necessary

Answer 180

Due to its negative inotropic and chronotropic effects, use is generally avoided in patients: 1- taking a BB 2- HFrEF 3- sinus node dysfunction, or 2nd or 3rd degree AV block unless a functioning pacemaker has been placed

Answer 181

antihypertensive, CCB

Answer 182

PO:2.5-10mg QD

Answer 183

The most common side effect is peripheral edema; occurs within 2 to 3 weeks of starting therapy

Answer 184

Cardizem, Cartia, Dilt-CD

Answer 185

antihypertensive, CCB

Answer 186

PO:60-360mg QD or BID depending on dosage form (480 mg/day) IV continuous infusion: 5-10 mg/hr; may increase up to 15 mg/hr PRN

Answer 187

Due to its negative inotropic and chronotropic effects, use is generally avoided in patients: 1- taking a BB 2- HfrEF 3- sinus node dysfunction or 2nd or 3rd degree AV block UNLESS a functioning pacemaker has been placed

Answer 188

Procardia, Adalet

Answer 189

antihypertensive, CCB

Answer 190

ER: 30-60mg daily (120-180 mg/day)

Answer 191

Concurrent use with strong CYP3A4 inducers Cardiogenic shock ST-elevation MI Avoid use with cirrhosis

Answer 192

antihypertensive/ CHF, ARB

Answer 193

pregnancy History of angioedema concurrent use of aliskiren

Answer 194

antihypertensive/CHF, ARB

Answer 195

40-160mg QD or BID (320mg/day)

Answer 196

pregnancy History of angioedema concurrent use of aliskiren

Answer 197

Antihypertensive/CHF, ARB

Answer 198

PO:150-330 QD

Answer 199

pregnancy | concurrent use of aliskiren

Answer 200

antihypertensive/CHF, ARB

Answer 201

PO: 50mg QD (100mg/day)

Answer 202

pregnancy History of angioedema concurrent use of aliskiren

Answer 203

PO:24/26mg, 49/52mg, 97/103mg BID

Answer 204

[BBW]: Avoid in pregnancy Concomitant use of (ACE) inhibitor is contraindicated; allow a 36-hour washout period when switching from or to an ACE inhibitor concomitant use of aliskiren angioedema hyperkalemia

Answer 205

renal | hepatic

Answer 206

Antihypertensive, CHF, ACE-I

Answer 207

5-40mg in 1 or 2 daily doses

Answer 208

History of angioedema Contraindicated in pregnancy

Answer 209

Vasotec, Epand (oral solution)

Answer 210

antihypertensive, CHF, ACE-I

Answer 211

PO: 2.5-40mg QD IV: 1.25mg/ dose over 5 min Q6h up to 5mg/dose

Answer 212

History of angioedema Contraindicated in pregnancy

Answer 213

Zestril, Prinivil

Answer 214

antihypertensive, CHF, ACE-I

Answer 215

HTN: PO: 10-40mg QD CHF: PO: 20-40mg QD

Answer 216

History of angioedema Contraindicated in pregnancy concurrent use of aliskiren

Answer 217

Antihypertensive, CHF, ACE-I

Answer 218

1.5-5mg QD (20mg/day)

Answer 219

History of angioedema Contraindicated in pregnancy concurrent use of aliskiren

Answer 220

antihypertensive, CHF, BB

Answer 221

CHF IR: 3.125-50mg BID ER: 10-80mg QD

Answer 222

BB therapy should not be withdrawn abruptly (particularly in patients with CAD), but gradually tapered to avoid acute tachycardia, hypertension, and/or ischemia

Answer 223

Labetalol, formerly Trandate, Normodyne

Answer 224

antyhypertensive, BB

Answer 225

PO: 100mg BID up to 200-800mg BID IV: 10-20mg IV push over 2 min at 10 min intervals until target SBP. 80mg/daily

Answer 226

Severe Bradycardia Heart Block greater than first degree Cardiogenic Shock Bronchial asthma Uncompensated cardiac failure Beta-blocker therapy should not be withdrawn abruptly

Answer 227

antihypertensive, BB

Answer 228

5 QD (40mg)

Answer 229

Severe bradycardia 2nd or 3rd AV block Decompensated heart failure Severe hepatic impairment

Answer 230

hepatic | renal

Answer 231

antihypertensive, BB

Answer 232

PO: IR: 40-320mg/day IV: 1-3mg bolus (640mg/day)

Answer 233

Severe sinus bradycardia Uncompensated CHF Beta-blocker therapy should not be withdrawn abruptly

Answer 234

Bisoprolol

Answer 235

Antihypertensive, CHF, BB, B1 selective

Answer 236

PO: initial 2.5-5mg (max 20mg/day)

Answer 237

Cardiogenic shock, cardiac failure, or first degree heart block, sinus bradycardia Beta-blocker therapy should not be withdrawn abruptly

Answer 238

renal | hepatic

Answer 239

antihypertensive, CHF, BB, B1 selective

Answer 240

PO:50-100mg QD (400mg/day)

Answer 241

Severe bradycardia 2nd or 3rd degree AV block Decompensated heart failure

Answer 242

antihypertensive, BB, B1 selective

Answer 243

PO: 25-100mg BID (200mg/day) IV: 1.25-5 mg Q 6-12 hours (450 mg/day)

Answer 244

Severe bradycardia 2nd or 3rd degree AV block Decompensated heart failure

Answer 245

antihypertensive, BB, selective

Answer 246

25-100mg QD

Answer 247

Severe sinus bradycardia Uncompensated CHF Beta-blocker therapy should not be withdrawn abruptly

Answer 248

Catapres, Duraclon "Epidural", Kapvay

Answer 249

antihypertensive, alpha 2 adrenergic agonist

Answer 250

PO: 0.1-0.2 mg BID (max 2.4mg/day) Transdermal patch: 0.1-0.3mg once weekly

Answer 251

Do not discontinue therapy abruptly. When discontinuing, taper gradually to decrease risk of rebound hypertension

Answer 252

antihypertensive, alpha 1 blocker

Answer 253

IR: 1 mg daily titrated up to 8 mg/day ER: 4 mg daily titrated up to 8 mg/day

Answer 254

Do not use in severe hepatic impairment (Child-Pugh class C) May cause orthostatic hypotension and syncope within a few hours after dosing, but may occur later; anticipate a similar effect if therapy is interrupted for a few days, if dosage is increased, or if another antihypertensive drug, PDE-5 inhibitor, or nitrates are introduced. Use with caution in patients with symptomatic orthostatic hypotension

Answer 255

Formerly known as Hytrin

Answer 256

antihypertensive, alpha1 antagonist

Answer 257

1mg daily at bedtime (20mg/day)

Answer 258

Floppy iris syndrome Hypotension/syncope

Answer 259

Alpha-1 antagonist

Answer 260

0.4 mg daily ½ hour after the same meal each day | Max 0.8mg daily

Answer 261

Angina Floppy iris syndrome Orthostatic hypotension/syncope

Answer 262

Apresoline

Answer 263

Antihypertensive, vaodilator

Answer 264

CHF: initial 25-50mg 3-4x/day in combination with isosorbide dinitrate 3 or 4 times daily (300 mg/day)

Answer 265

Coronary Artery disease May cause a drug-induced lupus-like syndrome

Answer 266

Amoxicillin

Answer 267

antibiotic, PCN

Answer 268

PO: 500mg-1g Q8-12h

Answer 269

A high percentage of patients with infectious mononucleosis develop an erythematous rash during amoxicillin therapy; avoid use in these patients

Answer 270

antibiotic, PCN

Answer 271

PO: IR: 500mg Q8h or 875mg Q12h ER:2g Q12h

Answer 272

differing content of clavulanic acid, not all formulations are interchangeable; use of an inappropriate product --> diarrhea or subtherapeutic clavulanic acid concentrations --> decreased clinical efficacy. Some products contain Phenylalanine

Answer 273

hepatic | renal

Answer 274

antibiotic, PCN

Answer 275

2:1 ratio. Dosage recommendations are expressed as total grams of ampicillin/sulbactam IM, IV: 1-2 g ampicillin as 1.5-3 g Unasyn® q6h

Answer 276

Hepatotoxicity has been reported. Monitor hepatic function at regular intervals

Answer 277

formerly Pen VK

Answer 278

antibiotic, PCN

Answer 279

PO:125-500mg Q6-8h

Answer 280

Prolonged use may result in fungal or bacterial superinfection

Answer 281

antibiotic, PCN

Answer 282

Adult doses are expressed as the combined amount of piperacillin and tazobactam. IV: 3.375 gm q6h or 4.5gm q6-8h (max 18 gm/day)

Answer 283

Sodium content (2.84 mEq per gram of piperacillin) should be considered in patients requiring sodium restriction Risk of nephrotoxicity is increased when piperacillin and tazobactam is given in combination with vancomycin

Answer 284

anitbiotic, Rifamycin

Answer 285

Hepatic encephalopathy: 550 mg BID IBS--diarrhea: 550 mg TID for 14 days Traveler’s Diarrhea: 200 mg TID for 3 days

Answer 286

Potentially significant interactions may exist, requiring dose or frequency adjustment, additional monitoring, and/or selection of alternative therapy.

Answer 287

antibiotic, sulfonamide

Answer 288

PO: 1-2 double strength tab Q12-24h

Answer 289

IV: 8-20mg/kg/day (TMP component) divided Q6-12h

Answer 290

megaloblastic anemia due to folate deficiency; infants <2 months (manufacturer's labeling), infants <4 weeks (CDC 2009); marked hepatic damage or severe renal disease (if patient not monitored); concomitant administration with dofetilide

Answer 291

Tobramycin, formerly Tobradex

Answer 292

antibiotic, aminoglycoside

Answer 293

Conventional: 1 - 2.5 mg/kg/dose Q8 -12 h; to ensure adequate peak concentrations early in therapy: 4-7 mg/kg/dose QD

Answer 294

[BBW]: May cause nephrotoxicity; usual risk factors include preexisting renal impairment, concomitant nephrotoxic medications, advanced age and dehydration. Discontinue treatment if signs of nephrotoxicity occur; renal damage is usually reversible. May cause neuromuscular blockade and respiratory paralysis; especially when given soon after anesthesia or neuromuscular blockers. [BBW]: May cause neurotoxicity; usual risk factors include preexisting renal impairment, concomitant neuro-/nephrotoxic medications, advanced age and dehydration. Ototoxicity is proportional to the amount of drug given and the duration of treatment. Tinnitus or vertigo may be indications of vestibular injury and impending bilateral irreversible damage. Discontinue treatment if signs of ototoxicity occur.

Answer 295

formerly Garamycin

Answer 296

antibiotic, aminoglycoside

Answer 297

Depends on condition Conventional: IM, IV: 3-5 mg/kg/day in divided doses Q 8h extended-interval dosing: IV: 5-7 mg/kg/day QD

Answer 298

[BBW]: May cause nephrotoxicity; usual risk factors include preexisting renal impairment, concomitant nephrotoxic medications, advanced age and dehydration. Discontinue treatment if signs of nephrotoxicity occur; renal damage is usually reversible. May cause neuromuscular blockade and respiratory paralysis; especially when given soon after anesthesia or neuromuscular blockers. [BBW]: May cause neurotoxicity; usual risk factors include preexisting renal impairment, concomitant neuro-/nephrotoxic medications, advanced age and dehydration. Ototoxicity is proportional to the amount of drug given and the duration of treatment. Tinnitus or vertigo may be indications of vestibular injury and impending bilateral irreversible damage. Discontinue treatment if signs of ototoxicity occur.

Answer 299

Formerly Levaquin

Answer 300

antibiotic, FQ

Answer 301

PO,IV: 250-750mg daily

Answer 302

``` [BBW]: Fluoroquinolones are associated with disabling and potentially irreversible serious adverse reactions that may occur together, including: tendinitis tendon rupture peripheral neuropathy and CNS effects. ``` Discontinue levofloxacin immediately and avoid use of fluoroquinolones in patients who experience any of these serious adverse reactions

Answer 303

Moxifloxacin, Avelox (IV)

Answer 304

antibiotic, FQ

Answer 305

PO, IV: 400mg QD

Answer 306

``` [BBW]: Fluoroquinolones are associated with disabling and potentially irreversible serious adverse reactions that may occur together, including: tendinitis tendon rupture peripheral neuropathy and CNS effects. ``` Discontinue moxifloxacin immediately and avoid use of fluoroquinolones in patients who experience any of these serious adverse reactions

Answer 307

antibiotic, FQ

Answer 308

PO: 250-750mg Q12h IV: 400mg Q12h

Answer 309

``` [BBW]: Fluoroquinolones are associated with disabling and potentially irreversible serious adverse reactions that may occur together, including: tendinitis tendon rupture peripheral neuropathy and CNS effects. ``` Discontinue ciprofloxacin immediately and avoid use of fluoroquinolones in patients who experience any of these serious adverse reactions

Answer 310

formerly Biaxin

Answer 311

antibiotic, macrolide

Answer 312

``` PO: 250-500mg Q12h or 1000mg (two 500mg ER) QD ```

Answer 313

Potentially significant interactions may exist with CYP3A4 metabolism including some statins History of QT prolongation or ventricular arrhythmia

Answer 314

renal | hepatic

Answer 315

antibiotic, macrolide

Answer 316

C. diff: 200mg BID for 10 days

Answer 317

Do not use for systemic infections; fidaxomicin systemic absorption is negligible.

Answer 318

antibiotic, macrolide

Answer 319

IV: CAP 500mg QD for at least 3 days, then 500mg PO QD to complete 7-10 days tx PO: 500mg on day 1 followed by 250mg QD x 4days

Answer 320

Altered cardiac conduction with potential QT prolongation Conflicting data on increased cardiovascular mortality

Answer 321

antibiotic, lincosamide

Answer 322

PO: 600-800 mg/day in 2 to 4 divided doses; up to 2400 mg/day in 4 divided doses may be given for severe infections IM, IV: 600-2700 mg/day in 2 to 4 divided doses, up to 4,800 mg/day IV (in divided doses) has been used in life-threatening infections maximum: 600 mg/dose IM

Answer 323

Vibramycin

Answer 324

antibiotic, tetracycline

Answer 325

Doxycycline is available as hyclate, monohydrate, and calcium salts. All doses are expressed as doxycycline base. Oral: 100 to 200 mg/day in 1 to 2 divided doses. IV: 100 mg every 12 hours

Answer 326

May cause tissue hyperpigmentation, tooth enamel hypoplasia, or permanent tooth discoloration (more common with long-term use, but observed with repeated, short courses) when used during tooth development (last half of pregnancy, infancy, and childhood ≤8 years of age IV form may cause phlebitis.

Answer 327

CoreMino, Minocin, Minolirra, Solodyn, Ximino Minocin (IV)

Answer 328

antibiotic, tetracycline derivative

Answer 329

IV: 200 mg for 1 dose, then 100 mg q12h, max 400mg/day PO: Initial: 200 mg for 1 dose; Maintenance: 100 mg every 12 hours; more frequent dosing intervals may be used (50 mg 4 times daily) Acne PO: 50 to 100 mg twice daily

Answer 330

Hyperpigmentation may occur in nails, bone, skin (including scar and injury sites), eyes, sclerae, thyroid, oral cavity, visceral tissue, and heart valves; skin and oral hyperpigmentation are independent of dose or administration duration. Do not use during pregnancy.

Answer 331

Bactroban, Centany

Answer 332

antiobiotic, topical

Answer 333

Apply to affected area three times per day Elimination of MRSA colonization: Intranasal: Approximately one-half of the ointment from the single-use tube should be applied into one nostril and the other half into the other nostril twice daily (morning and evening) for 5 days

Answer 334

some dosage forms may contain propylene glycol

Answer 335

Paroex, Peridex, Periogard

Answer 336

antibiotic, oral rinse

Answer 337

Swish and spit for 30 seconds with 15 ml twice daily after brushing teeth

Answer 338

Staining of oral surfaces

Answer 339

Macodantin, Macrobid, Furadantin

Answer 340

antibiotic, Miscellaneous

Answer 341

Nitrofurantoin is chemically available as nitrofurantoin macrocrystals and nitrofurantoin monohydrate. Two different preparations are available in the US: A combination of nitrofurantoin monohydrate and nitrofurantoin macrocrystals (Macrobid), which is typically dosed twice daily for the treatment of acute infections and a preparation that consists solely of nitrofurantoin macrocrystals (Furadantin, Macrodantin), which is typically dosed 4 times daily for the treatment of acute infections. Regardless of the formulation used, advise patients to administer with food to improve absorption. Different dosing for prophylaxis versus active treatment Macrodantin: 50-100mg once daily to 4 times per day (max 400 mg/day) Macrobid: 100mg 1-2 times daily

Answer 342

Due to the possibility of hemolytic anemia caused by immature erythrocyte enzyme systems (glutathione instability), the drug is contraindicated in pregnant patients at term (38 to 42 weeks gestation), during labor and delivery, or when the onset of labor is imminent; also contraindicated in neonates younger than 1 month of age. Contraindicated in patients with a previous history of cholestatic jaundice or hepatic dysfunction associated with nitrofurantoin.

Answer 343

antibiotic, Miscellaneous amebicide

Answer 344

Anaerobic infections; PO: 250-750 mg every 8-12 hours IV: 500-750 mg every 6-8 hours

Answer 345

[BBW]: Possibly carcinogenic based on animal data Concomitant alcohol consumption (disulfiram-like reactions); avoid alcoholic beverages or products containing propylene glycol during oral or injectable therapy and for at least 3 days after therapy. Avoid in pregnancy (1st trimester)

Answer 346

Vancocin, Firvanq

Answer 347

antibiotic, glycopeptide

Answer 348

IV: 15 to 20 mg/kg/dose (rounded to the nearest 250 mg; usual maximum: 2 g/dose initially) every 8 to 12 hours PO: 125 to 500 mg 4 times daily

Answer 349

Oral is ineffective for treating systemic infections due to lack of absorption [BBW]: The formulation of vancomycin injection containing the excipients, polyethylene glycol (PEG 400) and N-acetyl D-alanine (NADA), is not recommended for use during pregnancy. PEG 400 and NADA have caused fetal malformations in animal reproduction studies. If use of vancomycin is needed during pregnancy, use other available formulations of vancomycin

Answer 350

formerly Ancef

Answer 351

antibiotic, 1st generation cephalosporin

Answer 352

IV: 250mg-2g Q6-12h

Answer 353

Caution in patients with a history of seizure disorder; high levels, particularly in renal impairment, may increase risk of seizures

Answer 354

antibiotic, 1st generation cephalosporin

Answer 355

250 to 1,000 mg every 6 hours or 500 mg every 12 hours (maximum: 4 g/day)

Answer 356

Positive direct Coombs tests and acute intravascular hemolysis have been reported. If anemia develops, discontinue use and work up for drug-induced hemolytic anemia

Answer 357

formerly Mefoxin

Answer 358

antibiotic, 2nd generation cephalosporin

Answer 359

IM, IV: 1-2g Q6-8h

Answer 360

Pediatric ≥3 months of age, higher doses have been associated with an increased incidence of eosinophilia and elevated AST

Answer 361

formerly Zinacef or Ceftin

Answer 362

antibiotic, 2nd generation cephalosporin

Answer 363

PO: 250-500 BID IV: 750-1.5g Q8h

Answer 364

Tablets and oral suspension are not bioequivalent; do not substitute on a mg-per-mg basis

Answer 365

antibiotic, cephalosporin, 3rd generation

Answer 366

PO: 300mg BID or | 600mg QD for 5-7days

Answer 367

Cases of reddish stools have been reported with cefdinir with iron-containing products due to the formation of a nonabsorbable complex in the GI tract

Answer 368

Formerly Rocephin

Answer 369

antibiotic, 3rd generation cephalosporin

Answer 370

IM, IV: 1-2g Q12-24h

Answer 371

Hyperbilirubinemic neonates Concurrent use with IV calcium containing solutions in neonates

Answer 372

antibiotic, 4th generation cephalosporin

Answer 373

IV: 1-2g Q8-12h

Answer 374

Neurotoxicity: Severe neurological reactions reported, including seizures and nonconvulsive status epilepticus. Risk may be increased with renal impairment; ensure dose adjusted for renal function and discontinue therapy if neurotoxicity develops

Answer 375

antibiotic, oxazolidinone

Answer 376

PO: 400-600mg Q12h IV: 600mg Q12h

Answer 377

Serotonin syndrome: Symptoms of agitation, confusion, hallucinations, hyperreflexia, myoclonus, shivering, and tachycardia may occur with concomitant proserotonergic drugs (ex. SSRI, SNRI, tramadol) agents which reduce linezolid's metabolism, or in patients with carcinoid syndrome. Avoid use in such patients unless clinically appropriate and under close monitoring

Answer 378

antibiotic, carbapenem

Answer 379

IV:500mg Q6h | or 1-2g Q8h

Answer 380

Use with caution in patients with renal impairment; dosage adjustment required with CrCl ≤50 mL/min. Increased seizure risk and thrombocytopenia have been reported in patients with renal impairment.

Answer 381

anticoagulant, factor Xa inhibitor

Answer 382

Nonvalvular atrial fibrillation: PO: 5 mg BID unless patient has any 2 of the following: Age ≥80 years wt ≤60 kg SCr ≥1.5 mg/dL then reduce dose to 2.5 mg BID

Answer 383

[BBW]: Premature discontinuation of any oral anticoagulant, including apixaban, in the absence of adequate alternative anticoagulation increases the risk of thrombotic events [BBW]: Spinal or epidural hematomas resulting in long-term or permanent paralysis may occur with neuraxial anesthesia (epidural or spinal anesthesia) or spinal/epidural puncture

Answer 384

renal | hepatic

Answer 385

anticoagulant, factor Xa inhibitors

Answer 386

PO: 60mg QD

Answer 387

If CrCl >95ml/min do not use [BBW]: Premature discontinuation of edoxaban, in the absence of adequate alternative anticoagulation increases the risk of ischemic events

Answer 388

anticoagulant, factor Xa inhibitor

Answer 389

2.5-20mg QD-BID with food (max 20mg QD)

Answer 390

Avoid use with CrCl < 30ml/min or in severe hepatic failure Bleeding [BBW]: As with any oral anticoagulant in the absence of adequate alternative anticoagulation, an increased risk of thrombotic events (including stroke) may occur with premature discontinuation of rivaroxaban

Answer 391

renal and hepatic

Answer 392

anticoagulant, vitamin K antagonist

Answer 393

Hemorrhagic tendencies Recent or potential surgery Severe uncontrolled HTN Pregnancy

Answer 394

anticoagulant, direct thrombin inhibitor

Answer 395

[BBW]: Upon premature discontinuation, the risk of thrombotic events is increased. If dabigatran must be discontinued for a reason other than pathological bleeding or completion of a course of therapy, consider the use of another anticoagulant during the time of interruption

Answer 396

anticoagulant, LMWH

Answer 397

px: 30mg BID or 40mg QD SQ tx: 1mg/kg BID or 1.5mg/kg QD SQ

Answer 398

Thrombocytopenia with positive test for antiplatelet antibodies with enoxaparin use Hypersensitivity to pork products Active major bleeding,

Answer 399

anticoagulant

Answer 400

Thromboembolism prophylaxis 5000 units every 8-12 hours subcutaneously Treatment of thromboembolism 80 units/kg IV push followed by continuous infusion of 18 units/kg/hour

Answer 401

Severe thrombocytopenia Uncontrolled active bleeding

Answer 402

Compro (rectal) Oral formerly known as Compazine

Answer 403

antipsychotic, 1st generation, antiemetic

Answer 404

Nausea and Vomiting PO: 5-10 mg three to four times per day (max 40 mg/day) IV: 2.5-10 mg three to four times per day Rectal: 25 mg bid

Answer 405

[BBW]: Elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis treated with antipsychotic drugs are at an increased risk of death Coma or CNS depressants Altered cardiac conduction Anticholinergic side effects Extrapyramidal symptoms

Answer 406

antipsychotic, 1st generation

Answer 407

Psychosis: 0.5 to 5 mg in divided doses Schizophrenia: IM: 2 to 5 mg in divided doses (20 mg/day)

Answer 408

[BBW]: Increased mortality in elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis May cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), including pseudoparkinsonism, acute dystonic reactions, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia

Answer 409

antipsychotic, atypical 2nd generation

Answer 410

Bipolar Depression Initial 20 mg at bedtime, titrated up to 120 mg/day Schizophrenia Initial: 40 mg daily increased to 160 mg/day

Answer 411

[BBW]: Suicidal thoughts and behaviors Increased mortality in elderly patients with dementia related psychosis Use with caution in patients at risk of seizures Guidelines recommend gradually tapering antipsychotics to avoid physical withdrawal symptoms

Answer 412

renal | hepatic

Answer 413

Zyprexa, Zyprexa Relprevv

Answer 414

Antipsychotic, atypical 2nd generation

Answer 415

Short-acting injection: IM: Initial dose: 10 mg PO: Initial: 5 mg in the evening; adjust as tolerated to usual range of 5 to 20mg daily (30mg/day) Extended-release injection: IM: Note: Establish tolerance to oral olanzapine prior to changing to extended-release injection. Maximum dose: 300 mg every 2 weeks or 405 mg every 4 weeks

Answer 416

[BBW]: Elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis treated with antipsychotics are at an increased risk of death compared to placebo [BBW]: Sedation (including coma) and delirium (including agitation, anxiety, confusion, disorientation) have been observed following use of Zyprexa Relprevv

Answer 417

(Risperdal, Risperdal Consta "IM", Perseris "SQ")

Answer 418

Antipsychotic, atypical 2nd generation

Answer 419

Oral: 0.25-3 mg daily (16mg/day) IM: Initial: 25 mg every 2 weeks (50mg) SQ: Usual dose: 90 or 120 mg once monthly

Answer 420

[BBW]: Elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis treated with antipsychotics are at an increased risk of death compared to placebo Increased risk of hyperglycemia and metabolic changes

Answer 421

hepatic | renal

Answer 422

Antipsychotic, atypical 2nd generation

Answer 423

Oral: 20-40mg twice daily with food. (80-100mg twice daily depending on indication IM: 10 mg to 20 mg administered as required up to a maximum dose of 40 mg per day

Answer 424

[BBW]: Elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis treated with antipsychotics are at an increased risk of death compared to placebo Should be avoided in combination with other drugs that are known to prolong the QTc interval Severe cutaneous adverse reactions

Answer 425

Abilify, Abilify Maintena IM

Answer 426

Antipsychotic, Atypical, 2nd generation

Answer 427

PO: 10-15mg daily (30mg/day) IM, ER: 400mg once monthly (doses should be separated by ≥26 days)

Answer 428

[BBW]: Antidepressants increase the risk of suicidal thinking and behavior in children, adolescents, and young adults (18-24 years of age) with major depressive disorder and other psychiatric disorders [BBW]: Elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis treated with antipsychotics are at an increased risk of death compared to placebo

Answer 429

Clozaril, FazaClo, Versacloz

Answer 430

Antipsychotic, Atypical, 2nd generation

Answer 431

12.5mg daily or twice daily increased to 300-450 mg/day (max dose 900mg.day)

Answer 432

[BBW]: Orthostatic hypotension, bradycardia, syncope, and cardiac arrest have been reported [BBW] Fatalities due to myocarditis and cardiomyopathy have been reported Severe, life-threatening and sometimes fatal hepatotoxicity [BBW]: Clozapine has caused severe neutropenia, defined as an absolute neutrophil count (ANC) less than 500/mm3. Severe neutropenia can lead to serious infection and death. Prior to initiating treatment, a baseline ANC must be ≥1,500/mm3. Patients must have regular ANC monitoring [BBW] Seizures have been associated with clozapine use in a dose-dependent manner [BBW]: Elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis treated with antipsychotics are at an increased risk of death compared to placebo

Answer 433

antimanic Agent

Answer 434

Monitor serum concentrations and clinical response (efficacy and toxicity) to determine proper dose Bipolar Disorder 600-900 mg BID-TID initially then titrated to 900 to 1800 mg/day

Answer 435

Severe cardiovascular or renal disease Concurrent use with diuretics Caution with sodium intake or high sodium excretion Concurrent use with ACE-Inhibitors or (ARBs) Use with caution in patients with thyroid disease; hypothyroidism may occur with treatment

Answer 436

Bonine, Feormerly Antivert

Answer 437

Antihistamine/antiemetic, Histamine 1 antagonist, first generation

Answer 438

Vertigo: 25-100mg/day in divided doses Motion Sickness: 25 to 50 mg 1 hour before travel, repeat dose every 24 hours if needed

Answer 439

CNS depression Caution in patients with glaucoma

Answer 440

Antihistamine/antiemetic, Histamine 1 antagonist, first generation

Answer 441

Oral or Rectal: 25 mg at bedtime or 12.5 mg before meals and at bedtime IV, IM: 25 mg, may repeat in 2 hours when necessary; switch to oral route as soon as feasible

Answer 442

[BBW]: Respiratory depression in children [BBW]: Promethazine injection can cause severe tissue injury Coma or CNS depressants Altered cardiac conduction Anticholinergic side effects Extrapyramidal symptoms

Answer 443

Antihistamine, Second generation H1 Histamine Antagonist

Answer 444

10mg daily | Up to 40mg daily depending on condition and response

Answer 445

May cause CNS depression, which may impair physical or mental abilities

Answer 446

Antihistamine, H1 antagonist | Antihistamine/ Antiemetic, Histamine H1 Antagonist

Answer 447

60mg twice daily or 180mg daily Antiemetic; IM: 25 to 100 mg/dose Anxiety; PO 50-100 mg four times daily

Answer 448

Use caution in patients with severe renal dysfunction based on published studies and not manufacturer data. Precaution in renal failure patients, manufacturer does not provide recommendation but some studies indicate a lower dose is necessary Caution in patients with glaucoma QT prolongation/torsades de pointes

Answer 449

Antihistamine, Histamine H1 Antagonist

Answer 450

PO: 5mg QD

Answer 451

May cause CNS depression, which may impair physical or mental abilities Rebound pruritus may occur within several days after stopping cetirizine

Answer 452

Gastrointestinal, Prokinetic, antiemetic

Answer 453

PO: 10-20 mg 4 times per day IV: 10-20mg over 1-2 minutes

Answer 454

Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) Hyperprolactinemia Neuroleptic malignant syndrome [BBW]: May cause tardive dyskinesia; the risk of developing tardive dyskinesia increases with duration of treatment and total cumulative dose

Answer 455

Antiemetic, Selective 5-HT3 Receptor Antagonist

Answer 456

IV: 8-16 mg/day

Answer 457

QT prolongation (increase risk > 16mg at one dose) Serotonin syndrome

Answer 458

Antimigraine, serotonin 5-HT receptor agonists

Answer 459

Oral: 25-100mg as a single dose. May repeat dose in 2 hours. (200mg/day) SQ: 6 mg (0.5 mL) subcutaneously (SC) with autoinjector; may repeat in 1 hour or more (12mg/24 hours)

Answer 460

Cerebrovascular syndromes/stroke Hemiplegic or basilar migraine Ischemic heart disease Uncontrolled hypertension Severe hepatic impairment Use within 24 hours of ergotamine derivatives or another 5HT1 agonist Concurrent use with MAOI

Answer 461

Gablofen, Lioresal

Answer 462

skeletal muscle relaxant

Answer 463

Oral: 5 mg three times daily, then 10 mg three times daily until optimal response. Range 40-80 mg daily Intrathecal: 50 mcg for 1 dose every 4-8 hours. Do not exceed 100 mcg/24 hours

Answer 464

[BBW] Abrupt withdrawal of intrathecal baclofen, has resulted in sequelae, multiple organ-system failure, and death. Prevention of abrupt discontinuation requires careful attention to programming and monitoring of infusion system, refill scheduling and procedures, and pump alarms

Answer 465

skeletal muscle relaxant

Answer 466

250-350 mg three times daily and at bedtime

Answer 467

Use with caution in patients with a history of drug abuse or acute alcoholism; potential for drug dependency exists. Tolerance, psychological and physical dependence to carisoprodol (and its metabolite, meprobamate) may occur with prolonged use Limit use to 2 to 3 weeks

Answer 468

Amrix, Fexmid

Answer 469

skeletal muscle relaxant

Answer 470

ER: 15 mg once daily; some patients may require up to 30 mg once daily IR: 5 mg three times daily; may increase up to 10 mg 3 times daily if needed

Answer 471

``` Concurrent use of MAOI CHF Heart block Arrythmias Acute recovery after MI Hyperthyroidism ```