Regulation of the Immune Response Flashcards

1
Q

One of the cardinal features of all immune responses is their _____-_____.

A

Self-limitation.

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2
Q

T or F?

The main reasons for self-limitation of the immune response is that each immune response eliminates the antigen that initiated the response and thus eliminates the necessary first signal for lymphocyte activation.

A

TRUE.

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3
Q

T or F?

The initial response will not result in memory for the antigen; only the second exposure will establish memory for more vigorous immune responses for subsequent exposures.

A

FALSE.

The initial response establishes memory for the antigen, so that subsequent exposure to the same antigen triggers a more vigorous immune response.

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4
Q

What is the ‘engine’ that drives the immune response?

A

The antigen.

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5
Q

What are the two possible outcomes when the immune system encounters an antigen?

A

1 - Immunity.

2 - A state of immunologic unresponsiveness called: “tolerance”

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6
Q

What is immune tolerance?

A

A state of immunologic unresponsiveness.

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7
Q

What is the primary regulator of the intensity of an immune response?

A

The antigen concentration.

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8
Q

T or F?

Optimal antigenic doses for maximal immune response intensity will vary for different antigens.

A

TRUE.

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9
Q

T or F?

Excessively large doses of antigen often result in tolerance and inhibition of the immune response (immune paralysis).

A

TRUE.

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10
Q

Which immune responses do protein antigens (T-dep antigens) induce? More specifically, what do these protein antigens stimulate?

A

A) Protein antigens (T-dep antigens) will induce BOTH humoral and cell-mediated immune responses.

B) Proteins will stimulate isotype switching, affinity maturation, and the generation of memory B cells.

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11
Q

The immune response will mostly use which antibodies in response to non-protein antigens (T-ind antigens).

A

The immune response to T-ind antigens consists largely of IgM antibodies.

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12
Q

What cells will endocytose protein antigens administered subcutaneously (SC), or, intradermally (ID) and carry them to regional lymph nodes where immune responses are initiated?

A

Langerhans cells.

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13
Q

T or F?

Antigen given intravenously (IV), or, orally will never cause tolerance.

A

FALSE.

Antigen given IV, or, orally may cause tolerance; possibly due to the rapid elimination of the antigen.

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14
Q

Antibody exerts feedback _______ (stimulation/inhibition?) on its own further production.

A

Inhibition.

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15
Q

T or F?

If an animal is immunized with a specific antigen and is injected with preformed antibody to that same antigen just before or within 5 days after antigen priming, the immune response to the antigen is increased up to 100-fold.

A

FALSE.

If an animal is immunized with a specific antigen and is injected with preformed antibody to that same antigen just before or within 5 days after antigen priming, the immune response to the antigen is REDUCED up to 100-fold.

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16
Q

How does antibody exert negative feedback on its own further production?

A

Antibodies will help eliminate the antigens they were produced against, thereby removing the initiating stimulus for antigen-reactive B cell clonal expansion.

17
Q

T or F?

Circulating antigen-antibody complexes (immune complexes) can either enhance or suppress specific immune responses.

A

TRUE.

18
Q

Antigen-antibody complexes can simultaneously bind to BCR (via antigen) and the CD32 (FcyRIIB) via the Fc portion of the antibody (IgG)… What will this result in? How?

A

INHIBITION; The Fc receptor-associated phosphotase will remove phosphates in the B cell-receptor complex, which will subsequently block B cell receptor signaling –> This blocks naive B cell activation (receptor cross-linking does not appear to affect memory B cells).

19
Q

What kind of cells will “trap” immune complexes, which is crucial for the selection of B cells that express high-affinity BCRs during the process of affinity maturation in antibody responses to T-dep antigens.

A

Follicular dendritic cells (FDCs via FcyRs).

20
Q

T or F?

FDCs are capable of retaining Ag-Ab complexes for long periods, thereby prolonging and enhancing the antibody response.

A

TRUE.

21
Q

T cells responding to antigens will proliferate and differentiate into ______ and ______ cells.

A

Effector and memory cells.

22
Q

What is T cell survival dependent on?

A

T cell survival is dependent upon antigens, costimulators, and cytokines produced during the immune response.

23
Q

What will survival stimuli for lymphocytes induce the formation of?

A

Antiapoptotic proteins.

24
Q

T or F?

As the effector response leads to the elimination of the antigen, effector T cells will be exposed to increased survival stimuli.

A

FALSE.

As the effector response leads to the elimination of the antigen, effector T cells are DEPRIVED OF SURVIVAL STIMULI and thus, will die by apoptosis.

25
Q

Effector T cells have ____ (short/long?) tissue half-lives _____ (days/weeks/months/years?).

A

Effector T cells have short tissue half-lives (days).

26
Q

What are the only cells that survive following an immune response?

A

Long-lived, functionally quiescent memory T cells.

27
Q

What is CTLA-4? What does it do? What is it expressed by? What does it bind?

A

CTLA-4 (cytolytic T lymphocyte-associated protein 4; CD152) is a physiologic terminator of T cell activation that is expressed ONLY BY ACTIVATED T CELLS. It is a high affinity receptor for B7-1 and B7-2 (the same proteins also bind CD28).

28
Q

What happens when CTLA-4 interacts with B7 proteins?

A

When CTLA-4 interacts with B7 proteins, it sends an inhibitory signal to the T cell.

29
Q

What is the physiologic significance of CD28 in relation to B7 proteins? What is it expressed by/how often?

A

CD28 is the ACTIVATING RECEPTOR FOR B7 PROTEINS and is constitutively expressed on resting T cells, where it is needed to initiate the immune response.

30
Q

What do mutations in CTLA-4 genes result in?

A

Mutations in CTLA-4 genes results in uncontrolled T cell proliferation and autoimmunity.

31
Q

What is TGF-B? What does it do?

A

TGF-B is transforming growth factor-B; a potent inhibitor of T cell and B cell proliferation.

32
Q

What does IL-10, IL-4 and IL-3 inhibit? How? What kind of reactions will these inhibit as a result?

A

They inhibit macrophage activation.

IL-3 and IL-4 are antagonists of IFN-y, the most potent activator of macrophages; therefore, these cytokines may suppress cell-mediated immunity and delayed hypersensitivity reactions.

33
Q

T or F?

Stress will reduce immune functions of an animal.

A

TRUE.

34
Q

How does stress reduce immune functions?

A

Stress will affect the hypothalamus to release corticotropin-releasing factor, which causes the anterior pituitary: to release endorphins+enkephalins; and ACTH, which causes the adrenal glands to release more glucocorticoids…

The endorphins, enkephalins and glucocorticoids will suppress the immune system.

35
Q

How does glucocorticoids affect immune cells?

A

The glucocorticoids will act directly on immune cells to suppress their activity.

36
Q

T or F?

If stress occurs BEFORE an immune response, antigen will still be able to activate immune cells that have been suppressed by corticosteroids.

A

FALSE.

If stress occurs BEFORE an immune response, antigen may NOT be able to activate immune cells that have been suppressed by corticosteroids.

37
Q

T or F?

If stress occurs DURING an immune response, the level of corticosteroids may be higher and remain elevated for a longer period of time, resulting in prolonged immune suppression of effector functions.

A

TRUE.