TL Pages 6-10 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the effect of preop clonidine on anesthesia?

A

Decreases MAC but increases risk of bradycardia and hypotension.

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2
Q

What are key treatments for venous air embolism (VAE)?

A

Flood surgical field with saline, place patient head-down, compress jugular veins.

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3
Q

What is the insulin-dextrose treatment for hyperkalemia?

A

10 units IV insulin + dextrose unless glucose ≥250 mg/dL; lowers K+ by 0.5-1 mEq/L.

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4
Q

How does ketorolac affect renal function?

A

Inhibits afferent renal vasodilation, reducing GFR, especially after 5+ days.

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5
Q

Does epinephrine addition change local anesthetic onset?

A

No significant effect on block onset time.

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6
Q

What factors increase the onset of local anesthetics?

A

↑ Concentration, lipid solubility, pH; ↓ pKa.

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7
Q

What is a common response to a second dose of succinylcholine?

A

Bradycardia, especially in children due to muscarinic receptor activation.

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8
Q

What limits flumazenil effectiveness long-term?

A

Short half-life can cause benzodiazepine sedation to recur.

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9
Q

Which central line has higher infection risk?

A

Nontunneled central venous catheters.

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10
Q

Why is pulse oximetry limited on 100% oxygen?

A

Poor indicator of ventilation.

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11
Q

What does Poiseuille’s law say about flow in vessels?

A

Flow ∝ radius^4; radius has greatest impact.

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12
Q

Why are newer CO2 absorbents safer?

A

Lack strong bases that produce CO with volatile agents.

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13
Q

What % receptor occupancy reduces TOF count?

A

About 70%.

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14
Q

How does fresh gas flow affect rebreathing?

A

↓ FGF = ↑ rebreathing, ↓ waste gas scavenging.

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15
Q

What is the defining feature of a closed circle system?

A

FGF matches metabolic demand; no scavenging required.

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16
Q

Do Cobra and Tulip airways protect against aspiration?

A

No; they are cuffed pharyngeal sealers without esophageal occlusion.

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17
Q

Most important factor for spinal block level?

A

Baricity (e.g. hyperbaric bupivacaine).

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18
Q

How is a local anesthetic made hyperbaric?

A

By adding dextrose.

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19
Q

Signs of thoracic duct injury after CVC?

A

Left-sided swelling, unilateral effusion, rising ventilator pressures.

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20
Q

Where are cardiac parasympathetic fibers found?

A

SA and AV nodes; they affect chronotropy.

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21
Q

Which local anesthetics are most affected by epinephrine?

A

Lidocaine, mepivacaine, and chloroprocaine.

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22
Q

How long should clopidogrel be held before neuraxial block?

A

5–7 days.

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23
Q

Why does etomidate cause injection pain?

A

Hyperosmolarity; prevent with lidocaine, fast injection, large vein.

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24
Q

What side effect does normeperidine have?

A

CNS stimulation: myoclonus and seizures.

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25
Q

What is the intracellular concentration of potassium?

A

157 mOsm/L.

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26
Q

What EEG pattern is seen in sedation?

A

Alpha waves (8–13 Hz), BIS 65–85.

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27
Q

Formula for pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR)?

A

PVR = [(PA mean - PCWP) / CO] * 80.

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28
Q

How is vascular resistance calculated?

A

Resistance = Pressure / Flow (Poiseuille’s Law).

29
Q

How does metabolic acidosis affect CO2 curve?

A

Left shift without slope change.

30
Q

Why are infants prone to bradycardia on laryngoscopy?

A

Predominant parasympathetic tone.

31
Q

Best marker of liver synthetic function?

A

INR or PT, reflects factor VIIa (short half-life).

32
Q

What are ketone bodies and when are they formed?

A

Formed from free fatty acids during fasting; used by brain.

33
Q

How does nitrous oxide provide anesthesia and analgesia?

A

NMDA inhibition, μ-receptor activation, GABA-A activation.

34
Q

What is mannitol’s effect in heart failure?

A

Increases BP, CO, and PCWP.

35
Q

Main cardiac risks of prolonged propofol?

A

Bradycardia, acidosis, lipidemia, rhabdomyolysis, heart failure.

36
Q

What is ED95 in neuromuscular blockade?

A

Dose that produces 95% twitch block in 50% of individuals.

37
Q

Which volatile agent potentiates NMBs most?

A

Desflurane > sevoflurane > isoflurane > halothane.

38
Q

What is sevoflurane metabolized into?

A

Inorganic fluoride and hexafluoroisopropanol.

39
Q

What makes diltiazem unique among CCBs?

A

Acts on cardiac and smooth muscle; ↓ PVR and coronary vasodilation.

40
Q

What defines hypertensive urgency pre-op?

A

BP >180/110 mmHg without end-organ damage.

41
Q

Which anesthetics cause methemoglobinemia?

A

Benzocaine, prilocaine, lidocaine, tetracaine.

42
Q

Which opioid is metabolized by plasma esterases?

A

Remifentanil.

43
Q

What maintains hepatic perfusion in buffer response?

A

Portal flow modulates hepatic artery via adenosine.

44
Q

What is the hepatic O2 supply ratio?

A

Portal vein 75% of flow, 50% O2; hepatic artery 25% flow, 50% O2.

45
Q

Which hormones affect hepatic/portal vasculature?

A

Glucagon (vasodilation), Ang II & vasopressin (vasoconstriction).

46
Q

How to estimate time to desaturation during apnea?

A

[FRC ÷ O2 consumption] * %O2 in FRC.

47
Q

How does PaCO2 regulate CBF?

A

↑ PaCO2 → ↓ CSF pH → vasodilation via prostaglandins and NO.

48
Q

How does CSF pH affect ventilation?

A

Acts on central chemoreceptors in medulla.

49
Q

What causes phase 2 of cardiac action potential?

A

Ca2+ influx via L-type calcium channels.

50
Q

What are signs of cerebellar dysfunction?

A

Intention tremor, dysarthria, nystagmus.

51
Q

What is the final step in ammonia elimination?

A

Conversion to urea in liver.

52
Q

What are signs of hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Asterixis and confusion due to hyperammonemia.

53
Q

How does pH affect calcium binding?

A

Alkalosis ↑ binding (↓ ionized Ca); acidosis ↓ binding.

54
Q

How does protein binding affect hepatic metabolism?

A

↑ Binding = ↓ clearance; binding is ↓ in liver/renal disease.

55
Q

Which conditions increase plasma protein levels?

A

Obesity, pregnancy, burns.

56
Q

How does nitrous oxide cause bowel distention?

A

Longer administration and higher concentration.

57
Q

What blocks are potentiated by neostigmine?

A

Phase I; neostigmine may antagonize phase II.

58
Q

What is hepatorenal syndrome?

A

Renal hypoperfusion from portal HTN → splanchnic vasodilation.

59
Q

What is the Meyer-Overton rule?

A

Anesthetic potency ∝ lipid solubility in olive oil.

60
Q

What can cause hoarseness after intubation?

A

Arytenoid subluxation; risk ↑ with poor muscle relaxation.

61
Q

How does dexmedetomidine affect CO2 response?

A

Preserves hypercapnic response; good for OSA/hypoventilation.

62
Q

What are systemic effects of dexmedetomidine?

A

Sedation, analgesia, bradycardia, ↓ CBF, mimics non-REM sleep.

63
Q

How does aspirin inhibit platelets?

A

Irreversibly blocks COX → ↓ thromboxane A2.

64
Q

What do prostacyclins do?

A

Vasodilation and platelet activation (not aggregation).

65
Q

Main lung immune cells?

A

Pulmonary alveolar macrophages; neutrophils in smokers or lung injury.

66
Q

Treatment for vasopressor extravasation?

A

Hyaluronidase, phentolamine, saline irrigation, stellate block.

67
Q

Most common periop nerve injury?

A

Ulnar nerve; avoid elbow flexion, pad medial epicondyle.

68
Q

Best predictors of fluid responsiveness?

A

Dynamic measures: SVV >13%, PPV better than CVP.

69
Q

What defines posterior ischemic optic neuropathy (PION)?

A

Sudden painless vision loss, afferent defect, no disc edema.