TL Pages 1-5 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common side effect of inhaled albuterol?

A

Tachycardia. It can also cause PVCs, hypokalemia (via intracellular K⁺ shifts), and hypotension.

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2
Q

What does a low blood:gas coefficient indicate about an inhaled anesthetic?

A

It has a fast onset and offset (low solubility).

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3
Q

What blood products can be safely administered through a fluid warmer?

A

fBRc, FFP, platelets, and cryoprecipitate.

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4
Q

What temperature defines hypothermia?

A

<35°C.

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5
Q

Describe the afferent and efferent limbs of the laryngospasm reflex.

A

Afferent: internal branch of superior laryngeal nerve. Efferent: recurrent laryngeal and external branch of superior laryngeal nerve.

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6
Q

What is the anatomical relationship of the popliteal artery and vein to the semitendinosus tendon?

A

Artery is lateral to the tendon; vein is superficial and lateral to the artery.

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7
Q

How does norepinephrine affect the cardiovascular system?

A

α1 > α2 > β1 → vasoconstriction → ↑ BP & CO → reflex bradycardia modulated by ↑ SV & contractility.

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8
Q

How is plasma osmolality calculated?

A

Posm = (2 × Na⁺) + (glucose / 18) + (BUN / 2.8); normal ≈ 290 mOsm/kg.

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9
Q

Which drug has been shown to reduce perioperative AKI in CPB patients?

A

Dobutamine (not dopamine or fenoldopam).

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10
Q

What labs are used in the MELD score?

A

Creatinine, bilirubin, INR, sodium, dialysis frequency. Mnemonic: I Crush Seven Beers Daily.

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11
Q

What immune mechanism causes contact dermatitis?

A

T-cell mediated (delayed-type hypersensitivity).

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12
Q

What is the function of nitric oxide in the vasculature?

A

Vasodilation and inhibition of platelet aggregation (short half-life, seconds).

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13
Q

What is a Type I and Type II statistical error?

A

Type I: false positive (rejecting a true null). Type II: false negative (accepting a false null).

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14
Q

What is the most accurate method to confirm venous placement before CVL dilation?

A

Pressure waveform monitoring.

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15
Q

How does succinylcholine affect intraocular pressure (IOP)?

A

↑ IOP by 6–8 torr within 1–4 mins; returns to baseline in 5–7 mins. Blinking ↑ IOP by 10–15 torr.

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16
Q

How do local anesthetics work?

A

Bind voltage-gated Na⁺ channels → block Na⁺ influx → inhibit action potential propagation.

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17
Q

What are the effects of dexmedetomidine on the brain and respiration?

A

α2 agonist at locus coeruleus/spinal cord → sedation, analgesia, ↓ CBF & CMRO₂. Preserves respiratory drive, but ↓ TV & minute ventilation.

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18
Q

What anesthetic and drug increase the risk of postoperative shivering?

A

High-dose remifentanil and sevoflurane.

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19
Q

What is the initial dose of lipid emulsion for LAST?

A

1.5 mL/kg bolus of 20% lipid emulsion, then 0.25 mL/kg/min infusion.

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20
Q

How is cisatracurium eliminated?

A

Hofmann elimination; increased with higher pH and temperature.

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21
Q

Which reflexes are lost with neuromuscular blockers?

A

Corneal, oculocephalic, and gag reflexes; light reflex remains.

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22
Q

Why is midazolam dosed lower in uremia?

A

Decreased protein binding increases free drug fraction.

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23
Q

How does normal saline compare to human plasma osmolality?

A

NS is hyperosmolar; LR is hypoosmolar; Plasma-Lyte is iso-osmolar.

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24
Q

What is the Armitage formula for epidural volume dosing?

A

0.5 mL/kg for lumbosacral, 1 mL/kg for thoracolumbar, 1.25 mL/kg for mid-thoracic.

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25
Q

Name the nerve sheath layers from inner to outer.

A

Endoneurium (axons), perineurium (fascicles), epineurium (nerve).

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26
Q

What is clevidipine’s mechanism and metabolism?

A

Arteriolar vasodilation; rapidly metabolized by plasma and RBC esterases.

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27
Q

Why do infants need higher doses of water-soluble drugs?

A

They have higher total body water (~80%).

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28
Q

Most common side effect of amiodarone?

A

Bradycardia due to calcium channel blocking.

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29
Q

How does epinephrine affect renal blood flow?

A

Decreases RBF without affecting GFR.

30
Q

How do benzodiazepines affect CO2 response?

A

Blunt ventilatory response to hypercapnia (decrease slope of CO2 response curve).

31
Q

What are IV:oral alpha:beta block ratios of labetalol?

A

IV 1:7, oral 1:3.

32
Q

Why use dexamethasone for peritumoral edema?

A

Decreases BBB permeability and tumor size.

33
Q

What is the risk of meperidine in renal failure?

A

Seizures due to accumulation of normeperidine.

34
Q

What is metoclopramide’s MOA for aspiration prophylaxis?

A

Dopamine antagonist; increases gastric emptying and LES tone.

35
Q

What does a Class 3 upper lip bite test predict?

A

Difficult intubation; >60% chance.

36
Q

How to manage vasopressor extravasation?

A

Elevate limb, warm compress, saline irrigation, phentolamine, stellate block.

37
Q

How does obesity affect lung volumes?

A

↓ ERV, ↓ FRC, ↑ RR, ↓ TV; restrictive pattern.

38
Q

What is the pressure:volume ratio of an O2 E-cylinder?

A

3:1 (2000 psi ≈ 625 L).

39
Q

What does a Uosm:Posm ratio >1.5 indicate?

A

Prerenal oliguria (e.g. dehydration).

40
Q

Why supplement intercostobrachial block in upper limb surgery?

A

Prevents tourniquet pain missed by brachial plexus block.

41
Q

Normal intracardiac pressures?

A

RA 1-10, RV 15-30/0-8, LA 8-10, LV 90-140/4-12 mmHg.

42
Q

Mnemonic for GCS components?

A

EVM: Eyes 4, Verbal 5, Motor 6.

43
Q

What electrolyte state requires higher NMB doses?

A

Hypercalcemia.

44
Q

Which muscles are last recruited during resp failure?

A

Paravertebral and large back muscles.

45
Q

Where does artery of Adamkiewicz originate?

A

Left aorta, T9–L2; supplies lumbar/sacral spinal cord.

46
Q

What AChR subunit defines immature junctions?

A

γ replaces ε; seen in burns, sepsis, denervation.

47
Q

What percent of TBW is intravascular space?

A

8% of TBW; 1/4 of ECF.

48
Q

What opioid risk is increased with MAOIs?

A

Meperidine → serotonin syndrome.

49
Q

Define pharmacodynamics vs. pharmacokinetics.

A

Pharmacodynamics = drug effect on body; kinetics = body’s effect on drug.

50
Q

What treats opioid-induced pruritus?

A

Nalbuphine or naltrexone.

51
Q

What converts codeine to morphine?

A

CYP2D6 via O-demethylation.

52
Q

How is succinylcholine metabolized?

A

By plasma pseudocholinesterase after diffusion from NMJ.

53
Q

How does lithium affect NMBs?

A

Potentiates both depolarizing and nondepolarizing NMBs.

54
Q

Which drugs lower MAC or prolong NMB?

A

Hypothermia, CCBs, antibiotics, magnesium, lithium, diuretics.

55
Q

Context-sensitive half-time of ketamine?

A

Similar to propofol.

56
Q

What does high blood:gas coefficient mean?

A

High solubility → slow onset.

57
Q

Dexmedetomidine CV effects?

A

Bolus: HTN; infusion: bradycardia, hypotension.

58
Q

Most common anesthesia-related errors?

A

Labeling, incorrect dosing, omission.

59
Q

What is the Parkland burn formula?

A

4 mL × kg × %TBSA. Give ½ in first 8 hrs, ½ in next 16 hrs.

60
Q

Which nerves injured by LMA use?

A

Lingual, hypoglossal, recurrent laryngeal.

61
Q

Minimum PACU monitoring?

A

Every 15 minutes.

62
Q

Steps in aspiration management?

A

100% O2, deepen anesthesia, Trendelenburg, suction.

63
Q

Effect of lorazepam premedication?

A

Prolongs extubation, no improvement in satisfaction.

64
Q

What is the half-life and metabolism of labetalol?

A

6 hours; metabolized via hepatic oxidation and glucuronidation.

65
Q

Do neuromuscular blocking agents interfere with evoked potential monitoring?

A

No, they do not significantly impact evoked potentials.

66
Q

What medication improves platelet dysfunction in uremic patients perioperatively?

A

Desmopressin (DDAVP).

67
Q

What determines the spread of epidural anesthesia to a desired dermatome?

A

Volume of local anesthetic and capacitance of epidural space (inversely related to age).

68
Q

How are most calcium channel blockers metabolized?

A

By hepatic cytochrome P450 enzymes.

69
Q

What are key side effects and mechanisms of action of amiodarone?

A

AV block, QTc prolongation; blocks K⁺ channels → prolongs repolarization, blocks AV node conduction, no negative inotropic effect.

70
Q

What makes amiodarone a good choice for patients with reduced EF?

A

It lacks negative inotropic effects.

71
Q

What are the causes of peritumor cerebral edema?

A

Multifactorial: hydrocephalic (membrane leak), vasogenic (CSF obstruction), static (venous stasis from compression).