Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

D TO REVISE - PHASE 3A > TO REVISE GP > Flashcards

TO REVISE GP Flashcards

1
Q

HTN
What is malignant HTN?

A

Rapid rise in BP –
- Fibrinoid necrosis
- Retinal haemorrhages
- Papilloedema
- Exudates
Severe HTN ≥180/120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

HTN
What are the side effects of ACEi?

A

Dry cough + rash (bradykinin),
hypotension,
hyperkalaemia,
AKI (check renal function 1-2w after starting)
teratogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

COPD
What are steps 1 and 2 of the COPD management?

A
  • 1 = SABA or SAMA
  • 2:
    – FEV1>50% = LABA and/or LAMA
    – FEV1 <50% LABA + ICS and/or LAMA (also offered in those with asthma/atopic features)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

ARRHYTHMIAS
Give 2 effects of hypokalaemia on an ECG

A
  1. Flat T waves
  2. QT prolongation
  3. ST depression
  4. Prominent U waves
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

ARRHYTHMIAS
Give an effect of hypocalcaemia on an ECG

A
  1. QT prolongation
  2. T wave flattening
  3. Narrowed QRS
  4. Prominent U waves
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

ARRHYTHMIAS
Give an effect of hypercalcaemia on an ECG

A
  1. QT shortening
  2. Tall T wave
  3. No P waves
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

HTN
What are the side effects of CCB?

A

Oedema,
headache,
flushing
palpitations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

HTN
What are the side effects of beta-blocker?

A

Headache,
hypotension,
erectile dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

T2DM
How does HHS present?
How is it diagnosed?
Management?

A
  • Marked dehydration (polydipsia, polyuria, hypovolaemia) + impaired consciousness
  • Plasma glucose >30mmol/L, plasma osmolality >320mOsm
  • IV fluid replacement, infuse insulin, LMWH prophylaxis as hyperviscous blood
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

T2DM
What is the mechanism of action of…

i) metformin?
ii) gliclazide?
iii) sitagliptin?

A

i) Increased insulin sensitivity, reduced gluconeogenesis in liver + helps weight
ii) Stimulates beta cells to secrete insulin
iii) Increases incretin levels which inhibit glucagon production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

T2DM
What are some side effects of…

i) metformin?
ii) gliclazide?
iii) sitagliptin?
iv) empagliflozin?
v) glitazone?
vi) GLP-1 mimetics?

A

i) GI upset (D+V, abdo pain), lactic acidosis
ii) Hypoglycaemia + weight gain
iii) GI upset, pancreatitis
iv) Glucosuria, weight loss + UTI risk
v) Weight gain, fluid retention, heart failure
vi) Weight loss, N+V, pancreatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

HYPERTHYROIDISM
What are the Graves’ disease specific features?

A
  • Diplopia, ophthalmoplegia, increased tears
  • Exophthalmos, lid lag + retraction
  • Thyroid acropachy (clubbing, painful digits)
  • Pretibial myxoedema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

OSTEOARTHRITIS
What would plain radiograph show in osteoarthritis?

A

LOSS –
- Loss of joint space
- Osteophytes
- Subarticular sclerosis (increased density of bone along joint line)
- Subchondral cysts (fluid filled holes in the bone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

B12/PERNICIOUS ANAEMIA
What are the B12 specific features of the anaemia?

A
  • Peripheral neuropathy with numbness or paraesthesia
  • Loss of vibration sense or proprioception
  • Visual, mood or cognitive changes
  • Glossitis = beefy-red sore tongue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

ARRHYTHMIAS
Give 3 effects hyperkalaemia on an ECG

A

GO - absent P wave
GO TALL - tall T wave
GO long - prolonged PR
GO wide - wide QRS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

TYPE 2 DIABETES
Describe the treatment pathway for T2DM

A
  1. Lifestyle changes - lose weight, exercise, healthy diet and control of contributing conditions
  2. Metformin
  3. Metformin and sulfonylurea (GLICLAZIDE)
  4. Metformin + sulfonylurea (GLICLAZIDE) + insulin
  5. metformin +sulonylurea (GLICLAZIDE) + insulin +PIOGLITAZONE
  6. Increase insulin dose as required
17
Q

TYPE 2 DIABETES
How does metformin work in treating T2DM?

A

Increase insulin sensitivity and inhibits glucose production

18
Q

REACTIVE ARTHRITIS
What investigations might you do in someone you suspect to have reactive arthritis?

A

ESR + CRP - raised
ANA - negative
RF - negative
X-ray - sacroiliitis or enthesopathy
Joint aspirate - negative (exclude septic arthritis + gout)

19
Q

FIBROMYALGIA
What is the diagnostic criteria for fibromyalgia?

A

Chronic widespread pain lasting for > 3 months with other causes excluded
Pain is at 11/18 tender point sites for 6 months

20
Q

FIBROMYALGIA
Give 3 disease that might be included in the differential diagnosis for fibromyalgia

A
  1. Hypothyroidism
  2. SLE
  3. Low vitamin D
21
Q

GOUT
Describe the pathophysiology of gout

A

Purine –> (by xanthine oxidase) xanthine –> uric acid –> monosodium rate crystals OR excreted by kidneys
Urate blood/tissue imbalance –> rate crystal formation –> inflammatory response through phagocytic activation

Overproduction/under excretions of uric acid causes build up and precipitated out in joints

22
Q

GOUT
Give 3 causes of gout

A

= Hyperuricaemia

  1. Impaired excretion - CKD, diuretics, hypertension
  2. Increased production - hyperlipidaemia
  3. Increased intake - high purine diet = red meat, seafood, fructose, alcohol
23
Q

PSEUDOGOUT
What can cause pseudogout?

A
  1. Hypo/hyperthyroidism
  2. Haemochromatosis
  3. Diabetes
  4. Magnesium levels
24
Q

PSEUDOGOUT
What kind of crystals do you see in pseudogout?

A

Positive birefringent calcium pyrophosphate rhomboid crystals

25
GOUT What kind of crystals do you see in gout?
Monosodium urate crystals = negatively birefringent
26
BPH What are some investigations for BPH?
- DRE = smooth but enlarged prostate - U+Es, serum PSA (rise) - Urine dip + MC&S - International prostate symptom score (I-PSS) looks at LUTS + how much affect day-to-day life - Transrectal USS ± biopsy - Flexibly cystoscopy
27
BPH What 2 medications can be used in BPH and what is their mechanism of action?
- Alpha blockers 1st line (doxazosin, tamsulosin) to relax prostate smooth muscle - 5-alpha reductase inhibitor (finasteride) which decreases prostate size by less conversion of testosterone into dihydrotestosterone
28
BPH What are the side effects of... i) alpha blockers? ii) 5-alpha reductase inhibitors?
i) Postural hypotension (vasodilation), dizziness, dry mouth ii) Erectile dysfunction, reduced libido, ejaculation issues
29
CKD Name 4 cause of CKD
1. DM - 24% of patients 2. Hypertension 3. Glomerulonephritis 4. Congenital - polycystic kidney disease 5. Urinary tract obstruction 6. drugs - NSAIDs, ACEi, antidepressants, many antibiotics
30
PROSTATE CANCER What investigations might you do in someone who you suspect has prostate cancer?
Digital Rectal Exam and PSA are done in community, Transrectal USS and biopsy = DIAGNOSTIC Gleason grading system - higher the score the worse the prognosis
31
UTI Give 4 risk factors of UTI's
1. Catheter 2. Female 3. Prostatic hypertrophy (obstructs) 4. Low urine volume 5. Urinary tract stones 6. Pregnancy
32
LYME DISEASE what are the investigations?
- diagnosed clinically if erythema migrans is present - ELISA test - immunoblot for lyme disease
33
LYME DISEASE what is the management?
- doxycycline (amoxicillin if pregnant) - ceftriaxone in disseminated disease
34
CKD What are the different stages of CKD?
Stage 1 = <90 Stage 2 = 60-89 Stage 3a = 45-59 Stage 3b = 30-44 Stage 4 = 15-29 Stage 5 = <15

D TO REVISE - PHASE 3A (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions