Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

D TO REVISE - PHASE 3A > TO REVISE WOMENS HEALTH > Flashcards

TO REVISE WOMENS HEALTH Flashcards

1
Q

UTIs IN PREGNANCY
what antibiotics are used to treat UTIs in pregnancy?

A

1st and 2nd trimester = nitrofurantoin

3rd trimester = amoxicillin or cefalexin if penicillin allergic

All are for 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

HYPEREMESIS
What is the diagnostic triad for hyperemesis gravidarum?

A

Triad –
- >5% weight loss compared to before pregnancy
- Dehydration
- Electrolyte imbalance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

PLACENTA PRAEVIA
What are some risk factors for placenta praevia?

A
  • Embryos more likely to implant on lower segment scar from previous c-section
  • Multiple pregnancy
  • Multiparity
  • Previous praevia
  • Assisted conception
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

PLACENTAL ABRUPTION
What are the major risk factors for placental abruption?
What are some other risk factors?

A

ABRUPTION
Abruption previously
Blood pressure (HTN)
Ruptured membranes
Uterine injury
Polyhydramnios
Twins/multiple pregnancy
Infection (chorioamnionitis)
Older age (>35)
Narcotic use (cocaine)

+ smoking, IUGR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

VASA PRAEVIA
What are some risk factors for vasa praevia?

A
  • Placenta praevia
  • Multiple pregnancy
  • IVF pregnancy
  • Bilobed placentas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

PRE-ECLAMPSIA

What are the…

i) high risk
ii) moderate risk

factors for pre-eclampsia?

A

i) Pre-existing HTN, previous pre-eclampsia, CKD, autoimmune (SLE, T1DM)
ii) Nulliparity, multiple pregnancy, >10y pregnancy interval, FHx, >40y, BMI >35kg/m^2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

IUGR
What are some maternal causes of IUGR?

A
  • Chronic disease (HTN, cardiac, CKD)
  • Substance abuse (cocaine, alcohol) smoking, previous SGA baby
  • Autoimmune
  • Low socioeconomic status
  • > 40
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

OLIGOHYDRAMNIOS
What are some causes of oligohydramnios?

A
  • PROM or SROM
  • Renal agenesis (Potter’s syndrome) or non-functional kidneys
  • Placental insufficiency (pre-eclampsia, post-term gestation) as blood redistributed to brain so reduced urine output
  • Genetic anomalies
  • Obstructive uropathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

POLYHYDRAMNIOS
What are the causes of polyhydramnios?

A
  • Increased foetal urine production (maternal DM), twin-twin transfusion, foetal hydrops
  • Foetal inability to swallow/absorb amniotic fluid (GI tract obstruction e.g. duodenal atresia, foetal neuro/muscular issues)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

INFECTIONS + PREGNANCY
What are the risks of Varicella zoster?

A
  • Maternal risk = 5x greater risk of pneumonitis
  • Foetal varicella syndrome = skin scarring, microphthalmia, limb hypoplasia, microcephaly + learning difficulties
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

BREECH
What are some causes/risk factors for breech presentation?

A
  • Idiopathic
  • Prematurity as baby may not have turned itself yet
  • Previous breech
  • Uterine abnormalities (bicornuate uterus), fibroids
  • Placenta praevia
  • Foetal abnormalities (CNS malformation
  • Multiple pregnancy
  • Poly/oligohydramnios
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

UTERINE RUPTURE
What are some risk factors for uterine rupture?

A
  • VBAC
  • Previous uterine surgery
  • Increased BMI
  • High parity
  • Congenital uterine abnormalities
  • Oxytocin use
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

PPH
What are the risk factors for PPH?

A
  • Before birth = previous PPH, APH, twins/triplets, pre-eclampsia, obesity, polyhydramnios
  • Labour = prolonged, c-section, perineal tear or episiotomy, macrosomia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

HYPEREMESIS
What are some associations of hyperemesis gravidarum?

A
  • nulliparity,
  • hyperthyroid,
  • obesity,
  • decreased in smokers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

HELLP
what are the risk factors for HELLP?

A

➢ White ethnicity
➢ Maternal age >35 yrs.
➢ Obesity
➢ Chronic hypertension
➢ DM
➢ Autoimmune disorders
➢ Abnormal placentation and multiple gestation
➢ Previous pregnancy with preeclampsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

HELLP
what is the management for HELLP?

A

➢ Seizure prophylaxis (magnesium sulfate), IV dexamethasone, labetalol. IM beclametasone
when patient <36wks
➢ Delivery is definitive treatment (should be done when patient is 37+ wks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

LOW BIRTH WEIGHT
what are the causes of low birth weight?

A

➢ Preterm birth (before 37 weeks gestation)
➢ Genetics (could be chromosomal abnormalities…)
➢ Uteroplacental insufficiency
➢ Multiple pregnancy
➢ Substance abuse (smoking, drinking alcohol, illicit drug) causing IUGR
➢ Chronic conditions and infections (hypertension, rubella, CMV, syphilis, toxoplasmosis, BV…)
➢ Medications (sodium valproate, ramipril, warfarin…)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

UTEROPLACENTAL INSUFFICIENCY
what are the causes of uteroplacental insufficiency?

A

➢Abnormal trophoblast invasion:
▪ Pre-eclampsia
▪ Placenta accreta
➢ Abruption
➢ Infarction
➢ Placenta previa
➢ Tumor: chorioangiomas
➢ Abnormal umbilical cord or cord insertion (i.e., two vessel cord)
➢ Maternal diabetes
➢ Maternal hypertension
➢ Anemia
➢ Smoking
➢ Drug abuse (cocaine, heroin, methamphetamine)
➢ Antiphospholipid syndrome
➢ Renal disease
➢ Advanced age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

UTIs IN PREGNANCY
what are the antenatal risk factors for UTIs?

A
  • previous infection
  • renal stones
  • diabetes mellitus
  • immunosuppression
  • polycystic kidneys
  • congenital abnormalites of renal tract
  • neuropathic bladder
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

UTIs IN PREGNANCY
which antibiotics should be avoided in the third trimester and why?

A
  • nitrofurantoin - risk of haemolytic anaemia in newborn with G6PD
  • sulfonamides - risk of kernicterus in newborn due to displacement of protein binding of bilirubin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

UTIs IN PREGNANCY
which antibiotics are contraindicated in pregnancy?

A
  • tetracyclines - cause permanent staining of teeth and problems with skeletal development
  • ciprofloxacin - causes skeletal problems
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

FIBROIDS
What are some risk factors for fibroids?

A
  • Afro-Caribbean
  • Obesity
  • Early menarche
  • FHx
  • Increasing age (until menopause)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

PCOS
What diagnostic criteria is used in PCOS?

A

Rotterdam criteria (≥2) –
- Oligo- or anovulation (may present as oligo- or amenorrhoea)
- Hyperandrogenism (biochemical or clinical)
- Polycystic ovaries (≥12) or ovarian volume >10cm^3 on USS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

PCOS
What are some associations and complications of PCOS?

A
  • DM, CVD + hypercholesterolaemia
  • Obstructive sleep apnoea, MH issues, sexual problems
  • Endometrial hyperplasia or cancer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

PCOS
What are the PCOS risk factors for endometrial cancer?
How is the risk of endometrial cancer managed in PCOS?

A
  • Obesity, DM, insulin resistance, amenorrhoea
  • Mirena coil for continuous endometrial protection
  • Induce withdrawal bleed AT LEAST every 3m with COCP or cyclical progesterones medroxyprogesterone 10mg 14d)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

OVARIAN CANCER
What are some risk factors of ovarian cancer?

A

Unopposed oestrogen + increased # of ovulations –
- Early menarche
- Late menopause
- Increased age
- Endometriosis
- Obesity + smoking
Genetics (BRCA1/2, HNPCC/lynch syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

OVARIAN CANCER
Hence, what are some protective factors of ovarian cancer?

A
  • COCP
  • Early menopause
  • Breast feeding
  • Childbearing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

ENDOMETRIAL CANCER
What are some risk factors for endometrial cancer?

A

Unopposed oestrogen –
- Obesity (adipose tissue contains aromatase)
- Nulliparous
- Early menarche
- Late menopause
- Oestrogen-only HRT
- Tamoxifen
- PCOS
- Increased age
- T2DM
- HNPCC (Lynch syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

MENOPAUSE
What is the management of menopause in more severe cases?

A
  • HRT first-line for vaso-motor Sx as most effective
  • Clonidine (alpha adrenergic receptor agonist) second line with low-dose antidepressants like venlafaxine (not C/I in breast cancer Tx) or fluoxetine
  • CBT
  • Vaginal oestrogen cream/tablets + moisturisers for dryness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

HRT
What are the side effects associated with oestrogen?

A
  • Nausea,
  • bloating,
  • headaches,
  • breast swelling or tenderness,
  • leg cramps
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

URINARY INCONTINENCE
What is the mechanism of action of anti-muscarinics?

A
  • Parasympathetic so Pissing = decreases need to urinate + spasms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

URINARY INCONTINENCE
What is the mechanism of action of beta-3-adrenergic agonists?

A
  • Sympathetic so Storage = relaxes detrusor + increases bladder capacity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

URINARY INCONTINENCE
What are the surgical interventions for stress incontinence?

A
  • Colposuspension
  • Tension free vaginal tape (TVT)
  • Autologous sling procedures (TVT but strip of fascia from abdo wall)
34
Q

HRT
What are the side effects associated with progesterone?

A

Mood swings,
fluid retention,
weight gain,
acne
greasy skin

35
Q

HYDATIDIFORM MOLE
What are some risk factors for hydatidiform mole?

A
  • Extremes of reproductive age
  • Previous molar pregnancy
  • Multiple pregnancies
  • Asian women
  • OCP
36
Q

PELVIC INFLAMMATORY DISEASE
What are the non-infective causes of PID?

A
  • Post-partum (retained tissue),
  • uterine instrumentation (hysteroscopy, IUCD),
  • descended from other organs (appendicitis)
37
Q

URINARY INCONTINENCE
What are some side effects of anti-muscarinics?

A
  • “Can’t see, spit, pee or shit” > caution in elderly as falls esp oxybutynin immediate release in frail
38
Q

BACTERIAL VAGINOSIS
What are the risk factors of bacterial vaginosis?

A
  • Multiple sexual partners
  • Excessive vaginal cleaning
  • Recent Abx
  • Smoking
  • IUD
39
Q

TRICHOMONAS VAGINALIS
What is the clinical presentation of TV?

A
  • PV discharge classically offensive, frothy + yellow/green.
  • Vulvovaginitis, itching, dysuria + dyspareunia.
  • May cause urethritis + balanitis in men
40
Q

SYPHILIS
How would you manage syphilis?

A
  • Specialist GUM (full STI screening, contact tracing, contraceptive information).
  • Single dose IM benzathine benzylpenicillin or PO doxycycline if allergic
41
Q

CANDIDIASIS
What treatment should be used in pregnancy?

A

Clotrimazole in pregnancy as fluconazole can cause congenital abnormalities

42
Q

BALANITIS
what is the treatment for bacterial infection?

A

flucloxacillin or clarithromycin if penicillin allergic

43
Q

LYMPHOGRANULOMA VENEREUM
what are the clinical features?

A

Painless genital ulcer
Appears 3-12 days after infection
May not be noticeable e.g. if occurs inside the vagina
Inguinal lymphadenopathy
Proctitis, rectal pain, rectal discharge (in rectal infections)
Systemic symptoms such as fever and malaise

44
Q

CHANCROID
what are the clinical features?

A

A painful genital lesion which may bleed on contact
Associated symptoms include painful lymphadenopathy

45
Q

CHANCROID
what is the management?

A

The infection is treated using antibiotics (typically Ceftriaxone, Azithromycin or Ciprofloxacin)

46
Q

COCP
What are some side effects + risks with the COCP?

A
  • Unscheduled bleeding common in first 3m.
  • Breast pain + tenderness.
  • Mood changes + depression.
  • Headaches, HTN, VTE.
  • Small raise in risk of breast + cervical cancer (risk normalises after 10y taking pill).
  • Small raise in risk of MI + stroke.
47
Q

COILS
What are the drawbacks of the IUD?

A
  • Procedure with risks for insertion/removal.
  • Can cause HMB/IMB which often settles.
  • Some women have pelvic pain.
  • No STI protection.
  • Increased risk of ectopic pregnancies.
  • Occasionally falls out.
48
Q

EMERGENCY CONTRACEPTION
For Ulipristal acetate, what are the pros and cons?

A

Pros
- More effective than levonorgestrel
- Can be used >1 in one cycle
Cons
- Avoid breastfeeding for 1w (express but discard)
- Avoid in severe asthma
- Wait 5d before starting COCP or POP with 7 or 2d extra contraception needed

49
Q

FEMALE INFERTILITY
What are some risk factors of infertility?

A
  • Extremes of weight
  • Increasing age
  • Smoking
  • Alcohol/drug use
50
Q

ASSISTED CONCEPTION
What are the risk factors for ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome?

A
  • Younger age.
  • Lower BMI.
  • PCOS.
  • Higher antral follicle count.
51
Q

GYNAECOMASTIA
What are some pathological causes of gynaecomastia?

A
  • Drugs (spironolactone, oestrogen, anabolic steroids)
  • Marijuana
  • Liver failure
  • Testicular failure or tumour (Can produce beta-hCG)
52
Q

BREAST CANCER
what are the complications of tamoxifen?

A

hot flushes
nausea
vaginal bleeding
rarely thrombosis and endometrial cancer

53
Q

BREAST CANCER
what are the side effects of aromatase inhibitors?

A

hot flushes
reduced bone density
joint pains

54
Q

POI
What are some causes of POI?

A
  • Majority idiopathic
  • Iatrogenic (chemo/radio, oophorectomy)
  • Autoimmune (coeliac, T1DM)
  • Genetic (FHx, Turner’s)
  • Infections (mumps, TB, CMV)
55
Q

THYROID + PREGNANCY
What is post-partum thyroiditis?

A

3 stages –
- Thyrotoxicosis (3m)
- Hypothyroidism (3–6m)
- Normal thyroid function
Sx control of thyrotoxicosis, treat hypothyroidism with levothyroxine
Just need TFTs to Dx if within 12m of giving birth + Sx

56
Q

PREMATURITY
What is the prophylaxis for prematurity and how do they work?

A
  • Progesterone gel or pessary decreases activity of myometrium + prevents cervix remodelling in preparation for delivery
  • Cervical cerclage = ≥1 sutures to strengthen + keep cervix closed
  • ‘Rescue’ cerclage to halt delivery
57
Q

PREMATURITY
What are the indications for…

i) progesterone prophylaxis?
ii) cervical cerclage?
iii) ‘rescue’ cerclage?

A

i) Cervical length <25mm on TVS at 16–24w
ii) Cervical length <25mm on TVS at 16–24w, previous premature birth or cervical trauma (colposcopy, cone biopsy)
iii) Cervical dilatation without ROM at 16–27+6 with no infection, bleeding or contractions

58
Q

MATERNAL SEPSIS
What are the investigations for maternal sepsis?

A
  • Monitor Maternal Early Obstetric Warning Score (MEOWS)
  • Warning signs of sepsis (3Ts white with sugar)
59
Q

MATERNAL SEPSIS
What are the warning signs of sepsis?

A

3Ts white with sugar –
- Temp <36 or >38
- Tachycardia >90bpm
- Tachypnoea >20bpm
- WCC >12 or <4
- Hyperglycaemia >7.7mmol/L in absence of diabetes

60
Q

MATERNAL SEPSIS
What are the SEPSIS 6 components?

A

BUFALO (3 in, 3 out) –
- Blood cultures (out)
- Urine output by catheter (hourly, out)
- Fluids resus (IV, in)
- Abx (IV broad-spec, in)
- Lactate (ABG, out)
- Oxygen (high flow SpO2 >94%, in)

61
Q

PREGNANCY PHYSIOLOGY
What hormones increase in regards to the anterior pituitary gland?

A
  • ACTH = rise in steroid hormones (cortisol, aldosterone) = improves autoimmune conditions (RA) but susceptible to DM + infections
  • Prolactin = suppresses FSH + LH
  • Melanocyte stimulating hormone = increased skin pigmentation (linea nigra + melasma = brown pigmentation)
62
Q

PREGNANCY PHYSIOLOGY
What other hormones rise in pregnancy?

A
  • T3/T4
  • HCG = doubles every 48h until plateau at 8–12w then gradual fall
  • Progesterone
  • Oestrogen
63
Q

PREGNANCY PHYSIOLOGY
In terms of the cardiovascular system in pregnancy, what…

i) increases?
ii) decreases?

A

i) Blood volume, plasma volume, CO (as increased SV + HR)
ii) Peripheral vascular resistance (can cause flushing + hot sweats) + BP in early-mid pregnancy but returns to normal by term

64
Q

PREGNANCY PHYSIOLOGY
In terms of the respiratory system, what are the biochemical changes?

A
  • Increased oxygen consumption (20%) + RR
  • Compensated resp alkalosis may occur as increased pO2 + reduced pCO2 (facilitates foetal CO2 excretion), renal HCO3- excretion to prevent this
  • Increased 2,3 DPG to promote maternal Hb to release oxygen
65
Q

PREGNANCY PHYSIOLOGY
What 4 forces/pressures govern fluid retention in pregnancy?

A
  • Capillary (hydrostatic) pressure of blood in vessel = draws fluid OUT
  • Interstitial fluid colloid oncotic pressure of proteins in interstitial fluid = draws fluid OUT
  • Interstitial fluid pressure of tissues surrounding vessel = draws fluid IN
  • Plasma colloid oncotic pressure (albumin) = draws fluid IN
66
Q

PREGNANCY PHYSIOLOGY
In terms of haematology in pregnancy, what…

i) increases?
ii) decreases?

A

i) WBCs, ESR, d-dimers, ALP
ii) Platelets, albumin

67
Q

PREGNANCY PHYSIOLOGY
In pregnancy, what changes to the humoral and cell-mediated immunity?

A
  • Humoral = unchanged, plenty of circulating Th2 cells to fight infections (antibodies)
  • Cell-mediated = reduced as progesterone down regulates production of Th1 cells (phagocytes, cytotoxic T lymphocytes)
68
Q

REPRODUCTION
What are the different stages in follicular genesis and what stage in the cell cycle are they?

A
  • Primordial follicles = diploid, arrested at prophase I
  • Primary follicle = diploid, undergoing meiosis I
  • Secondary follicle = haploid, once meiosis I complete
  • Antral (Graafian) follicle = haploid, frozen in metaphase II
69
Q

REPRODUCTION
What happens immediately after fertilisation?

A
  • Cell rapidly divides > mass of cells (morula) travels to uterus
  • Fluid filled cavity (blastocele) expands to form blastocyst (>80 cells) with outer layer (trophoblast) + inner layer (embryoblast)
70
Q

REPRODUCTION
What are the main hormones produced by the placenta?

A
  • hCG (maintain corpus luteum)
  • Oestrogen
  • Progesterone
  • Human placenta lactogen
71
Q

REPRODUCTION
What is the role of oestrogen in pregnancy?

A
  • Softening tissue > more flexible, allows muscles + ligaments of uterus and pelvis to expand + cervix become soft
  • Enlarges + prepares breasts + nipples for breast feeding
  • E3 declines with foetal distress, E2 increases endometrial progesterone receptors
72
Q

REPRODUCTION
What is the role of progesterone in pregnancy?

A
  • Produced by corpus luteum until 10w
  • Initially prepares endometrium for implantation by proliferation, vascularisation + decidual reaction
  • Later, maintains pregnancy by preventing contraction
  • Relaxation elsewhere > heartburn, constipation, hypotension
73
Q

MENSTRUAL CYCLE
what happens during the follicular phase?

A
  • rising levels of FSH stimulates developing follicles to produce oestrogen
  • oestrogen inhibits FSH leading to one dominant follicle
  • follicle starts developing LH receptors
  • egg completes first meiotic division
  • oestrogen levels cause positive feedback leading to LH surge
74
Q

MENSTRUAL CYCLE
What happens in the early secretory phase of the menstrual cycle?

A
  • after ovulation progesterone predominates
  • changes from focusing on growth to preparing for implantation
  • development of complex glands, increased spiral arterioles
  • endometrial cells produce and store glycogen
75
Q

MENSTRUAL CYCLE
What happens in the late secretory phase of the menstrual cycle?

A
  • Cervical mucus thickens + less hospitable for sperm
  • Decrease in oestrogen + progesterone > spiral arteries collapse + constrict + functional layer prepares to shred
76
Q

MENSTRUAL CYCLE
What are the stages of the menstrual cycle?

A
  • Menstruation (Days 1-5)
  • Proliferation (Days 6-14)
  • Ovulation (Day 14)
  • Secretion (Days 16-28)
77
Q

MENSTRUAL CYCLE
What happens in the proliferative phase?

A
  • endometrium grows under influence of oestrogen
  • oestrogen causes hyperplasia of the endometrium
  • early development of glands and spiral arterioles
78
Q

MENSTRUAL CYCLE
what are the stages of the ovarian cycle?

A

follicular phase
luteal phase

79
Q

MENSTRUAL CYCLE
what happens during the luteal phase?

A
  • follicle becomes corpus luteum (lifespan of 14 days)
  • corpus luteum secretes progesterone which peaks 7 days after ovulation unless maintained by pregnancy
  • falling progesterone causes menstrual bleeding
80
Q

MENSTRUAL CYCLE
What happens during the menstrual phase?

A
  • falling levels of progesterone cause shedding of endometrium
  • spasm of spiral arteries
  • ischaemic necrosis
  • generalised inflammation

D TO REVISE - PHASE 3A (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions