Thyroid Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

What are the main thyroid hormones?

A

T3 (triiodo-thyronine) and T4 (tetraiodo-thyronine/thyroxine)

T4 is 93% of thyroid hormones, while T3 is 7%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the primary function of thyroid hormones?

A

Regulation of metabolic rate, growth, development, neurologic function, reproduction, cardiovascular system, skeletal muscle, and bone remodeling

Thyroid hormones affect body heat and oxygen consumption.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the T4/T3 ratio released in blood?

A

Approximately 13:1

T4 is converted to T3 mostly in peripheral tissues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the role of the Sodium-Iodide Symporter (NIS)?

A

Iodine trapping in the thyroid gland

It concentrates iodide from the blood by 30 times.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is organification in the thyroid gland?

A

The incorporation of I2 (inorganic iodine) into thyroglobulin (TG)

It involves iodination and coupling catalyzed by Thyroid Peroxidase (TPO).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the dietary iodine requirement?

A

1 mg I-/week (50 mg/year)

Needs increase with body mass, pregnancy, and lactation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the half-life of free T4 and T3 in serum?

A

Free T4 ~1 week, Free T3 ~1 day

Only free T4 and T3 are considered biologically active.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the function of peripheral deiodinases?

A

Regulation of thyroid hormone bioavailability

D1, D2, and D3 are the main types, converting T4 to T3 and rT3.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the two mechanisms of thyroid hormone action?

A

Genomic and non-genomic mechanisms

Genomic involves binding to nuclear receptors; non-genomic effects occur rapidly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the physiological effects of elevated thyroid hormones?

A

Increased heart rate, weight loss, heat intolerance, anxiety, and tremors

Symptoms include exophthalmos in Graves’ disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the hypothalamus-pituitary-thyroid axis?

A

TRH → TSH → T3/T4 with negative feedback inhibition

TRH is produced in the hypothalamus and stimulates TSH release from the anterior pituitary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are stimulatory factors for thyroid hormone secretion?

A
  • TSH
  • Thyroid-stimulating antibodies
  • Increased thyroid-binding globulins
  • Pregnancy

These factors promote hormone synthesis and secretion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are inhibitory factors for thyroid hormone secretion?

A
  • Iodine deficiency
  • Excessive iodine intake
  • Perchlorate
  • Thiocyanate
  • Propylthiouracil
  • Methimazole
  • Decreased TBG
  • Liver disease

These factors can suppress thyroid function.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the common causes of hyperthyroidism?

A
  • Graves’ disease
  • Thyroid adenoma
  • Excessive TRH/TSH secretion
  • Exogenous thyroid hormone

Graves’ disease is the most common cause.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the symptoms of hypothyroidism?

A
  • Decreased heart rate
  • Cold intolerance
  • Goiter
  • Myxedema
  • Fatigue
  • Digestive issues
  • Reduced brain function
  • Unexplained weight gain
  • Depression
  • Hair loss
  • Muscle weakness
  • Dry itchy skin

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is a common cause.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is cretinism?

A

Congenital hypothyroidism often due to iodide deficiency

Symptoms include pot-bellied appearance, pale skin, puffy face, protruding umbilicus, and protruberant tongue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is Non-thyroidal Illness Syndrome (NTIS)?

A

Low T3 levels with normal TSH in severe illness

It complicates treatment decisions due to overlapping symptoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the main treatment for hypothyroidism?

A

T4 (Synthroid), T3 (Cytomel), Armour (T3/T4 extracted from pig thyroid glands)

These treatments help restore normal hormone levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the primary treatment for hyperthyroidism?

A

Propylthiouracil (PTU) and Methimazole

These medications block thyroid hormone production and peripheral conversion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the main treatments for hypothyroidism?

A

T4 (Synthroid), T3 (Cytomel), Armour (T3/T4 extracted from pig thyroid glands)

These treatments aim to replace or supplement the deficient thyroid hormones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the main treatments for hyperthyroidism?

A

propylthiouracil (PTU), Methimazole, radioactive iodine, thyroid gland surgery

PTU and Methimazole block thyroid hormone production.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is a notable concern regarding patients treated with Synthroid?

A

About 1/5 of patients remain symptomatic and are not happy

This indicates a growing concern in the treatment of hypothyroidism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the structure of thyroid hormones?

A

Two linked tyrosines with attached iodine molecules

This structure is essential for their function in regulating metabolism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How are thyroid hormones transported in the blood?

A

Bound to proteins

This binding is crucial for their stability and transport in the circulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the mechanism of thyroid hormone function?

A

Mediated through intracellular nuclear receptors and non-genomic mechanisms

This dual mechanism allows for a wide range of physiological effects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How should thyroid hormones be administered?

A

Orally, on an empty stomach or >1 hour after eating, avoiding antacids

This ensures optimal absorption of the hormones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What axis regulates thyroid hormone production?

A

Hypothalamus (TRH) - pituitary (TSH) - thyroid (T3, T4) axis

This axis is critical for maintaining thyroid hormone levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which gender is more commonly affected by thyroid disorders?

A

Females (1/8 in lifetime)

This prevalence highlights the need for awareness and screening in women.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which type of thyroid disorders are more common?

A

Primary thyroid disorders

Primary disorders involve the thyroid gland itself, while secondary and tertiary involve the pituitary and hypothalamus, respectively.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the diagnoses to make with serum values for T3/T4, TRH, and TSH?

A

Hyperthyroidism, Hypothyroidism, Non-thyroidal Illness Syndrome, Subclinical hypothyroidism, Subclinical hyperthyroidism

Understanding these conditions is crucial for proper management of thyroid health.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

True or False: Hormone changes with thyroid dysfunction are diagnostic.

A

True

These changes provide essential clues for diagnosing thyroid disorders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Fill in the blank: Thyroid hormones are stored in _______.

A

follicles

Follicles are the structures in the thyroid gland where hormones are synthesized and stored.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

T or F: T3 & 4 increased the BMR?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

T 3 & 4 are synthesized from what molecules?

A

Iodine (3 atoms in T3; 4 atoms in T4)
Tyrosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

compare and contrast the PK-PK profiles of T3 & T4

A

T3:
more potent, shorter duration of action; active TH hormone
T4:
less potent, longer duration of action, pro-TH hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

T or F: The thyroid produces most of the active TH T3

A

False
most of the active T3 form are produced from T4 in the periphery through a process called deiodination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what are the differences b/t T3 & rT3

A

The emphatical formula remains unchanged; however the arrangements are different
T3: much more active due to cleavage of iodine from the tyrosine residue at the carboxyl-terminal end of Triiodothyronine

rT3: way less active and more inert due to cleavage of iodine from the linked tyrosine residue in triiodothyronine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Amount of dietary iodine positively correlates w/ what

A

body mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what food source has the highest I content

A

salt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

most thyroid hormones bind to what?

A

TBG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

T or F: TBG has a much higher affinity for T4 than T3

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

T or F: T3 is an intracellular peptide-hormone that targets nuclear receptors to alter gene expression

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Injection of a high does of T4 is administered to a pt. w/ hyperthyroidism. 2 weeks later, he is brought back to the clinic for monitoring and the lab tech. makes note that the pt.’s BMR is still to high. How would you as the physician explain this to the lab tech.

A

T4 has a relatively long half-life in serum. It can linger in the bloodstream for several days before being taken up by tissue.

In this clinical vignette, the pt. already had a high BMR to begin with, so the exogenous T4 will not be taken up by tissue.

The goal of this therapy is to steadily decrease BMR as the T4 gradually decreases to normal levels. This is why reevaluating the BMR does not become clinically significant until 6 weeks-post injection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

T or F: the neurohypophysis is basically an extension of the hypothalamus.

A

True
The neurohypophysis does not actually produce its own endogenous hormones. The hormones are actually produced in the hypothalamus and then travel to the posterior pituitary to be stored

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the normal weight range of the thyroid gland?

A

5 – 25 grams

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the two main lobes of the thyroid gland connected by?

A

Isthmus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are C cells in the thyroid gland responsible for secreting?

A

Calcitonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What congenital anomaly is the most common clinically significant issue of the thyroid?

A

Thyroglossal duct cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which hormone stimulates thyroid growth and hormone synthesis?

A

TSH (Thyroid-stimulating hormone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the two primary thyroid hormones produced by the thyroid gland?

A
  • Thyroxine (T4)
  • Triiodothyronine (T3)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is thyrotoxicosis?

A

Hypermetabolic state caused by elevated circulating levels of free T3 and T4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the most common cause of thyrotoxicosis?

A

Graves disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the primary characteristic of hyperthyroidism?

A

Excess thyroid hormone synthesis and secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the key clinical feature of thyroid storm?

A

Abrupt onset of severe hyperthyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the most common cause of primary hyperthyroidism?

A

Graves disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are the symptoms of hyperthyroidism related to the sympathetic nervous system?

A
  • Tremor
  • Hyperactivity
  • Emotional lability
  • Anxiety
  • Insomnia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

True or False: Hyperthyroidism is associated with weight gain.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the typical lab finding for diagnosing hyperthyroidism?

A

Low TSH value with increased free T4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the treatment for hyperthyroidism?

A
  • β-blockers
  • Thionamides (e.g., methimazole)
  • Iodine solution
  • Radioactive iodine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What autoimmune disorder is the most common cause of endogenous hyperthyroidism?

A

Graves disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the clinical triad associated with Graves disease?

A
  • Hyperthyroidism
  • Infiltrative ophthalmopathy
  • Localized, infiltrative dermopathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the most common antibody subtype found in Graves disease?

A

Thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin (TSI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What causes exophthalmos in Graves disease?

A

Increase in volume of retro-orbital connective tissues and extraocular muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is pretibial myxedema?

A

Thickening of the dermis associated with Graves disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is Hashimoto’s thyroiditis?

A

An autoimmune disorder causing hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the characteristic change in thyroid tissue in Hashimoto’s thyroiditis?

A

Lymphocytic infiltrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the main pathological feature of subacute granulomatous thyroiditis?

A

Viral infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the primary feature of myxedema?

A

Severe hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the function of calcitonin?

A

Promotes absorption of calcium by skeletal system and inhibits breakdown of bone

70
Q

What is the typical age range for peak incidence of Graves disease?

A

20 - 40 years

71
Q

What is the risk associated with thyroid hormone binding to nuclear receptors in target cells?

A

Increased transcription of target genes

72
Q

Fill in the blank: The presence of _______ at the base of the tongue may indicate ectopic thyroid tissue.

A

Lingual thyroid

73
Q

What do T cells secrete that stimulates fibroblast proliferation?

74
Q

What is the most common area affected in infiltrative dermopathy associated with Graves disease?

75
Q

What is the characteristic thickening of the dermis in Graves disease called?

A

Pretibial myxedema

76
Q

What is the appearance of the thyroid in Graves disease?

A

Diffuse hypertrophy and hyperplasia of thyroid follicular epithelial cells

77
Q

In Graves disease, what is the appearance of colloid within the follicle lumen?

A

Pale with scalloped margins

78
Q

What type of cells infiltrate the interstitium in Graves disease?

A

Lymphocytes

79
Q

What is the term for the bulging eyes seen in Graves disease?

A

Exophthalmos

80
Q

What is the treatment option for large goiters in Graves disease?

A

Thyroidectomy

81
Q

What laboratory finding is most likely present in a patient with Graves disease?

A

Anti-TSH receptor antibodies

82
Q

What is the primary cause of hypothyroidism?

A

Structural or functional derangement that interferes with production of thyroid hormone

83
Q

What is the most common cause of hypothyroidism in iodine-sufficient areas?

A

Hashimoto thyroiditis

84
Q

What is the prevalence of hypothyroidism in women compared to men?

A

About 10-fold more common

85
Q

What is the most sensitive screening test for hypothyroidism?

A

Measurement of serum TSH level

86
Q

What is myxedema?

A

Hypothyroidism in older child or adult

87
Q

What skin changes occur in myxedema?

A

Cool and pale due to decreased blood flow

88
Q

What are the clinical features of infantile hypothyroidism?

A

Severe cognitive impairment, short stature, coarse facial features, protruding tongue, umbilical hernia

89
Q

What characterizes autoimmune hypothyroidism?

A

Presence of circulating autoantibodies against thyroglobulin and thyroid peroxidase

90
Q

What is the role of CD8+ cytotoxic T cells in Hashimoto thyroiditis?

A

They may destroy thyroid follicular cells

91
Q

What type of thyroiditis is associated with viral infections?

A

Subacute (granulomatous) thyroiditis

92
Q

What is the typical demographic affected by subacute thyroiditis?

A

Women aged 40 - 50 years

93
Q

What triggers subacute thyroiditis?

A

Viral infection

94
Q

What is the histological feature of Hashimoto thyroiditis?

A

Extensive infiltration of thyroid parenchyma by mononuclear inflammatory infiltrate

95
Q

What is the autoimmune disease characterized by thyroid gland destruction?

A

Hashimoto thyroiditis

96
Q

What type of thyroiditis is fibrous in nature?

A

Fibrous thyroiditis (Reidel)

97
Q

What is the most common demographic affected by subacute granulomatous thyroiditis?

A

Women aged 40 - 50 years, with a ratio of 4:1 compared to men.

98
Q

What often triggers subacute granulomatous thyroiditis?

A

Viral infection.

99
Q

What is the typical duration for hyperthyroidism associated with subacute granulomatous thyroiditis?

A

Transient, usually decreases in 2 - 6 weeks.

100
Q

What is the pathogenesis of subacute granulomatous thyroiditis believed to involve?

A

Virus-induced host tissue damage stimulating cytotoxic T-lymphocyte response.

101
Q

What are the histological features of early subacute granulomatous thyroiditis?

A

Scattered follicles disrupted/replaced by neutrophils forming microabscesses.

102
Q

What characterizes the later stages of subacute granulomatous thyroiditis?

A

Chronic inflammatory infiltrate and fibrosis may replace areas of injury.

103
Q

What is Riedel (Fibrous) Thyroiditis?

A

A rare condition with extensive fibrosis involving thyroid and contiguous neck structures.

104
Q

What disease does Riedel thyroiditis clinically simulate?

A

Thyroid carcinoma.

105
Q

What is the characteristic histological feature of Riedel thyroiditis?

A

Atrophic thyroid follicles with dense inflammatory infiltrate and fibrosis.

106
Q

What is the typical presentation of subacute lymphocytic thyroiditis?

A

Painless goiter, mild transient hyperthyroidism, or both.

107
Q

What demographic is more commonly affected by subacute lymphocytic thyroiditis?

A

Middle-aged adults, more common in women.

108
Q

What antibodies are often present in subacute lymphocytic thyroiditis?

A

Antithyroid peroxidase antibodies.

109
Q

What is a potential progression of subacute lymphocytic thyroiditis?

A

Hypothyroidism in 1/3 of patients over 10 years.

110
Q

What is the typical symptom duration for subacute lymphocytic thyroiditis?

A

Symptoms for about 2-8 weeks.

111
Q

What are the key features of Hashimoto’s thyroiditis?

A

Autoantibodies, lymphoid follicles, and Hurthle cell metaplasia.

112
Q

What is the definition of hyperthyroidism?

A

Increased thyroid hormone leading to a hypermetabolic state.

113
Q

What is a thyroid storm?

A

Abrupt onset of hyperthyroidism with fever, considered an emergency.

114
Q

What does Graves’ disease involve?

A

Hyperthyroidism, diffuse hyperplasia, infiltrative ophthalmopathy, and dermatopathy.

115
Q

What is the definition of hypothyroidism?

A

Decreased thyroid hormone levels.

116
Q

What is the common cause of thyroid pain?

A

Subacute granulomatous thyroiditis.

117
Q

Fill in the blank: The presence of large foreign body giant cells with inflammatory destruction of thyroid follicles is characteristic of _______.

A

Riedel thyroiditis.

118
Q

What is the typical thyroid presentation in an infant with growth restriction, dry skin, and a protuberant abdomen?

A

Infantile hypothyroidism.

119
Q

What histological findings are associated with subacute granulomatous thyroiditis?

A

Multinucleate giant cells enclosing pools of colloid.

120
Q

What is a goiter?

A

Enlargement of the thyroid gland

Can be diffuse non-toxic or multinodular

121
Q

What are the causes of diffuse non-toxic goiter?

A

Dietary iodine deficiency, ingestion of goitrogens, hereditary enzymatic defects

Goitrogens include cabbage, cauliflower, Brussels sprouts, turnips, and cassava

122
Q

What is the hyperplastic phase of diffuse non-toxic goiter?

A

Diffuse, symmetric enlargement of the thyroid with crowded columnar cells

Follicles may vary in size, some being distended and others small

123
Q

What is multinodular goiter?

A

Irregular enlargement of the thyroid due to recurrent episodes of hyperplasia and involution

May be mistaken for neoplasm

124
Q

What are common clinical manifestations of multinodular goiter?

A

Airway obstruction, dysphagia, compression of major vessels

Can lead to superior vena cava syndrome

125
Q

What characterizes a solitary thyroid nodule?

A

Palpably discrete swelling within a normal thyroid gland

Incidence in the US is 1-10%, more common in women

126
Q

What is the prognosis for solitary thyroid nodules?

A

1% are malignant; >90% of patients are alive 20 years after diagnosis

Nodules in younger patients and males are more likely to be neoplastic

127
Q

What defines a follicular adenoma?

A

Discrete, solitary masses derived from follicle epithelium

Majority are nonfunctional; some may cause thyrotoxicosis

128
Q

What mutations are associated with toxic adenomas?

A

Gain-of-function mutations in TSH receptor pathway

Most commonly in TSH receptor (TSHR) or GNAS

129
Q

What is the average size of follicular adenomas?

A

About 3 cm in diameter, some larger than 10 cm

May show areas of hemorrhage, fibrosis, calcification

130
Q

What is the most common type of thyroid carcinoma?

A

Papillary thyroid carcinoma (PTC)

Accounts for 80-85% of cases

131
Q

What are the genetic characteristics of conventional PTC?

A

Translocations resulting in RET or NTRK gene fusions; BRAF mutations

BRAF mutations are associated with reduced expression of thyroid differentiation markers

132
Q

What are the precursor lesions recognized for thyroid carcinomas?

A

Papillary microcarcinoma, noninvasive thyroid neoplasm with papillary-like nuclear features (NIFTP), nonfunctioning follicular adenoma

These lesions can progress to invasive forms

133
Q

What mutation is frequently found in follicular neoplasms?

A

Gain-of-function mutations in RAS

Found in 20-40% of follicular adenomas and 30-50% of follicular carcinomas

134
Q

What is the prognosis for thyroid carcinomas?

A

5-year survival greater than 98% for most cases

Mortality is one of the lowest among solid tumors

135
Q

What are the pathological features of medullary carcinoma?

A

Derived from parafollicular C cells, associated with endocrine neoplasia syndromes

Accounts for 5% of thyroid carcinomas

136
Q

What are the characteristics of anaplastic carcinoma of the thyroid?

A

Poorly differentiated and aggressive form of thyroid cancer

Typically arises from well-differentiated thyroid cancers

137
Q

What percentage of follicular carcinomas exhibit a translocation?

A

20% to 50%

Translocation is a common genetic alteration in follicular carcinomas.

138
Q

What are the gain-of-function mutations associated with follicular carcinomas?

A

PIK3CA mutations

PIK3CA encodes the enzyme PI3K, which plays a role in cell growth and division.

139
Q

What gene is commonly mutated in poorly differentiated and anaplastic thyroid carcinomas?

A

TP53

TP53 is a tumor suppressor gene that regulates the cell cycle.

140
Q

What is the most common form of thyroid cancer?

A

Papillary Thyroid Carcinoma

It accounts for nearly 85% of thyroid cancer cases in the US.

141
Q

What is a major risk factor for thyroid carcinomas?

A

Exposure to ionizing radiation

Particularly significant during the first two decades of life.

142
Q

What is the prognosis for papillary thyroid carcinoma?

A

Generally good to excellent

Presence of isolated cervical nodal metastases does not worsen prognosis.

143
Q

What histological feature is characteristic of papillary thyroid carcinoma?

A

Branching papillae with fibro-vascular stalks

Nuclei exhibit optical clarity, described as ‘ground glass’ or ‘Orphan Annie eyes’.

144
Q

What is the typical age range for patients diagnosed with papillary thyroid carcinoma?

A

25 to 50 years

The incidence has increased markedly in the last 30 years.

145
Q

What are psammoma bodies?

A

Concentrically calcified structures usually within papillary cores

They are often found in various tumors, including papillary thyroid carcinoma.

146
Q

What is the typical presentation of follicular carcinoma of the thyroid?

A

Slowly enlarging painless nodules

These nodules are usually cold on scintigrams.

147
Q

What is the characteristic pattern of spread for follicular carcinoma?

A

Hematogenous spread

Unlike papillary carcinoma, lymphatic spread is uncommon.

148
Q

What is a key histological feature of medullary thyroid carcinoma?

A

Polygonal to spindle-shaped cells

These cells may form nests, trabeculae, or follicles.

149
Q

Which syndromes are associated with familial medullary thyroid carcinomas?

A

MEN-2A and MEN-2B

These syndromes involve specific germline mutations in the RET gene.

150
Q

What is the typical age of onset for sporadic medullary thyroid carcinomas?

A

40s and 50s

This differs from familial cases, which can occur in younger patients.

151
Q

What are the common symptoms of poorly differentiated and anaplastic thyroid carcinomas?

A

Dyspnea, dysphagia, hoarseness, cough

These symptoms result from compression and invasion of adjacent structures.

152
Q

What is the expected survival rate for anaplastic thyroid carcinoma?

A

Approaching 100% mortality rate

Patients often die within less than one year.

153
Q

What is a common feature present in familial medullary thyroid carcinomas?

A

Multicentric C-cell hyperplasia

This is not present in sporadic lesions and is believed to be a precursor lesion.

154
Q

What is the treatment approach for most follicular carcinomas?

A

Total thyroidectomy followed by radioactive iodine

Serum thyroglobulin levels are monitored for tumor recurrence.

155
Q

What type of cells are described as large, pleomorphic giant cells, including occasional osteoclast-like multinucleate giant cells?

A

Giant cells

These cells are often associated with certain types of tumors or inflammatory conditions.

156
Q

What is the appearance of spindle cells in the context of sarcomatous lesions?

A

Sarcomatous appearance

Spindle cells are elongated cells typically seen in sarcomas.

157
Q

What type of differentiation may be present in foci suggesting origin from well-differentiated carcinoma?

A

Papillary or follicular differentiation

This indicates a more organized structure that can be indicative of certain types of cancer.

158
Q

What histological feature is associated with papillary thyroid carcinoma?

A

Optically clear nuclei

These nuclei are referred to as ‘Orphan Annie eyes’ due to their distinct appearance.

159
Q

What is a common characteristic of psammoma bodies?

A

Presence in certain tumors

Psammoma bodies are calcified structures often found in papillary thyroid carcinoma.

160
Q

What clinical presentation is associated with a solitary, nontender, firm nodule in the thyroid gland?

A

Potential thyroid pathology

This presentation may warrant further investigation for thyroid neoplasms.

161
Q

What are the likely associated factors with the pathology of a 66-year-old man with a firm mass in the thyroid?

A

Low grade and stage, Previous follicular carcinoma

These factors can influence prognosis and treatment options.

162
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis for a 32-year-old woman with a stony, hard thyroid gland replaced by dense fibrous tissue?

A

Riedel thyroiditis

This condition is characterized by fibrous tissue replacement in the thyroid.

163
Q

What type of thyroiditis is characterized by granulomatous inflammation and giant cells?

A

DeQuervain thyroiditis

This type of thyroiditis is often self-limiting and can follow a viral infection.

164
Q

What is the most common thyroiditis?

A

DeQuervain thyroiditis

It is often associated with viral infections and presents with neck pain.

165
Q

What mutation is commonly associated with follicular carcinoma of the thyroid?

A

RAS mutations

These mutations are significant in the progression of thyroid tumors.

166
Q

What is the prognosis for papillary thyroid carcinoma?

A

Usually very good – excellent prognosis

Factors such as staging and histological features can influence this prognosis.

167
Q

What type of carcinoma is derived from parafollicular C cells and secretes calcitonin?

A

Medullary carcinoma

This type is often associated with familial syndromes and can form amyloid.

168
Q

True or False: Anaplastic carcinoma has a poor prognosis.

A

True

This type of carcinoma is highly aggressive and undifferentiated.

169
Q

Fill in the blank: Goiters are thyroid enlargement due to impaired synthesis of thyroid hormone usually because of _______.

A

Iodine deficiency

Iodine is essential for thyroid hormone production.

170
Q

What is often the difference between benign and malignant thyroid nodules?

A

Hot vs. cold nodules

Hot nodules are usually benign and actively produce hormones, while cold nodules may indicate malignancy.

171
Q

What are the histological features required for diagnosing papillary thyroid carcinoma?

A

Optically clear nuclei, intranuclear pseudoinclusions

These features help differentiate it from other thyroid lesions.