Timed exams

Question 1

Ureteroliths and uroliths in horses, which are the two most common types?

Answer 1

Calcium phosphate (uroliths) and calcium carbonate (ureteroliths)

They are not terrible common in horses, but these are the most common in the horse

Question 2

Bovine urolithiasis results in what most commonly?

Answer 2

Rupture of the urethra: urine leaks into all the ventral tissues and causes this massive ventral edema, which progresses to necrosis and sometimes gangrene.

Question 3

Lung sounds bovine pneumathorax vs. fibrinous pleuropneumonia

Answer 3

Pneumothorax = free air moves dorsally, no lung sound in dorsal chest

Fibrinous pleuropneumonia = sounds dorsal chest

Aspiration pneumonia = cranioventral lungs sound

Question 4

Medial patellar luxation signalment and c/s

Answer 4

Small breeds
Hopping, maybe skipping
No cranial drawer sign
No discernable lameness

Ddx
Rickettsial disease: shifting-leg lameness, generalized lymphadenopathy

Question 5

Bovine Free gas bloat

Answer 5

Type 1 vagal indigestion

Associated with swollen mediastinal LNs caused by pneumonia

The signals to or from dorsal rumen receptors, which detect gas pressure and open the cardia, are compromissed such that eructation does not occur normally and free gas bloat occurs.

c/s: weight loss, calf feels full, poor appetite. Left side abdomen gas filled = left flank, poor rumen motility, percussion and auscultation = chronic pneumonia

Question 6

Nervous coccidiosis in cattle, mechanism

Answer 6

Elaboration of a heat-lilable neurotoxin

Eimeria spp. coccidia

Question 7

What medication should be administered to a cat with hyperkalemia to antagonize the myocardiotoxicity?

Answer 7

Calcium gluconate or sodium bicarbonate (moves potassium intracellularly), B-agonists (terbutaline or albuterol), and regular insulin plus dextrose.

Urinary tract obstruction: hyperkalemia in cats due to impaired potassium excretion, bradycardia (dogs)

Question 8

Hyphema in dogs (hemorrhage in the anterior chamber of the eye)

Answer 8

-Uveodermatologic syndrome
-Hypertension
-Lymphoma
-Anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity

Question 9

Traumatic reticuloperitonitis

Answer 9

Leading cause of chronic indigestion or failure of omasal transport in cattle

-Oral magnet, parenteral antibiotics, NSAIDs
-Abscess drainage and/or surgery

Question 10

Dog with positive heartworm antigen test, negative for microfilariae, 30 days on macrocyclic lactone prevention

Answer 10

Dog had a prepatent heartworm infection when she was started on prevention

Prepatent period of heartworms in dogs is 6-7 months. Test performed within that timeframe since initial infection may provide negative results due to lack of circulation female adult worms antigen.

Question 11

Grade 1 intervertebral disc disease (early)

Answer 11

IVDD
-Chondrodysplastic breeds predisposed

Tx
Weight loss program for 4 weeks, cage rest, multimodal pain control, NSAIDs alone not sufficient.

Question 12

Treatment for exhausted dehydrated perfrmance horses

Answer 12

IV isotonic replacement fluids, 500kg = 30 liters for 5% dehydrated
(Plasmalyte, Normosol R)

Question 13

St. John’s Wort toxicosis

Answer 13

Acts as primary photosensitizer and can lead to photophobia, conjunctivitis, sloughed skin, and icterus

Question 14

Blue-green algae

Answer 14

-Causes sudden death

Question 15

Slaframine

Answer 15

Causes hypersalivation

Question 16

Cantharidin

Answer 16

Causes colic

Question 17

Eosinophilic Granuloma Complex

Answer 17

Hypersensitivity reaction in cats

Tx
Initial: treat with 7 day course of prednisolone BID, then taper

Blood work: high eosinophils, most everything normal

Question 18

Female ferret, Blood glucose insulinoma
Acute onset of severe lethargy, depression, thin body condition. HR 200 (normal 200-250) bpm, spleen enlarged, no masses palpable

Blood glucose low

Answer 18

Prednisone and diazoxide alone or combination

Question 19

What is the treatment for this condition? what is the condition?

Answer 19

3rd AV block or complete heart block Tx = pacemaker implantation. There is no consistent PR interval; the ventricular beats are scape beats. Atropine can be considere, but it is typically not effective in 3rd degree AV block.

Question 20

Distemper virus infection, dogs common age of susceptibility?

Answer 20

3-6 months

Question 21

Ventricular septal defect in 2-3 mts calf, what are the PE findings, c/s? Hint: most common congenital defect in cattle

Answer 21

-Weakness, failure to thrive
-Normal temp
-Rapid RR, HR
-Loud holosystolic (begin at the first sound and last until the second heart sound) murmur on both sides of the thorax
-Maximal intensity in the region of the tricuspid valve
-Heard in the left side with maximal intensity near the pulmonic valve (far forward)
-Pulmonary edema, secondary penumonia

-Right ventricular dilation and hypertrophy.
-Increased blood flow through the right side creates relative pulmonary stenosis

Question 22

Broiler flock, mortality, necropsy lesions: fibrinous pericarditis, pericarditis, perihepatitis and air sacculitis. What is the infectious agent “triad of lesions”

Answer 22

Escherichia coli
Large numbers of E. coli are found in poultry houses due to fecal contamination.

If the bird survives septicemia, they often develop subacute fibrinopurulent airsacculitis, pericarditis and perihepatitis as well as lymphocytic destruction of the bursa and thymus.

Question 23

Goat, fed too much grain, given following c/s, where is the lesion?

Answer 23

-Blind, intact pupillary light reflex, opisthotonic, hypertonic, hyperreflexic and tetraplegic

Grain overload = polioencephalomalacia

Cerebrum

Question 24

Diagnostic tests for Dermatomyositis?

Answer 24

Skin + muscle biopsy

Question 25

Older dog with sudden onset of peripheral vestibular signs is a classic presentation for what? what test should always be included in work up?

Answer 25

Geriatric vestibular disease

-Thyroid hormone assays are a must because prevelance of hypothyroidism as a cause of peripheral neuropathies, including the vestibular nerver.

Question 26

What is this rhythm in horses?

Answer 26

Atrial fibrillation

Question 27

Septicemic cutaneous ulcerative disease in turtles

Answer 27

Citrobacter freundii pathogen

-Petechia on the skin, liver necrosis
-Chloramphenicol is the tx of choice

Question 28

Epizootic bovine abortion

Answer 28

Deltaproteobacterium causative agent identified in 2005

Question 29

What is the most effective treatment for uncontrolled diabetes?

Answer 29

Cat currently receiving 15 units of protamine zinc insulin every 12 hours with meals

PE: mentally doll

Tx: external beam radiation therapy
Signs and symptoms of acromegaly

Question 30

Which is the safest calcium IV treatment given Ca gluconate or Ca chloride?

Answer 30

Best choice for treatment of tetanic patient (hypocalcemia) = calcium gluconate

Question 32

Arabian foal doing poorly, diarrhea scalding, crusts on the face, bilateral nasal discharge, pale MMs, what additional step do you recommend for the owner/farmer?

Answer 32

DNA test for severe combined immunodeficiency
Autosomal recessive genetic disease of Arabians.
Affected foals have lymphopenia, abscense of serum IgM, infection

Usually euthanized before 5 mts of age

Question 33

Chlamydophilia psittaci, or avian chlamidiosis treatment with doxycycline. How long should you treat for?

Answer 33

45 days

Question 34

Cryptococcosis neoformans in DSH cat “Roman nose” what are common diagnostic findings?

Answer 34

Radiographs of the head: increased opacity and turbinate destruction

Yeast-like fungus which has narrow based budding

-Granulomatous masses

Question 35

Are cats usually affected by Blastomyces or Asperguillus?

Answer 35

No, not usually