Thymus-Derived Cells (T Cells) Flashcards

1
Q

What is the lifespan of a T cell?

A

6 months to over 20 years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

T cells constitute up to ___ of the recirculating pool of small lymphocytes.

A

80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What do developing T cells acquire in the thymus?

A

Antigen-specific receptors and other functional and phenotypic characteristics that mark it as a mature T cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the functions of mature T cells’ surface proteins?

A

Antigen recognition, signal transduction, and adhesion to APCs + target cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Activation of a cell surface receptor requires binding to its specific ____, which may be a ____-_____ on another cell or soluble protein.

A

ligand; counter-receptor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are some of the accessory molecules’ functions on T cells?

A
  • Adhesion molecules.
  • Deliver signals to the T cell that functions, in concert with signals from the TCR-CD3/zz complex, to fully activate the T cell.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Generally speaking, what do CD4 and CD8 molecules do?

A

They promote the adhesion of T cells to APCs and target cells and also play a role in signal transduction, thereby potentiating T cell activation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where is CD4 (TCR co-receptor) found?

A

On helper T cells [present on monocytes and macrophages of some species].

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does CD4 bind to?

A

It binds to the B2 domain of the class 2 MHC molecules on the surface of professional APCs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Where is CD8 (TCR co-receptor) found?

A

On cytotoxic T cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does CD8 bind to and what is its function?

A

Its function is the recognition of the a3 domain of class 1 MHC molecules, enabling cytotoxic T cells to bind to target cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Generally speaking, what is the function of lymphocyte adherence molecules?

A

They strengthen interactions between helper T cells and professional APCs or cytotoxic T cells and target cells (e.g., virus-infected cells).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is CD11aCD18? What does it bind to? What is its function?

A

It is lymphocyte function-associated antigen-1, LFA-1); it binds T cells to CD54 molecules (ICAM-1,2,3) on APCs and target cells; it promotes the binding of T cells to endothelial cells during T cell extravasation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is CD2? Where is it found? What does it bind to? What is its function?

A

CD2 is LFA-2; CD2 molecules are found on mature T cells; CD2 binds to a protein called CD58 (LFA-3) present on APCs and target cells; CD2 functions both as an intracellular adhesion molecule and as a T cell signal transducer [contributes to optimal T cell activation].

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is CD28? Where is it expressed? What are its ligands? Where are these ligands expressed?

A
  • CD28 is a constitutively expressed membrane receptor for co-stimulatory signals (signal 2).
  • Its ligands are B7-1 (CD80) and B7-2 (CD86) cell surface proteins that are expressed on professional APCs.
  • NOTE: IL-6 and IL-1 can help function as B7 proteins if you do not have any B-7s, but they are not as potent.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does signal 2 function with? What do these two signals do?

A
  • Signal 2 functions with signal 1 (delivered by the TCR complex) to activate naive T cells.
  • Signal 2 is when the T cell is exposed to co-stimulating molecules such as cytokines and cell membrane proteins produced by the APC.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does the TCR complex consist of?

A
  • T cell receptor (TCR).
  • CD3 Complex.
  • z (zeta) proteins.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What kind of protein is the TCR?

A

A disulfide-linked heterodimer glycoprotein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does the TCR enable T cells to do?

A

The TCR enables T cells to recognize processed antigens presented in association with MHC molecules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the two identified types of TCRs?

A

TCRaB and TCRgd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Explain the construction of TCRaB.

A

The aB chains are integral membrane proteins with an extracellular domain, a transmembrane domain, and a short cytoplasmic tail. The extracellular domains consist of variable (N-terminal), constant and hinge regions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are hyper-variable regions?

A
  • Complementarity-determining regions (CDRs), which reside in the variable regions; they consist of unique amino acid sequences that form the antigen-binding site of the TCR.
  • BOTH CHAINS POSSESS 3 CDRs (1,2,3) JUXTAPOSED TO ONE ANOTHER.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Where is CDR3 located? How diverse is it? And what does it interact with?

A

CDR3 is located in the center of the CDRs; it displays the most diversity; and directly interacts with the antigenic peptide.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What does CDR1 interact with?

A

CDR1 interacts with both peptide and the MHC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What does CDR2 interact with?

A

CDR2 interacts with the MHC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What part of the TCRaB contains a 4th hyper-variable region? What does this 4th region do?

A

The B-chain and the V-domain contains a 4th hyper-variable region, which is the binding site for microbial products called superantigens.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How many TCRs does a single T cell possess?

A

About 50,000.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Each TCR is ______, ie, will recognize only a single epitope bound to an MHC protein.

A

Clonotypic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

In humans and nonruminants, ____-____% of T cells carry aB receptors.

A

90-99%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

T or F?

TCR is produced in secreted form, and therefore performs effector functions on its own.

A

FALSE.

Unlike BCR, TCR is not produced in secreted form, hence it does not perform effector functions on its own.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

T or F?

TCRs can respond to as many different foregin antigens as possible, but not to self-antigens.

A

TRUE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What controls the genetic expression of TCRs?

A

Allelic exclusion. It occurs when only one of the parental alleles that code for the TCR is functional, rendering each T cell responsive to only a single epitope.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

T or F?

The genes encoding the a chain and B chain are found on the same chromosome.

A

FALSE.

The genes encoding the a-chain and B chain are found on SEPARATE chromosomes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What regulates the rearrangement of TCR gene segments and BCR gene segments?

A

Several enzymes collectively called recombinases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are RAG-1 and RAG-2? Where are they found? Where are they active?

A

RAG-1 and RAG-2 are recombination-activating genes 1 and 2. They are only found on T and B lymphocytes; however, they are active only in developing lymphocytes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

TCR and BCR rearrangements DO NOT continue in mature T and B cells that have completed gene rearrangements… why?

A

Because RAG-1 and RAG-2 are only active in developing lymphocytes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What do RAG proteins cleave?

A

DNA at recombination sequences which are located adjacent to the V, D, or J coding sequence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

T or F?

Individuals or animals lacking RAG genes fail to produce both BCR and TCR proteins and manifest severe combined immunodeficiency, SCID.

A

TRUE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

T or F?

Like RAG proteins, DNA repair enzymes are expressed in only a few cell types.

A

FALSE.

UNLIKE RAG proteins, DNA repair enzymes are expressed in MANY cell types.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is DNA repair enzymes role in TCR and immunoglobulin (BCR) gene recombination?

A

To repair the double-stranded breaks introduced by the RAG proteins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

T or F?

Lacking DNA repair enzymes will also result in SCID.

A

TRUE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the purpose of TCR gene rearrangements?

A

Deletion of unwanted genes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Describe the two general steps of TCR gene rearrangements.

A

1) Cells initially loop out unwanted genes and then excise them.
2) The cut ends are joined by DNA ligase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the first chain genes of the TCR that rearranges before the others?

A

The B chain genes, followed by the a chain genes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the three region genes that occur at the TCRB locus?

A
  • Multiple variable (Vn) region genes.
  • Diversity (Dn) region genes.
  • Joining (Jn) region genes.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the three steps of the B chain gene rearrangement?

A

First, DB gene segments rearrange and join to JB gene segments, followed by VB to the DJB gene rearrangement, and then to a CB gene.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Where are the multiple variable (Vn) region genes and joining (Jn) region genes occur at in a-chain gene rearrangement?

A

At the TCRa locus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

T or F?

During the rearrangement of a-chain genes, a randomly selected V gene is jointed to a J gene and the exon is transcribed, combined with a constant (Ca) regeion gene, and translated.

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What does multiple germ-line genes; gene rearrangements; and junctional diversity account for?

A

The diversity of TCRaB.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Removal of a few bases from the broken ends of the coding sequences by endonucleases is called…?

A

Base deletions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How does base deletions affect diversity in the TCRaB?

A

Base deletions will affect the which precise nucleotide at which V, D, and J genes can join, resulting in greater diversity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What does the enzyme terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT) do?

A

It adds up to 10 nucleotides to the cut ends of the V/J (a-chain) and V/D/J (B-chain) coding sequences in a process called N-REGION NUCLEOTIDE ADDITION.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are P-nucleotides?

A

When a gene is cleaved asymmetrically, the shorter strand is usually extended with nucleotides complementary to the longer strand before the two are ligated. The added nucleotides at the V/D/J and V/J sections are called P-nucleotides.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Which nucleotides in the TCRaB are “nongermline nucleotides”?

A

The N-region nucleotide additions and the P-nucleotides.

55
Q

T or F?

Once rearranged in the thymus, the coding sequence of each TCR remains changed and displays somatic hypermutation as with B cell-derived B cell receptors (BCRs).

A

FALSE.

Once rearranged in the thymus, the coding sequence of each TCR remains UNCHANGED and does not display somatic hypermutation as with the BCRs.

56
Q

It is estimated that the total TCR repertoire may be in the order of ____.

A

1 X 10^16.

57
Q

What are CD3 and zz proteins?

A

They are accessory molecules that noncovalently associate with the T cell receptor.

58
Q

This complex consists of a 4 invariant polypeptide chains (gamma, delta, 2 epsilon chains)…

A

The CD3 complex.

59
Q

T or F?

The two zz chains are the same on all T cells.

A

TRUE.

60
Q

T or F?

The T cell response does not necessarily need a signal sent to the T cell nucleus when a TCR binds to an antigen.

A

FALSE.

When a TCR binds an antigen, a signal must be sent to the T cell nucleus in order to initiate its response.

61
Q

T or F?

The cytoplasmic tail of the TCR transduces signals.

A

FALSE.

The cytoplasmic tail of the TCR is TOO SMALL to transduce signals.

62
Q

Biochemical signals for T cell activation DO NOT come from the _____, but, rather, from the ____ ____ and the ______ (collectively referred to as ______ ______).

A

TCR; CD3 complex; zz chains; signal transducers.

63
Q

T or F?

The CD3 complex also functions in stabilizing cell surface expression of TCR.

A

TRUE.

64
Q

T or F?

Mutations in the CD3 genes effectively prevent T cell expression of TCRs.

A

TRUE.

65
Q

What are “forbidden clones”?

A

Thymocytes whose TCRs bind strongly to self peptides.

66
Q

What are the two thymocyte critical selection processes during T cell development?

A

The two critical selection processes result in self-MHC restriction of TCRs and the elimination of forbidden clones.

67
Q

What part of the organ does thymocyte selection take place? What cells carry this out?

A

The cortex; thymic stromal cells (cortical epithelial cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells).

68
Q

T or F?

Thymic stromal cells express MHC class 1 molecules only.

A

FALSE.

Thymic stromal cells express both MHC class 1 and MHC class 2 molecules.

69
Q

Thymocytes whose TCRs have moderate affinity for self-MHC molecules are rescued from cell death are ______ selected.

A

Positively.

70
Q

What does positive selection of thymocytes ensure?

A

It ensures that mature T cells are self-MHC restricted, ie, CD4+ T cells interact with peptide-MHC II complexes, whereas, CD8+ T cells interact with peptide-MHC I complexes.

71
Q

Thymocytes whose TCRs have low affinity OR high affinity for self-MHC molecules are eliminated by apoptosis in a process called ______ selection.

A

Negative.

72
Q

T or F?

Death by apoptosis elicits an inflammatory response and triggers host defense mechanisms.

A

FALSE.

Death by apoptosis does NOT elicit an inflammatory response NOR triggers host defense mechanisms.

73
Q

Which WBC takes up cellular debris resulting from negative selection apoptosis?

A

Macrophages.

74
Q

Thymocytes that express TCRs with high affinity for self-antigen presented by self-MHC molecules are eliminated, contributing to the maintenance of ____-_____.

A

Self-tolerance.

75
Q

Where are TCRgd receptors expressed?

A

On a subset of T cells that are found mostly in epithelial locations, so-called intraepithelial lymphocytes.

76
Q

What does TCRgd recognize?

A

A native antigen rather than peptide-MHC complex.

77
Q

T or F?

TCRgd displays limited antigenic diversity.

A

TRUE.

78
Q

What does Helper T cell (TH; CD4+) do?

A

It helps B cells produce antibodies to protein antigens.

79
Q

In most species, what is the ratio of TH cells to TC cells?

A

2:1

80
Q

What does the Cytotoxic T cell (TC; CD8+) cause?

A

It causes the lysis of antigen-bearing target cells.

81
Q

T or F?

TH cells play a major role in promoting adaptive immune responses only.

A

FALSE.

TH cells play a major role in promoting innate AND adaptive immune responses.

82
Q

How do TH cells promote innate and adaptive immune responses?

A

By releasing soluble helper factors (cytokines) that affect the activities of several cell types.

83
Q

Helper T cells respond only to ______ ______ when it is presented by professional APCs in association with self-MHC class II molecules.

A

Processed antigen.

84
Q

T or F?

Interaction with an APC involves multiple TH cell membrane proteins that recognize different ligands on the APC.

A

TRUE.

85
Q

Naive TH cell activation requires how many signals?

A

2

86
Q

What constitutes the first signal in naive TH cell activation?

A

TCR complex and CD4 recognition of peptide-MHC complexes on the APC.

87
Q

What constitutes the second signal in Naive TH cell activation?

A

co-stimulation.

88
Q

What are the most potent activators of naive TH cells of the professional APCs? Why?

A

Mature dendritic cells because they constitutively express MHC molecules and co-stimulators.

89
Q

Name some B7 proteins.

A

B7-1, CD80; B7-2, CD86.

90
Q

What do B7 proteins do?

A

They are best characterized as co-stimulators for naive TH cells.

91
Q

T or F?

B7 proteins are absent or expressed at low levels on resting APCs.

A

TRUE.

92
Q

What can enhance the expression of B7 proteins on APCs?

A

When APCs are stimulated by endotoxin (LPS), interferon-g, and binding of T cell CD40L to CD40 on the APC.

93
Q

What is CD28? What does it do?

A

CD28 is a T cell receptor for B7 proteins. It enhances several TH cell responses to antigen, including the production of cytokines such as IL-2 and differentiation of naive T cell into effector cells and memory cells.

94
Q

T or F?

Interleukin-1 is a major co-stimulator of TH1 cells.

A

FALSE.

IL-1 is a major co-stimulator of TH2 cells (TH1 cells lack IL-1 receptors and do not respond to IL-1).

95
Q

IL- 6 promotes ___, ___ and ___.

A

IL-2; IL-2 receptor production; and T cell proliferation.

96
Q

T or F?

Antigen recognition by helper T cells induces the expression of CD40L.

A

TRUE.

97
Q

What does CD40L do?

A

CD40L binds to CD40 on the APC and stimulates the expression of B7 molecules (which bind to CD28 on helper T cells) and the secretion of cytokines that activate the helper T cell.

98
Q

Antigen-activated naive TH cells synthesize ____ and ____ ____.

A

IL-2 and IL-2 receptors (IL-2Rs).

99
Q

What is T cell autocrine growth factor?

A

IL-2.

100
Q

What happens when IL-2Rs are bound by IL-2?

A

If IL-2Rs are bound by IL-2 (T cell autocrine growth factor), the cell undergoes clonal expansion (proliferation of the antigen-specific clone).

101
Q

What do most of the daughter cells of naive helper T cells differentiate into?

A

Effector cells.

102
Q

What does a smaller fraction of the naive helper T daughter cells differentiate into?

A

Antigen-specific memory cells.

103
Q

T or F?

The terminally differentiated effector TH cells enter the circulation and are carried to the peripheral tissues (lymphatic only).

A

FALSE.

The terminally differentiated effector TH cells enter the circulation and are carried to the peripheral tissues (LYMPHATIC AND NONLYMPHATIC).

104
Q

What happens once the terminally differentiated effecter TH cells reach the peripheral tissues?

A

There, they are triggered to effector function by encountering MHC-peptide complexes on APCs.

105
Q

T or F?

In contrast to naive Th cells that require 2 signals for activation, effector TH cells are more sensitive to TCR/CD4 recognition of peptide-MHC complexes (signal 1) and, therefore, have no need for co-stimulation (signal 2).

A

TRUE.

106
Q

T or F?

Effector TH cells are able to respond to peptide-MHC complexes displayed on APCs that lack the co-stimulatory B7 molecule because they have no need for co-stimulation (signal 2).

A

TRUE.

107
Q

What is the result of effector TH cell activation?

A

The synthesis of various membrane bound (eg, CD40L) or secreted (eg, cytokines) effector molecules.

108
Q

What does CD40L do?

A

It binds to CD40 on macrophages and B cells and activates them (see page 97).

109
Q

What do the TH cell cytokines do?

A

They promote and regulate the effector phases of innate and adaptive immune responses.

110
Q

T or F?

Effector cell responses increase following elimination of the antigen.

A

FALSE.

Effector cell responses decline following elimination of the antigen.

111
Q

T or F?

The vast majority of antigen-activated T cells die by apoptosis within a few hours.

A

FALSE.

The vast majority of antigen-activated T cells die by apoptosis within a few DAYS.

112
Q

The decline in effector response is significant because…?

A

It returns the immune system to a state of rest or homeostasis.

113
Q

What are the three types of effector T cells are:

A

1 - TH1 cells.
2 - TH2 cells
3 - CD8 + T cells.

114
Q

Where do effector T cells traffic to mostly?

A

Inflammatory sites.

115
Q

Which lives longer: the Naive T cell, or, the effector T cell?

A

The Naive T cell.

116
Q

T or F?

The naive T cell has effector function.

A

FALSE.

The naive T cell has NO effector function.

117
Q

T or F?

The memory TH cells, unlike effector cells, are long-lived cells.

A

TRUE.

118
Q

What does the expanded clone of antigen-specific memory TH cells account for?

A

The increased and accelerated secondary response on subsequent exposure to the same antigen.

119
Q

Normally, Memory T Helper cells are functionally _____, until re-exposure to the antigen (presented by APCs), which induces them to undergo _____ _____.

A

inactive; clonal expansion.

120
Q

What happens after Memory T Helper cells undergo clonal expansion?

A

They differentiate from daughter cells into effector and memory cells.

121
Q

T or F?

Like effector TH cells, memory TH cells need B7-CD28 co-stimulatory interactions (signal 2) to induce full T cell activation.

A

FALSE.

Like effector TH cells, memory TH cells DO NOT need B7-CD28 co-stimulatory interactions (signal 2) to induce full T cell activation.

122
Q

Where do effector and memory T cells preferentially travel to in the body? Why?

A

The prefer to travel to inflamed peripheral tissues where they are needed to eliminate antigens in the effector phase of adaptive immune responses.

123
Q

T or F?

Effector T cells down-regulate the expression of L-selectin and CCR7 and upregulate the expression of the chemokine receptor CCR10 and adhesion molecules LFA-1 and VLA-4, allowing them to bind to ICAM-1 and VCAM-1, respectively, on peripheral vascular endothelium at sites of inflammation.

A

TRUE.

Does your brain hurt yet?

124
Q

Newly differentiated effector T cells are directed to the site of infection in the _______ tissues.

A

Peripheral.

125
Q

Helper T cells are subdivided into TH1 and TH2 cells on the basis of…?

A

… their production of and responses to specific cytokines.

126
Q

T or F?

TH1 and TH2 subsets develop from different T lymphocytes in the peripheral lymphoid organs.

A

FALSE.

TH1 and TH2 subsets develop from the SAME naive CD4+ T lymphocytes (TH0), in the peripheral lymphoid organs.

127
Q

What do cytokines produced in the innate immune response to microorganisms, or, early in adaptive immune responses influence?

A

They influence the differentiation of naive CD4+ T cells into TH1 or TH2 cells.

128
Q

T or F?

IL-12 promotes the production of the TH1-promoting transcription factor, T-Bet.

A

TRUE.

129
Q

IL-4 promotes the production of the TH2-promoting transcription factor, _____.

A

GATA-3.

130
Q

What specific situations especially promote the differentiation of naive CD4+ cells into TH1 cells.

A

While many pathogens cause the differentiation of naive CD4+ cells into TH1 cells - intracellular bacteria and viruses that infect or activate macrophages and NK cells to produce interleukin-12 or interferon-g will potently do this.

131
Q

What does interleukin-4 do? What is it produced in response to?

A

Interleukin-4 causes proliferating of CD4+ cells to differentiate into TH2 cells. Interleukin-4 is produced in response to helminth parasites and other pathogens.

132
Q

What is cross-regulation in cytokines?

A

Cytokines produced by the TH1 and TH2 subsets exhibit cross-regulation, ie, cytokines from the TH1 cells can block the production and/or activity of the cytokines secreted by TH2 cells and vice versa.

133
Q

T or F?

Each subset of T Helper cells amplifies itself and cross-regulates the other subset.

A

TRUE.

134
Q

T or F?

The significance of Cross-regulation is than an immune response tends to settle into a TH1 type response or a TH2 type of response, but not both at the same time.

A

TRUE.