Tissues-Connective Tissue & Blood Flashcards

0
Q

What are the 6 functions of connective tissue?

A
Support
Packaging
Storage
Transport
Repair
Defense
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1
Q

Where is connective tissue derived from?

A

Mesoderm (somites)

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2
Q

What is connective tissue composed of?

A

Fibroblasts; large branching cells (most common cell type) that make all fibers connected to connective tissues.

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3
Q

Can connective tissue renew itself?

A

Connective tissue can renew everything except cartilage.

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4
Q

Why cant connective tissue cartilage renew itself?

A

It does not have blood supply so raw materials are not available to repair itself.

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5
Q

What is the most common (primary) connective tissue fibers?

A

Collagen

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6
Q

What is collagen comprised of?

A

Protein & Collagen

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7
Q

What is elastic fibers comprised of?

A

Microfilaments embedded in protein (Elastin).

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8
Q

What is the unique quality of elastin?

A

Stretches and returns to original form.

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9
Q

Where is reticular tissue fiber typically seen?

A

Embryonic structures

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10
Q

What is reticular tissue made up of?

A

A protein called reticulin in a mesh-like arrangement.

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11
Q

What are the 3 fiber types made by Fibroblasts?

A

Collagen
Elastic
Reticular

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12
Q

What are the 4 sub-categories of connective tissue?

A

Soft
Firm
Rigid
Fluid

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13
Q

True or False; Soft, Firm, Rigid and Fluid are all solid tissue types.

A

False, Fluid is not considered a solid tissue type.

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14
Q

What are the 3 sub-categories of soft connective tissue?

A

Loose
Dense
Specialized

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15
Q

Where is loose connective tissue found?

A

Just deep to the epithelium.

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16
Q

What is the function of loose connective tissue?

A

Allows for tissue absorption.

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17
Q

Where is dense connective tissue found?

A

Deep to the loose connective tissue.

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18
Q

What structures are associated with dense connective tissue?

A

Tendons and Ligaments

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19
Q

What is the function of tendons in the body?

A

Connect muscles to other connective tissue.

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20
Q

What are the three types of specialized connective tissue?

A

Adipose
Elastic
Reticular

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21
Q

What is adipose?

A

Fat

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22
Q

What are some unique characteristics of adipose?

A

Low metabolic needs, does not require much energy.

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23
Q

What is firm connective tissue?

A

Non-calcified connective tissue associated with the skeleton.

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24
Q

Firm connective tissue is also known as what?

A

Cartilage

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25
Q

What are the functions of firm connective tissues?

A
  1. Act as a Temporary Skeleton

2. Covers most joint articular surfaces.

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26
Q

What is an articular surface?

A

Where 2 movable bones move against each other.

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27
Q

Is firm connective tissue vascular or avascular?

A

Avascular

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28
Q

What is firm connective tissue comprised of?

A

Fibers that do not mineralize and collagen.

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29
Q

What are the three types of Cartilage?

A

Hyaline
Elastic
Fibrocartilage

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30
Q

What is the most common type of cartilage?

A

Hyaline cartilage

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31
Q

Where is hyaline cartilage found?

A

Epiphyseal plates

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32
Q

What is elastic cartilage made up of?

A

Mix of collagen and elastic.

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33
Q

Where can elastic cartilage be found?

A

Ear Eustachian tube, epiglottis, and larynx

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34
Q

What is the function of the epiglottis?

A

Closes off the airway so when you swallow.

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35
Q

Where is fibrocartilage typically found?

A

At the TMJ; changes into hyaline with time

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36
Q

What is rigid connective tissue?

A

Bone, forms the mature skeleton.

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37
Q

What is the function of the rigid connective tissue?

A

Support
Protection
Locomotion

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38
Q

What structures does the rigid connective tissue protect?

A

Heart & Lungs

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39
Q

What is the most specialized connective tissue?

A

Rigid Connective Tissue

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40
Q

Why is rigid connective tissue different from other connective tissues?

A

It is calcified and vascular so it can repair itself.

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41
Q

What are the 5 bone components?

A
Diaphysis
Epiphysis
Articular cartilage
Epiphyseal plate
Epiphyseal line
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42
Q

What is the diaphysis?

A

Central Shaft of a long bone?

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43
Q

What is the epiphysis?

A

Two ends of a long bone.

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44
Q

What is the articular cartilage?

A

Covers the epiphysis where it articulates with another bone.

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45
Q

What is the epiphyseal plate?

A

AKA Growth Plate; cartilage between the diaphysis and epiphysis

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46
Q

What is the Epiphyseal line?

A

Mineralization of the plate; happens in adults.

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47
Q

What is the medullary cavity?

A

A cavity within the diaphysis.

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48
Q

What is marrow?

A

Fluid that fills the medullary cavity.

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49
Q

What are the two types of marrow in the medullary cavity?

A

Yellow & Red

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50
Q

What is yellow marrow?

A

Mostly fat

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51
Q

What is red marrow?

A

Blood-forming cells

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52
Q

In a younger person which type of marrow is most prominent?

A

Red Marrow

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53
Q

In an older person what type of marrow is most prominent?

A

Yellow Marrow

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54
Q

What is the periosteum?

A

Outer covering of the bone?

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55
Q

What is the endosteum?

A

Lining that lines the medullary cavities.

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56
Q

What is an Osteoblast?

A

Bone forming cells

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57
Q

What is an osteoclasts?

A

Bone destroying cells

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58
Q

What is canaliculi?

A

Processes from osteocytes (matured osteoblasts)

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59
Q

What is the deepest structure of the bone?

A

Medullary Cavity

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60
Q

What is the most superficial structure of the bone?

A

Periostuim

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61
Q

What are the two types of bone?

A

Compact & Cancellous

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62
Q

What is a compact bone?

A

Mostly a solid matrix of cells that is heavier than cancellous bone.

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63
Q

What is cancellous bone?

A

Lacey network of bone with small marrow filled spaces.

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64
Q

What are the three types of bone layers?

A

Circumferential
Concentric
Interstitial

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65
Q

What is circumferential layering?

A

Layering seen in most superficial bones of the adult. (outer part of the bone)

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66
Q

What is concentric layering?

A

Bulk of layering seen in haverian conversion systems. (Circular layering)

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67
Q

What is interstitial layering?

A

Fills in between where holes are present (a chunk of concentric).

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68
Q

How is bone ossified?

A

Via Osteoblasts and Osteocytes

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69
Q

What are the series of events that occur to form bone via the osteoblast?

A
  1. Start formation of all bone
  2. Synthesize collagen and proteoglycans (matrix)
  3. Once surrounded by the matrix it starts to mineralize.
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70
Q

Once the osteoblast is surrounded by the matrix and starts to mineralize it becomes what?

A

Osteocyte

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71
Q

What are the two processes the osteocyte undergoes to continue bone ossification?

A

Intramembraneous ossification

Endochondrial ossification

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72
Q

True or False; every osteocyte was once an osteoblast.

A

True

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73
Q

What are the three types of bone formation mechanisms?

A

Endochondrial
Intramembraneous
Sutural

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74
Q

What bone formation mechanism is used to form the mandibular condyle?

A

Endochondrial Ossification

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75
Q

In endochondrial ossification how is bone formed?

A

It is based on cartilage models, hyaline is surrounded by perichondrium (has a blood supply). Basically cartilage is a temporary structure and as it dies it is replaced by bone.

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76
Q

In endochondrial ossification how is the matrix formed?

A

Chondrocytes

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77
Q

What are the main steps of endochondrial ossification?

A
  1. Osteoblasts are created in the perichondrium
  2. Cartilage dies as mineralization occurs
  3. Perichondrium becomes periosteum
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78
Q

In intramembraneous ossification how is bone formed?

A

Osteoblasts form an osteoid between connective tissue membranes.

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79
Q

How does bone mature in intramembraneous ossification?

A

Directed by periosteum it matures via mineralization.

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80
Q

While forming what is the structure of the bone like during intramembraneous ossification?

A

Unstable due to islands of soft tissue within forming bone.

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82
Q

What structures are formed via intramembraneous ossification?

A

The maxilla and Ramus and body of the mandible.

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83
Q

True or False; teeth are static.

A

False

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84
Q

What are growth and bone changes influenced by?

A

Pressure and Tension

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85
Q

What does tension activate?

A

Tension activates osteoblasts.

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86
Q

What does pressure activate?

A

Pressure causes osteoclasts.

87
Q

What does bone store?

A

Bone stores massive amounts of calcium.

88
Q

What controls the storage of calcium?

A

Hormones

89
Q

What are the sequence of events for bone repair?

A
  1. Clot formation
  2. Stabilization
  3. Callus (new union of bone)
90
Q

What is the difference between original bone and callus bone?

A

The new union of bone is much stronger than the original bone.

91
Q

What is the function of fluid connective tissue?

A
  1. Transports oxygen
  2. Transports carbon dioxide
  3. Immunological functions
92
Q

What is fluid connective tissue made up of?

A

Blood and Plasma

93
Q

What is the composition of blood?

A
  1. Cells and cell fragments (blood proper/formed elements)

2. Liquid matrix (plasma)

94
Q

What percentage of the blood composition is made up of blood/formed elements/ blood proper?

A

45%

95
Q

What percentage of the blood composition is made up of plasma?

A

55%

96
Q

What is plasma comprised of?

A

Straw colored fluid; that is 92% water and 8% proteins

97
Q

What three proteins make up the 8% of plasma?

A

Albumin (58%)
Globulins (38%)
Fibrinogen (4%)

98
Q

Which protein helps maintain osmotic pressure?

A

Albumin

99
Q

How does Albumin maintain osmotic pressure?

A

Attracts water to stay within the vascular system and maintain its physiological “closed system”

100
Q

Which plasma protein is important in clotting?

A

Fibrinogen

101
Q

What are the formed elements?

A

Erythrocytes (RBC’s)
Leukocytes (WBC’s)
Platelets (Thrombocytes)

102
Q

95% of formed elements are what?

A

Arithrocytes

103
Q

Arithrocytes are major components of what?

A

Hemoglobin

104
Q

What is Hematopoiesis?

A

Making blood

105
Q

Where does hematopoiesis occur?

A
  1. Fetus: many tissues
  2. Red Marrow
  3. Lymphatic tissues
106
Q

What is considered a starter cell for the formation of blood?

A

Hemocytoblasts (Stem Cells)

107
Q

What precursor cells develop from a hemocytoblast?

A
Proerythroblast
Lymphoblast
Megakaryoblast
Myeloblast
Monoblast
108
Q

If vitamin B12 is added to proerythroblast what is created?

A

Erythrocyte (RBC’s)

109
Q

What does a lymphoblast give rise to?

A

Lymphoctye

110
Q

What is a lymphocyte reffered to as?

A

Agranulocyte

111
Q

What does a megakaryoblast give rise to?

A

Megakaryocyte

112
Q

Pieces of a megakaryocyte give rise to what?

A

Platelets (cell fragments)

113
Q

What does myeloblast give rise to?

A

Granulocytes: Basofil, Esinophil, and Neutrophil

114
Q

What does a monoblast give rise to?

A

Monocyte

115
Q

What are the 7-8 Mature Cell types?

A
Erythrocytes
Lymphocyte
Megakaryocyte (Platelets)
Basofil
Ensinophil
Neutrophil
Monocyte
116
Q

What shape are Erythrocytes?

A

Bioconcave because they have lost there nucleus

117
Q

What is the function of the Erythrocytes?

A
  1. Carry oxygen to tissues

2. Removal of carbon dioxide

118
Q

What is the life span of erythrocytes?

A

110 - 120 days (3-4 months)

119
Q

What percentage of oxygen is carried by hemoglobin?

A

97%

120
Q

Why is flexibility of an erythrocyte cell an important characteristic?

A

It allows the cell to adapt readily to irregular shapes to fit into tight spaces.

121
Q

What happens to the erythrocyte if one amino acid is substituted in the beta chain of the hemoglobin?

A

The erythrocyte becomes insoluble; the cell becomes rigid and brittle

122
Q

What disease is associated with brittle/rigid erythrocytes?

A

Sickle Cell Anemia

123
Q

What is hemogolbin?

A

4 Heme groups and one Iron++

124
Q

When Iron binds with oxygen what is the hemoglobin called?

A

Oxyhemogolbin

125
Q

What is it called when hemoglobin bonds to carbon dioxide?

A

Carbaminohemoglobin

126
Q

What binds together to form Carboxyhemoglobin?

A

Carbon Monoxide and hemoglobin

127
Q

What is unique about Carboxyhemoglobin?

A

It is irreversible and binds better than any other gas.

128
Q

What does the cell membrane of the Erythrocyte contain?

A

Integral membrane proteins

129
Q

What allows the erythrocyte to recognize your blood type?

A

Glygophorin binding of different oligosaccharides chains.

130
Q

How is your blood type determined?

A

Composition of oligosaccharide chains.

131
Q

What is the shape of Leukocytes?

A

Spherical

132
Q

What are the functions of Leukocytes?

A
  1. Protection from foreign microorganisms

2. Remove dead blood cells and debirs

133
Q

How do leukocytes move?

A
  1. Blood (move with circulation)

2. Ameobid in tissues (moves outside of circulation)

134
Q

What are the two families of leukocytes?

A

Granulocytes & Agranulocytes

135
Q

What three cells are considered granulocytes?

A
  1. Neutrophils
  2. Basophils
  3. Eosinophils
136
Q

What is another name for a neutrophil?

A

Polymorphonucleocytes (PMN)

137
Q

What two cell types are agranulocytes?

A

Lymphocytes & Monocytes

138
Q

What is the most common leukocytes?

A

Neutrophils 60-70%

139
Q

What lines the inner surface of the nuclear envelope?

A

Heterochormatin

140
Q

In a neutrophil how many lobes does the nucleus have?

A

2-5 (usually 3)

141
Q

Where does a neutrophil receive its energy?

A

Glycogen

142
Q

Neutrophils are made up of specific granules called what?

A

Collection of Enzymes; alkaline phosphate, collagenase, lactoferrin and 2/3 of the cell is a lysozyme

143
Q

How do neutrophils work?

A

They use the collection of enzymes to break down and kill foreign debris.

144
Q

What are the primary lysosomes of neutrophils?

A

Azurophilic granules

145
Q

What is the life span of neutrophils?

A

Short half-life (couple days)

146
Q

What are the four compartments of a neutrophil?

A
  1. Medullary formation (formed in medullary cavity)
  2. Medullary storage
  3. Circulatory
  4. Marginating
  5. Connective Tissue
147
Q

What is diapedesis?

A

The process in which neutrophils enter circulation from connective tissue.

148
Q

What is the function of a neutrophil?

A

Phagocytosis

149
Q

The presence of neutrophils is due to what?

A

Stimuli

150
Q

What is considered stimuli?

A

Muscle activity, epinephrine release, bacterial infections

151
Q

True or False; neutrophils are our first line of defense.

A

True; neutrophils are the 1st cell that shows up during of inflammation.

152
Q

What occurs when the body cannot produce enough mature neutrophils?

A

The body will dump non-mature neutrophils which will indicate (in a blood test) you have used up all of your 1st line of defense.

153
Q

Eosinophils constitute what percentage of leukocytes?

A

2-4%

154
Q

What is the nucleus of an eosinophil?

A

Bilobed nucleus

155
Q

True or False; the eosinophil is poorly developed but does contain a ER, Golgi and mitochondria.

A

True; even though it has these structures it receives its energy from Glycogen because the structures are poorly developed.

156
Q

What are the specific granules of Eosinophils?

A

Lysosomes in high numbers.

157
Q

How are eosinophils active in an allergic reaction?

A
  1. Phagocytosis of antigen-antibody complexes

2. Aid in Killing certain parasites.

158
Q

True or False; an eosinophil will attempt to suppress your bodies reaction to allergies.

A

True

159
Q

What is the least common type of leukocyte?

A

Basophil (less than 1%)

160
Q

What is unique about the heterochromatin in a basophil?

A

It has less than other leukocytes.

161
Q

How does a basophil work in an allergic reaction?

A

Accentuates an allergic reaction.

162
Q

What are the specific granules in a basophil?

A

Heparin and Histamine

163
Q

What is a basophil capable of?

A

Diapedesis

164
Q

What is a basophil similar to?

A

Mast Cells

165
Q

What does Heparin do in an allergic reaction?

A

Allows blood to flow more rapidly.

166
Q

What is unique about the nucleus of a basophil?

A

Irregular S-Shaped lobes.

167
Q

What is the main difference between a Monocyte and Leukocyte?

A

A monocyte has many mitochondria and a well developed Golgi complex.

168
Q

What shape is the nucleus of a monocyte?

A

C-shaped

169
Q

True or False; a monocyte has more heterochromatin than leukocytes.

A

False; it has less heterochromatin than leukocytes

170
Q

When does a monocyte become a macrophage?

A

As soon as the monocyte leaves circulation.

171
Q

What is the function of macrophage?

A

Phagocytize microorganisms, debris and dead neutrophils. “Clean up after neutrophils”

172
Q

True or False; the monocyte/macrophage is the dominant cell after neutrophils.

A

True

173
Q

Where does differentiation of the monocyte/macrophage occur?

A

Connective Tissue

174
Q

What are the two main groups of Lymphocytes?

A

B-Lymphocytes

T-Lymphocytes

175
Q

Which group of lymphocytes are there more of?

A

T-lymphocytes (90-95%)

176
Q

True or False; lymphocytes are typically small.

A

False, they are highly variable in size.

177
Q

What do b-lymphocytes differentiate into?

A

plasma cells

178
Q

What do b-lymphocytes produce?

A

Antibodies

179
Q

What are b-lymphocytes considered to be?

A

Presenting Cells; the find the problem, remember it, and produce a defense for future use.

180
Q

B-lymphocytes increase what?

A

rER

181
Q

What is another name for a t-lymphocyte?

A

T-helper cells

182
Q

What is the function of t-lymphocytes?

A

The cellular arm of the immune response.

183
Q

Where do platelets arise from?

A

Megakaryocyte

184
Q

What is the shape of a platelet?

A

Irregular in shape, they are a small amount of cytoplasm surrounded by a membrane.

185
Q

Where do platelets function?

A

Hemostasis: waiting for something to happen

186
Q

What are the two cytoplasmic zones of platelets?

A

Hyalomere

Granulomere

187
Q

What is hyalomere?

A

Cytoskeletal fibers such as microtubule and filaments.

188
Q

What is granulomere?

A

Organelles and vesicles

189
Q

What do the vesicles of the granulomere hold?

A

Serotonin

190
Q

How often are platelets replaced in the body?

A

They are completely replaced every 10 days.

191
Q

What is the function of serotonin?

A

Potent vasoconstrictor (slows bleeding)

192
Q

What is the cascade of events that occurs to fix a vessel?

A
  1. Adhere to damaged wall
  2. Contacting collagen within a wall, the platelets will stick and swell forming a…
  3. Platelet plug
  4. Prothrombin becomes thrombin
  5. Fibrinogen becomes fibrin
  6. Clot Retraction (integrity of the vessel is obtained)
193
Q

Where does muscle tissue arise from?

A

Mesoderm

194
Q

What is muscle tissue controlled by?

A

CNS

195
Q

What are the types of Muscle tissue?

A

Skeletal
Smooth
Cardiac

196
Q

True or false; all muscle tissue types are involuntary

A

true

197
Q

What is skeletal muscle responsible for?

A

Locomotion
Expression
Posture
Heat Generation

198
Q

What is smooth muscle responsible for?

A

Organs, glands and vessel linings

199
Q

What is cardiac muscle responsible for?

A

Heart & Major Vessels

200
Q

Where is skeletal muscle located?

A

Attached to bone and skin

201
Q

What can skeletal muscle exhibit that cardiac and smooth muscle cannot?

A

Recruitment; meaning they can activate more skeletal muscle when needed (lifting weights)

202
Q

True or False; all muscle tissue types can run an oxygen debt.

A

False, skeletal muscle is the only muscle tissue type that can run an oxygen debt.

203
Q

What does skeletal muscle produce from an oxygen debt?

A

Produces Lactic Acid

204
Q

What are the four characteristics of skeletal muscle?

A
  1. Contractibility
  2. Excitable
  3. Extensible (stretching)
  4. Elasticity (returns to original size)
205
Q

What is the shape of smooth muscle?

A

Spindle shaped cells

206
Q

What are the functional differences of smooth muscle?

A
  1. Contraction is slower
  2. CANNOT have an oxygen debt
  3. Autorhythmicity (inherent speed)
207
Q

What is the shape of cardiac muscle?

A

Long-branching cells

208
Q

What are the functional considerations of cardiac muscle?

A
  1. Intercalated discs (allow contraction as a whole)
  2. No Oxygen debt
  3. Autorhythmicity (pace-maker)
209
Q

What is the functional unit of nerve tissue?

A

Neuron: cell body, axon & denidrites-extensive rER and Golgi

210
Q

Is repair a capability of nerve tissue?

A

Yes, but it is limited.

211
Q

What is the function of nerve tissue?

A

Receive stimuli and transmit action potentials.

212
Q

What is the main function of the nucleus in nerve tissue?

A

Present for maintenance.

213
Q

What is the function of Myelination?

A
  1. Increases conduction speed of action potentials.
  2. Schwann cells create myelin
  3. Nodes of Ranveir: gaps in myelination