Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Endocrinology > Calcium Pharm > Flashcards

Calcium Pharm Flashcards

1
Q

What is the role of calcium in the body?

A

Calcium is essential for normal biological function of the nervous system, musculoskeletal system, blood coagulation, enzyme activity, cellular membrane integrity, regulation of secretory activities, and bone metabolism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the primary hormones involved in calcium regulation?

A

PTH, activated vitamin D, and calcitonin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How does PTH affect serum calcium levels?

A

PTH increases serum calcium by increasing bone resorption, promoting the formation of active vitamin D, enhancing renal calcium reabsorption, and increasing renal phosphate excretion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the effect of vitamin D on calcium levels?

A

Vitamin D facilitates intestinal absorption of calcium and provides a balance of calcium and phosphorus for bone mineralization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the major therapeutic uses of vitamin D?

A
  • Prophylaxis and cure of nutritional rickets
  • Treatment of metabolic rickets and osteomalacia
  • Treatment of hypoparathyroidism
  • Prevention and treatment of osteoporosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What condition can result from prolonged vitamin D deficiency?

A

Osteomalacia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the pharmacological significance of calcitriol?

A

Calcitriol is the active form of vitamin D and is used for the treatment of hypocalcemia, secondary hyperparathyroidism, and metabolic bone disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the potential drug interactions with vitamin D preparations?

A
  • Isoniazid (INH)
  • Cholestyramine
  • Antacids
  • Calcium channel blockers
  • Anticonvulsants
  • Thiazide diuretics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is hypercalcemia?

A

Hypercalcemia is defined as serum calcium concentrations above normal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are common causes of hypercalcemia?

A
  • Hyperparathyroidism
  • Cancer
  • Vitamin D excess
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the first step in managing severe hypercalcemia?

A

Hydration with isotonic saline.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is calcitonin’s primary mechanism of action?

A

Calcitonin inhibits osteoclastic bone resorption and increases renal excretion of calcium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the clinical applications of bisphosphonates?

A

Used for treating hypercalcemia of malignancy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the side effects of calcitonin?

A
  • Flushing
  • Gastrointestinal upset
  • Rash
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Fill in the blank: Calcitriol is the primary active metabolite of _______.

A

vitamin D3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the elimination half-life of circulating vitamin D?

A

About 19 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

True or False: Excessive exposure to sunlight can lead to vitamin D toxicity.

A

False.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the recommended treatment for chronic hypocalcemia?

A

Start supplemental oral calcium and vitamin D preparation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the indication for parathyroid hormone (PTH) therapy?

A

Adjunct to calcium and vitamin D to control hypocalcemia in patients with hypoparathyroidism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the elimination half-life of calcifediol?

A

Averages 16 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the role of furosemide in hypercalcemia management?

A

Facilitates urinary excretion of calcium by inhibiting calcium reabsorption in the kidneys.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the effect of glucocorticoids on hypercalcemia?

A

Increases urinary calcium excretion and decreases intestinal calcium absorption.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the clinical applications of dihydrotachysterol (DHT)?

A
  • Treatment of acute, chronic, or latent postsurgical tetany
  • Idiopathic tetany
  • Hypoparathyroidism
  • Renal osteodystrophy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the indication for ergocalciferol?

A

Alternative form of vitamin D used for prevention and treatment of vitamin D deficiency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are glucocorticoids used for in hypercalcemia?

A

Glucocorticoids combat hypercalcemia by increasing urinary calcium excretion and decreasing intestinal calcium absorption.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

In which conditions does hypercalcemia respond most favorably to glucocorticoid therapy?

A

Hypercalcemia due to lymphomas, multiple myeloma, and granulomatous tumors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are common adverse effects associated with glucocorticosteroids?

A

Hyperglycemia and electrolyte disturbances such as hypokalemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is mithramycin?

A

An inhibitor of RNA synthesis in osteoclasts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What adverse effect is associated with mithramycin?

A

Nausea, which can be minimized by slow IV administration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the contraindications for mithramycin?

A

Liver dysfunction, kidney dysfunction, thrombocytopenia, or any coagulopathy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is gallium nitrate’s nephrotoxicity rate?

A

8%-15% of patients using gallium nitrate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What should be done to reduce the risk of renal complications when administering gallium nitrate?

A

Adequately hydrate patients before administration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is denosumab?

A

A humanized monoclonal antibody that inhibits the binding of RANKL with its receptor RANK.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How does denosumab differ from bisphosphonates regarding kidney function?

A

Denosumab is not excreted by the kidney, thus no restriction in patients with chronic kidney disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What does secondary hyperparathyroidism refer to?

A

Excessive secretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH) by the parathyroid glands in response to hypocalcemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is cinacalcet used for?

A

Treatment of secondary hyperparathyroidism in chronic kidney disease patients on dialysis and hypercalcemia in parathyroid carcinoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What class of drug is cinacalcet?

A

Calcimimetic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the mechanism of action of calcimimetics?

A

Control PTH release from parathyroid glands without increasing calcium and phosphorus levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are common side effects of calcimimetics?

A

Mild or moderate nausea and vomiting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is etelcalcetide’s brand name?

A

Parsabiv.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What route of administration is used for etelcalcetide?

A

IV.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

For which condition is etelcalcetide indicated?

A

Secondary hyperparathyroidism in patients with chronic kidney disease on hemodialysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A

A disease characterized by low bone mass (density) and microarchitectural abnormality, leading to fractures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the key components of the bone remodeling cycle?

A

Formation, resorption, activation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the risk factors for osteoporosis?

A
  • Endocrine diseases (primary hyperparathyroidism, thyrotoxicosis, Cushing’s syndrome, Addison’s disease) * Rheumatologic diseases (rheumatoid arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis) * Estrogen deficiency.
46
Q

What is the impact of glucocorticoids on bone health?

A

Reduction in bone formation and increase in bone resorption, leading to osteoporosis.

47
Q

What is essential for the treatment of osteoporosis?

A

Calcium and vitamin D supplementation.

48
Q

What foods can decrease calcium absorption?

A
  • Spinach * Wheat bran * Rhubarb.
49
Q

What is the recommended dosing for calcium carbonate?

A

Doses >500 mg/day should be given as divided doses.

50
Q

Which calcium compound is well-absorbed even in a fasting state?

A

Calcium citrate.

51
Q

What are the FDA approved medications for osteoporosis in women?

A
  • Bisphosphonates * Calcitonin * Estrogens/Hormone therapy * Raloxifene * Parathyroid Hormone (teriparatide, abaloparatide) * Denosumab * Romosozumab.
52
Q

What is the primary mechanism of action of osteoporosis treatments?

A

To block the bone remodeling cycle.

53
Q

What is hormone replacement therapy (HRT) approved for?

A

Prevention and treatment of osteoporosis in women.

54
Q

What are the risks associated with hormone replacement therapy?

A

Increased risk of breast cancer, heart disease, and dementia.

55
Q

What are the contraindications for alendronate?

A
  • Disorders of the esophagus * Patients who cannot sit upright for at least 30 minutes.
56
Q

What is the dosing instruction for alendronate?

A

Take with 6–8 oz of plain water and do not eat, drink, or take other medications for at least 30 minutes after.

57
Q

How does alendronate affect fracture risk?

A

Reduces the incidence of spine and hip fractures by about 50 percent over three years.

58
Q

What is the active form of vitamin D discussed?

A

olecalciferol

59
Q

What is a complex dosing regimen associated with?

A

Increase in BMD achieved on empty stomach

60
Q

What are potential gastrointestinal adverse effects related to?

A

Long-term safety is unconfirmed

61
Q

What benefits does alendronate provide?

A

Increases BMD and reduces fracture risk

62
Q

What are the pros and cons of alendronate?

A

Pros: Increases BMD, Cons: Gastrointestinal adverse effects

63
Q

What is Risedronate (Actonel®) approved for?

A

Prevention and treatment of postmenopausal osteoporosis

64
Q

How much does Risedronate reduce the incidence of vertebral fractures?

A

About 41 to 49 percent

65
Q

What is the recommended administration of Risedronate?

A

Take with 6–8 oz of plain water; do not eat, drink, or take other medications for at least 30 minutes

66
Q

What is the delayed-release form of Risedronate marketed as?

67
Q

What is Ibandronate (Boniva) approved for?

A

Treatment of postmenopausal osteoporosis

68
Q

What percentage does Ibandronate reduce vertebral fractures?

A

About 50 percent

69
Q

How is Ibandronate administered intravenously?

A

Once every three months

70
Q

What is Zoledronic Acid (Reclast) indicated for?

A

Treatment and prevention of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women

71
Q

By how much does Zoledronic Acid reduce the incidence of vertebral fractures?

A

About 70 percent

72
Q

What are the contraindications for Zoledronic Acid?

A

Creatinine clearance less than 35 mL/min or evidence of acute renal impairment

73
Q

What are common adverse reactions associated with Zoledronic Acid?

A

Atrial fibrillation

74
Q

What is an acute phase reaction associated with bisphosphonates?

A

Flu-like symptoms occurring after administration

75
Q

What complication has been reported in patients treated with bisphosphonates?

A

Osteonecrosis of the jaw (ONJ)

76
Q

What warning did the FDA issue regarding bisphosphonates?

A

Increased risk of atypical femoral fractures

77
Q

What is recommended for a drug holiday in bisphosphonate treatment?

A

Consider after 4-5 years if osteoporosis is mild

78
Q

What is the dosage of calcitonin for treatment?

A

100 IU daily, subcutaneous or intramuscular

79
Q

What is the primary effect of salmon calcitonin?

A

Suppresses osteoclast activity and reduces bone breakdown

80
Q

What is Raloxifene (Evista®) indicated for?

A

Prevention and treatment of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women

81
Q

How much does Raloxifene reduce the risk of vertebral fractures?

A

By about 30 percent in patients with a prior vertebral fracture

82
Q

What is a significant adverse effect of Raloxifene?

A

Increased risk of venous thrombosis

83
Q

What is Denosumab (Prolia®)?

A

A human IgG2 monoclonal antibody that inhibits RANK ligand

84
Q

What is the recommended dosage for Denosumab?

A

60 mg administered subcutaneously once every six months

85
Q

What does Teriparatide (Forteo®) preferentially stimulate?

A

Bone formation vs resorption

86
Q

What is the indication for Teriparatide?

A

Treatment of osteoporosis in men and post-menopausal women at high risk for fractures

87
Q

What is a major adverse effect associated with Teriparatide?

A

Increased incidence of osteosarcoma in rats

88
Q

How is Teriparatide administered?

A

By subcutaneous injection once daily

89
Q

What is a potential side effect of teriparatide therapy?

A

Increased incidence of osteosarcoma in rats

Teriparatide therapy should be avoided in patients with an increased risk of osteosarcoma.

90
Q

What is the dosage form of teriparatide?

A

Disposable pen device for once-daily subcutaneous injection

91
Q

What is the recommended duration of teriparatide therapy?

A

Up to 24 months

92
Q

What is the indication for abaloparatide (Tmlos)?

A

Treatment of postmenopausal women with osteoporosis at high risk for fracture

93
Q

What class of drugs does abaloparatide belong to?

A

Parathyroid Hormone Analogs

94
Q

What is a significant warning associated with abaloparatide?

A

Risk of osteosarcoma

95
Q

What is the maximum recommended duration for abaloparatide treatment?

96
Q

What is romosozumab (Evenity) indicated for?

A

Treatment of osteoporosis in postmenopausal females at high risk for fracture

97
Q

What is the dosage for romosozumab?

A

210 mg subcutaneously once a month

98
Q

What is a major warning for romosozumab?

A

Potential risk of myocardial infarction, stroke, and cardiovascular death

99
Q

What should be considered if osteoporosis therapy remains warranted after romosozumab?

A

Transition to an anti-resorptive agent

100
Q

What is the consequence of discontinuing denosumab?

A

Rebound in bone remodeling leading to potential bone loss

101
Q

What should be done if denosumab treatment is discontinued?

A

Transition to an alternative anti-resorptive therapy

102
Q

What type of approach is recommended for osteoporosis therapy?

A

Individualized approach to therapy

103
Q

Which agent is indicated for postmenopausal women with osteoporosis at high risk for fracture?

104
Q

What is a common compliance issue with oral bisphosphonates?

A

Patient compliance is often raised due to daily dosing

105
Q

What is the cost of Denosumab (Prolia) for a year?

A

$1600 per year

106
Q

What is Paget’s Disease of Bone characterized by?

A

Regions of furious osteoclastic bone resorption followed by hectic bone formation

107
Q

What is the drug of choice for treating hypercalcemia?

A

Mitramycin

108
Q

True or False: Ibandronate tablets have been approved for once a month dosing for osteoporosis.

109
Q

Which vitamin D preparation has the quickest onset of action?

A

Calcitriol

110
Q

List the vitamin D preparations.

A
  • 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D (Calcitriol)
  • Calciferol
  • Cholecalciferol
  • Ergocalciferol (D2)
  • Calcifediol
  • Dihydrotachysterol
111
Q

What are the treatments of osteoporosis?

A
  • Calcium and Vitamin D
  • Estrogen
  • Bisphosphonates
  • Calcitonin
  • Selective estrogen receptor modulators
  • PTH Rank Ligand Inhibitors

Endocrinology (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions