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ESA 1 > TOB > Flashcards

TOB Flashcards

1
Q

Give the two types of striated muscle

A

Skeletal and cardiac

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2
Q

Give the differences between cardiac and skeletal muscle

A

Cardiac - one or two CENTRAL nuclei, intercalated discs, diad formation
Skeletal - multi nucleated, peripheral nuclei, triad formation, epimysium > perimysium > endomysium

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3
Q

What is the role of calcium in muscle contraction?

A

Binds to the troponin complex to move tropomyosin away from the myosin binding site on the action filament

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4
Q

Give the four stages of muscle contraction

A

1) Myosin head is attached to the myosin binding site on the actin filament
2) ATP binds to myosin head to dissociate from actin filament
3) ATP is hydrolysed to ADP + Pi to flex myosin head
4) Pi is released and myosin head binds to new site - power stroke

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5
Q

Name the three types of cartilage

A

Hyaline, elastic, fibrocartilage

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6
Q

Where do we find elastic cartilage?

A

Eustachian tube, pinna of the ear and epiglottis

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7
Q

Where do we find hyaline cartilage?

A

Costal cartilages, articulate cartilages and as the template for bone ossification

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8
Q

Where do we find fibrocartilage?

A

At the joints e.g. knee meniscus

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9
Q

What type of collagen is found in cartilage?

A

Type II

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10
Q

How do fibroblasts contribute to cartilage production?

A

They migrate from the perichondrium to the inner extracellular matrix and differentiate into chondroblasts and then chondrocytes to secrete type II collagen and contribute to appositional growth

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11
Q

What is the function of cortical and cancellous bone?

A

Cortical bone surrounds the edge of the bone and contributes to strength.
Cancellous bone is found in the centre and reduces the weight of the bone

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12
Q

What is the cutting cone?

A

This is the process of new bone formation by a leading group of osteoclasts to resorb bone and a lagging group of osteoblasts to lay it down again

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13
Q

What are Volkmann and Haversian canals?

A

Both carry arteries within the bone, Haversian in the same direction as the osteons and Volkmann’s perpendicular to the osteons

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14
Q

Describe the fracture healing process

A

1) Haematoma - the arteries leak blood into the cancellous bone and phagocytes remove dead tissue
2) Fibrocartilage plug - a soft callus of hyaline cartilages extends between the opposing edges of the broken bone
3) Bony callus - ossification of the hyaline sleeve creates a rigid union between the bone
4) Remodelling - the normal processes work to strengthen and remodel the new bone

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15
Q

Define an exocrine gland

A

A group of tissues that all work to create and secrete a substance into the surrounding space

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16
Q

Give the two broad categories of exocrine secretion

A

Serous - watery and thin

Mucous - high concentration of mucins and viscous

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17
Q

Describe the ductal-acinar system of exocrine glands

A

The acinar cells are found with myoepithelial cells surrounding them and produce substances to secrete into the lumen.
The ductal cells modify the substance and allow passage out of the gland

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18
Q

Describe the three types of exocrine secretion

A

Apocrine - the substance is secreted in a membrane bound vesicle
Merocrine - the substance is bound by vesicles in the cell and this merges with the plasma membrane to secrete the substance
Holocrine - complete degradation of the cell to secrete the substance

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19
Q

What is a serous demilume?

A

This is artefact of the fixing process that is caused by the breakdown of acinar cells and leakage of serous fluid

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20
Q

What part of the nerve is found in the white and grey matter?

A

White - myelinated axons

Grey - cell bodies and synaptic junctions

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21
Q

What part of the spine is the parasympathetic outflow?

A

Cervical and sacral

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22
Q

What part of the spine has sympathetic outflow?

A

Thoracolumbar - T1-L2

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23
Q

What is the sympathetic trunk?

A

The sympathetic fibres have short pre-ganglionic fibres which leads to a series of ganglia in the paravertebral column ascending the spine from the thoracolumbar outflow

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24
Q

What is the difference between a Schwann cell and an oligodendrocyte?

A

A Schwann cell myelinates the peripheral axons and many are found on one axon whereas oligodendrocytes are in the CNS and one can myelinate many axons

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25
Q

What is Wallerian degeneration?

A

The phagocytic breakdown of the distal portion of a severed axon. The endoneurium is preserved to allow for future axonal growth

26
Q

What is chromatolysis?

A

This is the retention of cell contents within the cell body of a severed axon and subsequent enlargement of the cell body

27
Q

At what rate do severed nerves regrow?

A

1-2mm/day for small axons and up to 5mm/day for large axons

28
Q

What type of connective tissue is found in the dermis?

A

Dense irregular

29
Q

What structures are found within the dermis?

A

Vasculature, sweat glands, nerves and arrector pili muscles

30
Q

Why does the dermis interdigitate with the epidermis?

A

To prevent the effects of shearing forces in removing the epidermis. Increase friction to transverse forces

31
Q

Name the four layers of the epidermis

A

Stratum corneum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum and stratum basale from superficial to deep

32
Q

What is the regeneration time of keratinocytes in the stratum corneum?

A

30 days

33
Q

Where are melanocytes found in the epidermis?

A

Stratum basale

34
Q

What are Langerhans cells and where are they found?

A

These are the professional antigen presenting cells of the epidermis, found in the stratum granulosum

35
Q

What is allergic dermatitis?

A

Hypersensitivity of the Langerhans cells to a specific antigen resulting in reddening of the skin directly above

36
Q

Why is malignant melanoma likely to metastasise?

A

The melanocytes sit on the border of the epidermis and the dermis so it is easy to penetrate the dermis and the arteries found here

37
Q

Give the functions of connective tissue

A 
Provide form to the body
Defend against infection
Provide a diffusion medium
Aid in injury repair
Attach bones and muscles
38
Q

What forms the extracellular matrix of connective tissue?

A

Ground substance of hyaluronic acid and proteoglycan aggregates with glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) attached to it. The GAGs are negatively charged to attract water to form a hydrated gel

39
Q

Give the structural types of connective tissue

A

Loose and dense, with dense being subdivided into regular and irregular

40
Q

What type of collagen is found in bone ?

A

Type I

41
Q

What type of collagen is found in lymph nodes?

A

Type III aka reticulin

42
Q

What type of collagen is found in the basement membrane?

A

Type IV

43
Q

Describe the structure of type I collagen

A

Three interwoven alpha chains forming a triple helix in which every third amino acid is a glycine

44
Q

Endochondral ossification occurs in which cartilage type and in which kind of bones?

A

Hyaline cartilage and long bones

45
Q

Intramembranous ossification occurs in what type of bones?

A

Flat bones mostly found in the skull

46
Q

Describe the process of endochondral ossification

A

An arterial supply is established at the centre of the hyaline cartilage called the primary ossification centre and calcification begins. Secondary ossification centres are then found at the epiphyseal plates and establishes the continuous growth into adulthood

47
Q

What will be the effect of an excess growth hormone?

A

If before epiphyseal plate fusion, the height will be increased because of femur length mostly. If after plate fusion, the flat bones will undergo excessive appositional growth and the facial bones will become more prominent (acromegaly)

48
Q

Give a complication of acromegaly

A

The growth of the anterior pituitary can impinge on the optic chiasm and cause bitemporal hemianopia

49
Q

What is the affect of sex hormones on bone growth?

A

Sex hormones drive epiphyseal growth and an excess will cause premature fusion and a short stature

50
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of osteogenesis imperfecta

A

This is a defect in type I collagen that will present with multiple fractures and varus deformity of the femur. There may also be hearing loss due to the malformation of the auditory ossicles

51
Q

What is the difference between osteoporosis and osteopenia?

A

Both are bone density deficits. Osteopenia is 1.5 std deviations below the mean and osteoporosis is 2.5 std deviations below the mean

52
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of achondroplasia

A

This is a congenital problem with bone ossification. The trabecular bone does not extend beyond the epiphyseal growth plates and so the calcified columns are not resorbed and results in dwarfism

53
Q

What is the difference between rickets and osteomalacia?

A

Deficiency in vitamin D in children and adults respectively

54
Q

Give the three layers of the mucosa

A

Epithelium, lamina propria and muscularis mucosae

55
Q

Define the limit of resolution

A

The minimum distance at which two separate entities can be identified as such

56
Q

What is the standard diameter of an erythrocyte?

A

7.2nm

57
Q

What is the glycocalyx and what is its function?

A

The lipoproteins expressed on the surface of the cell

1) aid in cell communication
2) adherence to tissues
3) regulation of cellular uptake

58
Q

Give some examples of biopsy types

A

Needle, curettage, smear, direct incision, endoscopic and transvacular

59
Q

Describe the fixing process for a biopsy

A

Fix with formaldehyde
Dehydrate with ethanol
Add xylene and toluene
Rehydrate

60
Q

What colour do haematoxylin and eosin stain things?

A

Haemotoxylin will stain acidic things (e.g. Genes) violet

Eosin will stain alkaline things (e.g. Proteins) red

61
Q

When would we use a Ziehl-Neelsen stain?

A

In bacteria that show acid-fastness such as mycobacterium tuberculosis.

62
Q

When would we use Masson’s trichrome stain?

A

When we need to differentiate cells from connective tissue as in liver cirrhosis

ESA 1 (4 decks)

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