Threat Actors Flashcards

1.2 - Summarize fundamental security concepts 2.1 - Compare and contrast common threat actors and motivations 2.2 - Explain common threat vectors and attack surfaces

1
Q

What is the primary difference between Threat Actors’ Intent and Threat Actors’ Motivation?

A. Intent refers to the tools used, while motivation refers to the method of attack.
B. Intent refers to the attacker’s goal, while motivation refers to the driving force behind the attack.
C. Intent refers to the victim’s response, while motivation refers to the attack duration.
D. Intent and motivation are interchangeable terms in cybersecurity.

A

Answer:
B. Intent refers to the attacker’s goal, while motivation refers to the driving force behind the attack.

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Intent is the specific objective of the attack, while motivation is the underlying reason or force that drives the threat actor.
Incorrect Options:
A: Tools and methods are not central to the distinction between intent and motivation.
C: Victim’s response and attack duration are unrelated to these terms.
D: Intent and motivation are distinct concepts and not interchangeable.

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2
Q

Which of the following is an example of Data Exfiltration?

A. An attacker encrypts files and demands payment for decryption keys.
B. A threat actor spies on an organization to gather sensitive information.
C. Sensitive data is transferred from a computer without authorization.
D. Malware is deployed to disrupt an organization’s services.

A

Answer:
C. Sensitive data is transferred from a computer without authorization.

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Data Exfiltration involves the unauthorized transfer of data from a computer.
Incorrect Options:
A: This describes ransomware, which relates to financial gain.
B: This relates to espionage, not data exfiltration.
D: This describes service disruption, not data exfiltration.

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3
Q

What is the primary motivation behind Blackmail in a cyberattack?

A. Financial gain through stealing banking credentials.
B. Threatening to release sensitive information unless demands are met.
C. Disrupting services for political or philosophical reasons.
D. Spreading malware to cause chaos.

A

Answer:
B. Threatening to release sensitive information unless demands are met.

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Blackmail involves obtaining sensitive information and threatening to release it unless demands are met.
Incorrect Options:
A: Financial gain relates to stealing banking credentials or ransomware attacks.
C: Political or philosophical reasons relate to hacktivism.
D: Spreading malware relates to disruption or chaos.

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4
Q

Which motivation is typically associated with Hacktivism?

A. Financial gain through ransomware attacks.
B. Making a political or philosophical statement.
C. Revenge against a perceived wrongdoing.
D. Improving an organization’s security.

A

Answer:
B. Making a political or philosophical statement.

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Hacktivism involves conducting attacks driven by political or philosophical beliefs.
Incorrect Options:
A: Financial gain is unrelated to hacktivism.
C: Revenge is a different motivation unrelated to hacktivists.
D: Improving security is the motivation of ethical hackers, not hacktivists.

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5
Q

Which type of threat actor is motivated by Ethical Reasons?

A. Hacktivists
B. Cybercriminals
C. Authorized hackers
D. Espionage agents

A

Answer:
C. Authorized hackers

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Authorized hackers, also known as ethical hackers, are motivated by a desire to improve security.
Incorrect Options:
A: Hacktivists are motivated by political or philosophical beliefs.
B: Cybercriminals are typically driven by financial gain.
D: Espionage agents aim to gather sensitive information, not improve security.

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6
Q

What is the motivation behind Cyber Warfare?

A. Gaining unauthorized access to bank accounts.
B. Disrupting a country’s infrastructure and causing economic damage.
C. Blackmailing an organization for ransom.
D. Spreading malware to create chaos.

A

Answer:
B. Disrupting a country’s infrastructure and causing economic damage.

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Cyber warfare aims to disrupt national infrastructure, compromise security, and inflict economic damage.
Incorrect Options:
A: Gaining access to bank accounts relates to financial gain.
C: Blackmail is unrelated to cyber warfare.
D: Spreading malware relates to general disruption, not specifically cyber warfare.

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7
Q

Which motivation involves an attacker targeting an entity they believe has wronged them?

A. Espionage
B. Revenge
C. Financial gain
D. Hacktivism

A

Answer:
B. Revenge

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Revenge is a motivation where the threat actor targets an entity they feel has wronged them.
Incorrect Options:
A: Espionage involves spying to gather sensitive information.
C: Financial gain focuses on monetary objectives, not personal grievances.
D: Hacktivism is driven by philosophical or political beliefs.

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8
Q

What is the focus of a threat actor motivated by Disruption or Chaos?

A. Launching attacks against critical infrastructure in a populated city.
B. Spying on organizations to gather sensitive information.
C. Limiting users’ access to sensitive data.
D. Threatening to release private information unless demands are met.

A

Answer:
A. Launching attacks against critical infrastructure in a populated city.

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Disruption or chaos involves spreading malware or launching cyberattacks to create widespread havoc.
Incorrect Options:
B: Spying relates to espionage.
C: Limiting access is a security measure, not a motivation for attacks.
D: Threatening to release private information relates to blackmail.

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9
Q

Which motivation involves the unauthorized transfer of sensitive data to a third party?

A. Data Exfiltration
B. Espionage
C. Revenge
D. Ethical Reasons

A

Answer:
A. Data Exfiltration

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Data Exfiltration is the unauthorized transfer of sensitive data from a system.
Incorrect Options:
B: Espionage focuses on spying rather than unauthorized transfers.
C: Revenge targets specific entities for grievances.
D: Ethical reasons involve improving security, not stealing data.

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10
Q

What distinguishes Internal Threat Actors from External Threat Actors?

A. Internal Threat Actors are more skilled than External Threat Actors.
B. Internal Threat Actors operate within the organization, while External Threat Actors are outside entities.
C. Internal Threat Actors are less of a threat than External Threat Actors.
D. Internal Threat Actors always act unintentionally, while External Threat Actors act maliciously.

A

Answer:
B. Internal Threat Actors operate within the organization, while External Threat Actors are outside entities.

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Internal Threat Actors are individuals or entities within the organization, whereas External Threat Actors are outsiders attempting to breach the organization’s defenses.
Incorrect Options:
A: Threat levels depend on resources and intent, not whether they are internal or external.
C: Internal and external actors can both pose significant threats depending on their capabilities and intent.
D: Internal actors can act intentionally or unintentionally, and external actors are not always malicious (e.g., ethical hackers).

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11
Q

What is a Script Kiddie?

A. A highly skilled hacker using sophisticated tools to breach systems.
B. An unskilled individual using pre-made tools or scripts to exploit systems.
C. A government-sponsored threat actor targeting critical infrastructure.
D. A professional hacker working for an organization to improve its security.

A

Answer:
B. An unskilled individual using pre-made tools or scripts to exploit systems.

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Script Kiddies have limited technical knowledge and rely on pre-made software or scripts to perform cyberattacks.
Incorrect Options:
A: Highly skilled hackers are typically advanced persistent threats or nation-state actors.
C: Government-sponsored actors are nation-state actors, not script kiddies.
D: Professional hackers working to improve security are ethical hackers.

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12
Q

Which attribute primarily distinguishes Advanced Persistent Threats (APTs) from Script Kiddies?

A. Motivation behind the attack.
B. Access to pre-made tools and software.
C. Level of sophistication and technical capability.
D. Whether they operate internally or externally.

A

Answer:
C. Level of sophistication and technical capability.

Explanation:

Correct Answer: APTs have advanced skills, sophisticated tools, and the ability to evade detection, unlike script kiddies who lack technical expertise.
Incorrect Options:
A: Both APTs and script kiddies may have various motivations, so this does not distinguish them.
B: Script kiddies rely on pre-made tools, while APTs develop their own sophisticated techniques.
D: Both can operate externally, so this is not a distinguishing factor.

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13
Q

What does the level of sophistication of a threat actor indicate?

A. Their motivation behind launching an attack.
B. Their ability to evade detection and use advanced tools.
C. The resources and funding available to them.
D. Whether they are internal or external to the organization.

A

Answer:
B. Their ability to evade detection and use advanced tools.

Explanation:

Correct Answer: The level of sophistication measures technical skills, complexity of tools and techniques, and the ability to bypass countermeasures.
Incorrect Options:
A: Motivation is separate from sophistication.
C: Resources and funding relate to capability but are not the same as sophistication.
D: Sophistication applies to both internal and external threat actors, not their location.

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14
Q

Which of the following is most likely to be classified as a Nation-State Actor?

A. A disgruntled employee leaking sensitive company data.
B. A group of highly skilled hackers conducting cyber espionage for their government.
C. A hacker using pre-made scripts to exploit networks for financial gain.
D. An ethical hacker identifying vulnerabilities for an organization.

A

Answer:
B. A group of highly skilled hackers conducting cyber espionage for their government.

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Nation-state actors are government-sponsored and possess advanced skills to carry out sophisticated attacks, often for political or espionage purposes.
Incorrect Options:
A: A disgruntled employee is an internal threat, not a nation-state actor.
C: Hackers using pre-made scripts are script kiddies, not nation-state actors.
D: Ethical hackers work to improve security, not to conduct cyber espionage.

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15
Q

How does resource availability affect a threat actor’s capabilities?

A. It determines whether they are internal or external actors.
B. It defines their technical skills and ability to use tools.
C. It influences the sophistication of tools, skills, and personnel they can use.
D. It has no significant impact on their effectiveness.

A

Answer:
C. It influences the sophistication of tools, skills, and personnel they can use.

Explanation:

Correct Answer: A threat actor’s access to resources, including funding, personnel, and tools, directly impacts the complexity and effectiveness of their attacks.
Incorrect Options:
A: Resource availability is unrelated to whether the actor is internal or external.
B: Technical skills are separate from resource availability, though resources may enhance skills.
D: Resources play a critical role in determining an actor’s capabilities.

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16
Q

Which of the following describes an External Threat Actor?

A. An individual within an organization accidentally sharing sensitive information.
B. A government-sponsored group targeting a foreign country’s infrastructure.
C. An employee deliberately leaking confidential data.
D. A professional ethical hacker improving an organization’s security posture.

A

Answer:
B. A government-sponsored group targeting a foreign country’s infrastructure.

Explanation:

Correct Answer: External threat actors operate outside the organization and attempt to breach its cybersecurity defenses, such as a nation-state actor targeting critical infrastructure.
Incorrect Options:
A: This describes an unintentional internal threat actor.
C: An employee leaking data is an internal threat actor.
D: Ethical hackers are authorized to improve security and are not considered external threats.

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17
Q

What is the primary toolset used by Script Kiddies?

A. Custom-built malware and sophisticated techniques.
B. Pre-made software or scripts they do not fully understand.
C. Highly advanced tools created by government-funded organizations.
D. Manual techniques to identify vulnerabilities in systems.

A

Answer:
B. Pre-made software or scripts they do not fully understand.

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Script Kiddies lack technical knowledge and rely on pre-made tools and scripts to perform attacks.
Incorrect Options:
A: Custom-built malware is typically used by advanced threat actors.
C: Government-funded tools are used by nation-state actors.
D: Manual techniques require technical expertise, which script kiddies lack.

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18
Q

Who is classified as an Unskilled Attacker (Script Kiddie)?

A. An attacker who creates advanced hacking tools for targeted attacks.
B. An individual who lacks the technical knowledge to develop their own hacking tools and relies on pre-made scripts.
C. A nation-state actor carrying out sophisticated cyber espionage.
D. A professional hacker who develops exploits for ethical purposes.

A

Answer:
B. An individual who lacks the technical knowledge to develop their own hacking tools and relies on pre-made scripts.

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Script Kiddies are unskilled attackers who depend on tools and scripts developed by others due to their lack of technical expertise.
Incorrect Options:
A: Developing advanced hacking tools requires technical expertise, which unskilled attackers lack.
C: Nation-state actors are highly skilled and do not fit the description of unskilled attackers.
D: Professional hackers often have technical expertise and are not classified as script kiddies.

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19
Q

What is a common method used by unskilled attackers to cause damage?

A. Launching sophisticated malware that evades detection.
B. Deploying a Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack by using pre-made tools.
C. Exploiting zero-day vulnerabilities with custom scripts.
D. Hacking into critical systems using advanced programming techniques.

A

Answer:
B. Deploying a Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack by using pre-made tools.

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Unskilled attackers often rely on simple tools that allow them to launch DDoS attacks by entering a target’s IP address and clicking a button.
Incorrect Options:
A: Launching sophisticated malware requires advanced skills that unskilled attackers lack.
C: Exploiting zero-day vulnerabilities involves technical expertise beyond the capacity of unskilled attackers.
D: Advanced programming techniques are used by skilled attackers, not script kiddies.

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20
Q

Why are unskilled attackers considered a threat despite their lack of technical expertise?

A. They can easily exploit complex vulnerabilities.
B. They use pre-made tools to execute damaging attacks like DDoS.
C. They are often government-sponsored actors with high funding.
D. They have insider access to sensitive organizational data.

A

Answer:
B. They use pre-made tools to execute damaging attacks like DDoS.

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Even without technical expertise, unskilled attackers can cause significant harm by using easy-to-operate tools, such as launching DDoS attacks.
Incorrect Options:
A: Exploiting complex vulnerabilities requires advanced skills that unskilled attackers do not have.
C: Government-sponsored actors are typically skilled and well-resourced, unlike script kiddies.
D: Insider threats involve internal access, which is unrelated to unskilled attackers.

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21
Q

What is the role of pre-made tools in enabling unskilled attackers?

A. They allow attackers to develop their own sophisticated exploits.
B. They eliminate the need for technical knowledge to launch attacks.
C. They restrict attackers to ethical hacking activities only.
D. They are ineffective in causing any significant damage.

A

Answer:
B. They eliminate the need for technical knowledge to launch attacks.

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Pre-made tools are designed to be user-friendly, enabling unskilled attackers to carry out damaging attacks, such as DDoS, without requiring technical expertise.
Incorrect Options:
A: Pre-made tools are used to execute attacks, not to develop new exploits.
C: Pre-made tools can be used for malicious purposes, not just ethical hacking.
D: These tools can cause significant damage, particularly in large-scale attacks like DDoS.

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22
Q

How do unskilled attackers initiate a Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack?

A. By creating custom scripts to target multiple systems simultaneously.
B. By exploiting vulnerabilities in a network’s infrastructure.
C. By entering the target’s IP address into a pre-made tool and clicking a button.
D. By using insider knowledge to disrupt the target’s network.

A

Answer:
C. By entering the target’s IP address into a pre-made tool and clicking a button.

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Unskilled attackers use pre-made DDoS tools that simplify the attack process, requiring minimal effort or expertise.
Incorrect Options:
A: Developing custom scripts is beyond the capability of unskilled attackers.
B: Exploiting vulnerabilities requires technical knowledge that unskilled attackers do not have.
D: Insider knowledge pertains to internal threats, not external unskilled attackers.

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23
Q

Who are Hacktivists?

A. Individuals who hack into systems for financial gain.
B. Individuals or groups who use their technical skills to promote a cause or drive social change.
C. Professionals hired to improve cybersecurity by ethical hacking.
D. Nation-state actors conducting cyber espionage.

A

Answer:
B. Individuals or groups who use their technical skills to promote a cause or drive social change.

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Hacktivists are ideologically driven and aim to advance political or social causes rather than seeking personal or financial gain.
Incorrect Options:
A: Hacktivists are not motivated by financial gain; this aligns more with cybercriminals.
C: Ethical hackers aim to improve security, not promote social or political causes.
D: Nation-state actors are typically motivated by geopolitical goals, not ideological activism.

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24
Q

What is Hacktivism?

A. The use of hacking techniques to improve an organization’s cybersecurity.
B. Activities involving hacking to promote or advance a political or social cause.
C. Coordinated cyberattacks by government agencies to disrupt rival nations.
D. Developing tools and software to detect malware.

A

Answer:
B. Activities involving hacking to promote or advance a political or social cause.

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Hacktivism involves using hacking techniques as a form of protest or activism to advance ideological beliefs.
Incorrect Options:
A: Hacktivism is not about improving cybersecurity.
C: This describes nation-state actions, not hacktivism.
D: Tool development is unrelated to hacktivism’s goal of promoting social or political change.

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25
Q

Which of the following is NOT a technique commonly used by hacktivists?

A. Website defacement.
B. Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks.
C. Phishing campaigns for financial theft.
D. Public release of sensitive data (doxing or leaks).

A

Answer:
C. Phishing campaigns for financial theft.

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Hacktivists are ideologically motivated and do not seek financial gain, making phishing for theft irrelevant to their activities.
Incorrect Options:
A: Website defacement is a common tactic used as a form of electronic graffiti.
B: DDoS attacks are often used by hacktivists to disrupt services.
D: Doxing and leaking sensitive data are classic methods hacktivists employ to expose wrongdoing.

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26
Q

What motivates hacktivists?

A. Financial gain through ransomware or data theft.
B. Ideological beliefs and the desire to promote social or political change.
C. Revenge against personal or professional adversaries.
D. Spying on governments for sensitive information.

A

Answer:
B. Ideological beliefs and the desire to promote social or political change.

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Hacktivists are primarily driven by their beliefs, aiming to address social, political, or ethical issues.
Incorrect Options:
A: Financial gain is not their objective.
C: Revenge is more aligned with insider threats, not hacktivism.
D: Espionage is typically associated with nation-state actors, not hacktivists.

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27
Q

Which hacktivist group is well-known for its high-profile attacks?

A. The Equation Group.
B. Anonymous.
C. Lizard Squad.
D. Shadow Brokers.

A

Answer:
B. Anonymous.

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Anonymous is a loosely affiliated collective famous for its attacks on organizations it perceives as unethical or harmful to the public.
Incorrect Options:
A: The Equation Group is associated with nation-state cyber operations, not hacktivism.
C: Lizard Squad is known for DDoS attacks, often for notoriety rather than ideological reasons.
D: Shadow Brokers are associated with leaking exploits, not hacktivist campaigns.

28
Q

How do hacktivists use Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks to achieve their goals?

A. By stealing data from the targeted organization.
B. By overwhelming systems, disrupting services, and preventing access for legitimate users.
C. By defacing the organization’s website with political slogans.
D. By secretly spying on the organization for sensitive information.

A

Answer:
B. By overwhelming systems, disrupting services, and preventing access for legitimate users.

Explanation:

Correct Answer: DDoS attacks are used by hacktivists to make systems unavailable, causing disruption and drawing attention to their cause.
Incorrect Options:
A: DDoS does not involve data theft.
C: Website defacement is a separate tactic, not related to DDoS.
D: Spying is more associated with espionage, not hacktivism.

29
Q

What is website defacement, and how is it used by hacktivists?

A. Overloading servers to disrupt services.
B. Publicly altering a website to display messages promoting their cause.
C. Spreading malware through phishing links on a website.
D. Encrypting website data to demand a ransom.

A

Answer:
B. Publicly altering a website to display messages promoting their cause.

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Website defacement is akin to electronic graffiti, where hacktivists replace the website’s original content with messages supporting their agenda.
Incorrect Options:
A: Overloading servers refers to DDoS attacks, not defacement.
C: Spreading malware is not a typical hacktivist tactic.
D: Encrypting data for ransom aligns more with ransomware attacks, not hacktivism.

30
Q

Which of the following best describes organized cybercrime groups? (Choose Two)

A. Groups with limited technical skills using pre-made scripts for their attacks.
B. Sophisticated and well-structured groups using advanced hacking techniques for illicit gain.
C. Ideologically motivated individuals targeting organizations for political reasons.
D. Groups motivated primarily by financial gain and not political or ideological objectives.

A

Answer:
B. Sophisticated and well-structured groups using advanced hacking techniques for illicit gain.
D. Groups motivated primarily by financial gain and not political or ideological objectives.

Explanation:

Correct Answers:
B: Organized cybercrime groups possess high levels of technical skill and resources to conduct their operations efficiently.
D: Their primary motivation is financial gain, distinguishing them from hacktivists or nation-state actors.
Incorrect Options:
A: Organized crime groups are highly skilled, unlike unskilled attackers or script kiddies.
C: Ideological motivations align with hacktivists, not organized cybercrime groups.

31
Q

Which activities are commonly conducted by organized cybercrime groups to generate revenue? (Choose Three)

A. Data breaches.
B. Website defacement.
C. Identity theft.
D. Online fraud.
E. DDoS attacks for ideological purposes.

A

Answer:
A. Data breaches.
C. Identity theft.
D. Online fraud.

Explanation:

Correct Answers:
A: Organized crime groups target sensitive data to sell or use for financial gain.
C: Identity theft is a common tactic to commit financial fraud.
D: Online fraud is a direct means to generate revenue.
Incorrect Options:
B: Website defacement is typically associated with hacktivists, not organized crime.
E: DDoS attacks for ideological purposes are more common among hacktivists.

32
Q

What types of tools and techniques are often employed by organized cybercrime groups? (Choose Three)

A. Custom malware.
B. Ransomware.
C. Sophisticated phishing campaigns.
D. Simple brute-force attacks.

A

Answer:
A. Custom malware.
B. Ransomware.
C. Sophisticated phishing campaigns.

Explanation:

Correct Answers:
A: Custom malware is a hallmark of sophisticated organized crime operations.
B: Ransomware is often used to extort money by encrypting data and demanding payment.
C: Phishing campaigns are used to deceive victims into divulging sensitive information.
Incorrect Options:
D: Brute-force attacks are more common among unskilled attackers than organized groups.

33
Q

How do organized crime groups differ from hacktivists? (Choose Two)

A. Organized crime groups are driven by financial gain, while hacktivists are ideologically motivated.
B. Organized crime groups primarily use DDoS attacks, while hacktivists use ransomware.
C. Hacktivists seek to advance political causes, while organized crime groups focus on illicit revenue generation.
D. Hacktivists are employed by governments, while organized crime groups work independently.

A

Answer:
A. Organized crime groups are driven by financial gain, while hacktivists are ideologically motivated.
C. Hacktivists seek to advance political causes, while organized crime groups focus on illicit revenue generation.

Explanation:

Correct Answers:
A: Organized crime groups aim for profit, while hacktivists aim to promote social or political causes.
C: Hacktivists’ actions are fueled by ideology, whereas organized crime seeks monetary benefits.
Incorrect Options:
B: Both groups may use DDoS or ransomware, but their motivations and goals differ.
D: Governments may hire organized crime groups for cyber operations, but hacktivists act independently.

34
Q

Which statement about organized cybercrime groups is correct?

A. They lack technical skills and rely on pre-built hacking tools.
B. They are driven by financial gain and may conduct attacks on behalf of other entities.
C. They primarily aim to disrupt services for political reasons.
D. They use basic tools like brute-force password crackers for their attacks.

A

Answer:
B. They are driven by financial gain and may conduct attacks on behalf of other entities.

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Organized cybercrime groups are financially motivated and may collaborate with entities like governments to execute attacks.
Incorrect Options:
A: These groups have a high level of technical skill and create sophisticated tools.
C: Disrupting services for political reasons aligns with hacktivists, not organized crime.
D: Their techniques are far more advanced than simple brute-force attacks.

35
Q

Which of the following motivations and characteristics best describe organized crime groups? (Choose Two)

A. Ideological beliefs.
B. Financial gain.
C. High level of technical capability.
D. Revenge-driven attacks.

A

Answer:
B. Financial gain.
C. High level of technical capability.

Explanation:

Correct Answers:
B: Financial gain is the primary driver of organized crime groups.
C: These groups are known for their advanced tools and techniques.
Incorrect Options:
A: Ideology is associated with hacktivists, not organized crime.
D: Revenge is more typical of insider threats or disgruntled individuals.

36
Q

What makes organized cybercrime groups different from nation-state actors?

A. Organized crime groups aim to generate revenue, while nation-state actors focus on espionage or geopolitical goals.
B. Organized crime groups lack sophistication, while nation-state actors are highly skilled.
C. Organized crime groups primarily operate for political purposes, while nation-state actors target financial institutions.
D. Organized crime groups work independently, while nation-state actors often collaborate with hacktivists.

A

Answer:
A. Organized crime groups aim to generate revenue, while nation-state actors focus on espionage or geopolitical goals.

Explanation:

Correct Answer: The primary distinction is their motivation: financial gain for organized crime and geopolitical or intelligence purposes for nation-state actors.
Incorrect Options:
B: Both groups are highly skilled.
C: Nation-state actors do not primarily target financial institutions for political purposes.
D: Collaboration between these actors is uncommon and not a defining trait.

37
Q

What best describes nation-state actors?

A. Groups or individuals motivated by financial gain.
B. Government-sponsored entities conducting cyber operations against other nations, organizations, or individuals.
C. Unskilled hackers using pre-made scripts.
D. Organizations conducting cyberattacks for ideological reasons.

A

Answer:
B. Government-sponsored entities conducting cyber operations against other nations, organizations, or individuals.

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Nation-state actors are state-sponsored entities capable of executing advanced cyber operations.
Incorrect Options:
A: Nation-state actors are motivated by long-term strategic goals, not financial gain.
C: They are highly skilled, not unskilled hackers.
D: Ideology is more closely associated with hacktivists.

38
Q

(Choose Two)
Which of the following techniques are commonly used by nation-state actors?

A. Creating custom malware.
B. Launching brute-force attacks.
C. Using zero-day exploits.
D. Conducting phishing scams for financial gain.

A

Answer:
A. Creating custom malware.
C. Using zero-day exploits.

Explanation:

Correct Answers (Choose Two):
A: Nation-state actors develop custom malware tailored to their specific targets.
C: Zero-day exploits are a hallmark of their sophisticated techniques.
Incorrect Options:
B: Brute-force attacks are generally associated with less skilled attackers.
D: Phishing scams for financial gain are typical of cybercriminals, not nation-state actors.

39
Q

What is a false flag attack, and why might a nation-state actor use it?

A. A technique used to launch DDoS attacks without detection.
B. An attack designed to appear as though it originated from another source or group.
C. A strategy to protect the true identities of organized cybercriminals.
D. An approach to deface websites for ideological purposes.

A

Answer:
B. An attack designed to appear as though it originated from another source or group.

Explanation:

Correct Answer: A false flag attack misleads investigators by attributing the attack to a different entity.
Incorrect Options:
A: False flag attacks are not limited to DDoS techniques.
C: These attacks are not used solely by cybercriminals but also by nation-state actors.
D: False flag attacks are not about website defacement.

40
Q

(Choose Three)
Which of the following are characteristics or techniques of nation-state actors?

A. Advanced technical skills.
B. Launching quick, non-targeted cyberattacks for immediate financial gain.
C. Developing custom malware.
D. Using zero-day exploits.
E. Seeking financial rewards for their efforts.

A

Answer:
A. Advanced technical skills.
C. Developing custom malware.
D. Using zero-day exploits.

Explanation:

Correct Answers (Choose Three):
A: Nation-state actors possess advanced technical expertise to execute sophisticated operations.
C: Custom malware development is a common technique.
D: Exploiting zero-day vulnerabilities is a defining trait of their skill set.
Incorrect Options:
B: Their attacks are strategic and targeted rather than opportunistic.
E: Financial gain is not their motivation; they aim for long-term strategic goals.

41
Q

What does the term Advanced Persistent Threat (APT) mean?

A. A short-term cyberattack to quickly compromise systems and steal data.
B. A prolonged and targeted cyberattack where an intruder remains undetected to steal data or monitor activities.
C. A quick attack launched by nation-state actors for political purposes.
D. An immediate and destructive cyberattack targeting infrastructure.

A

Answer:
B. A prolonged and targeted cyberattack where an intruder remains undetected to steal data or monitor activities.

Explanation:

Correct Answer: APTs involve stealth and persistence, focusing on long-term objectives like espionage.
Incorrect Options:
A: APTs are long-term, not short-term, attacks.
C: While nation-state actors may execute APTs, the goal is not quick disruption but prolonged access.
D: Immediate destruction is not typical of APTs.

42
Q

What typically motivates nation-state actors?

A. Financial gain through extortion and fraud.
B. Advancing their nation’s long-term strategic goals.
C. Ideological beliefs and political activism.
D. Revenge against rival organizations or governments.

A

Answer:
B. Advancing their nation’s long-term strategic goals.

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Nation-state actors aim to achieve geopolitical or intelligence-related objectives, not financial or ideological gains.
Incorrect Options:
A: Financial gain is associated with organized cybercrime groups.
C: Ideological beliefs are common among hacktivists.
D: Revenge is not their primary driver; their actions are calculated and strategic.

43
Q

(Choose Two)
Which of the following are characteristics of Advanced Persistent Threats (APTs)?

A. Long-term presence in a network to gather data.
B. Immediate disruption of critical infrastructure.
C. Often sponsored by nation-state actors or proxies.
D. Conducting phishing scams for monetary gain.

A

Answer:
A. Long-term presence in a network to gather data.
C. Often sponsored by nation-state actors or proxies.

Explanation:

Correct Answers (Choose Two):
A: APTs focus on remaining undetected to monitor and steal data over extended periods.
C: Many APTs are backed by nation-states, making them highly resourced and sophisticated.
Incorrect Options:
B: APTs aim for stealth, not immediate disruption.
D: Monetary gain is not a motivation for APTs.

44
Q

What best defines an insider threat?

A. Cybersecurity threats originating from external actors attempting to breach the organization.
B. Cybersecurity threats that originate from individuals within the organization who have access to sensitive information and systems.
C. Cyberattacks launched by unskilled hackers using pre-made tools.
D. Advanced persistent threats sponsored by nation-states.

A

Answer:
B. Cybersecurity threats that originate from individuals within the organization who have access to sensitive information and systems.

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Insider threats involve individuals inside the organization misusing their access intentionally or unintentionally.
Incorrect Options:
A: Insider threats are internal, not external.
C: Unskilled hackers are unrelated to insider threats.
D: APTs are typically external and sponsored by nation-states.

45
Q

(Choose Two)
Which of the following actions can insider threats include?

A. Data theft.
B. Website defacement.
C. Sabotage.
D. Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks.

A

Answer:
A. Data theft.
C. Sabotage.

Explanation:

Correct Answers (Choose Two):
A: Insider threats often involve stealing sensitive organizational data.
C: Sabotage, such as intentionally damaging systems, is another form of insider threat.
Incorrect Options:
B: Website defacement is generally an external attack technique.
D: DDoS attacks are usually carried out by external attackers, not insiders.

46
Q

What is a common motivation behind insider threats?

A. Advancing political or ideological beliefs.
B. Financial gain from selling sensitive data.
C. Obtaining zero-day exploits for targeted attacks.
D. Long-term strategic goals aligned with nation-state actors.

A

Answer:
B. Financial gain from selling sensitive data.

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Many insider threats are driven by the desire to profit from sensitive organizational data.
Incorrect Options:
A: Advancing ideological beliefs is more typical of hacktivists.
C: Zero-day exploits are not typically associated with insider threats.
D: Long-term strategic goals are characteristic of nation-state actors.

47
Q

Which of the following motivations might drive an insider threat?

A. Revenge for a perceived wrong.
B. Lack of technical skills to use external hacking tools.
C. A careless or unaware attitude toward cybersecurity.
D. Both A and C.

A

Answer:
D. Both A and C.

Explanation:

Correct Answer:
A: Revenge is a common motivation, often stemming from perceived grievances.
C: Carelessness or lack of awareness can also lead to unintentional insider threats.
Incorrect Options:
B: This describes unskilled attackers, not insider threats.

48
Q

What is one of the best practices to mitigate insider threats?

A. Implement zero-trust architecture and robust access controls.
B. Focus on preventing external cyberattacks only.
C. Ignore careless behavior as it is not considered a serious threat.
D. Limit regular audits to external-facing systems.

A

Answer:
A. Implement zero-trust architecture and robust access controls.

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Zero-trust architecture ensures every access request is verified, while robust access controls limit insider privileges.
Incorrect Options:
B: Internal threats require equal attention as external ones.
C: Careless behavior can unintentionally cause harm.
D: Audits should also cover internal systems.

49
Q

(Choose Three)
Which measures can help reduce the risk of insider threats?

A. Conduct regular audits.
B. Provide effective employee security awareness programs.
C. Employ phishing campaigns for training purposes.
D. Implement zero-trust architecture.

A

Answer:
A. Conduct regular audits.
B. Provide effective employee security awareness programs.
D. Implement zero-trust architecture.

Explanation:

Correct Answers (Choose Three):
A: Regular audits help detect misuse of access or unusual activity.
B: Security awareness programs reduce carelessness and improve employee vigilance.
D: Zero-trust ensures every access request is authenticated and authorized.
Incorrect Options:
C: Phishing campaigns are unrelated to insider threat prevention.

50
Q

What is Shadow IT?

A. IT projects explicitly approved and managed by the IT department.
B. The use of unauthorized IT systems, devices, or software within an organization.
C. Technology implemented by external threat actors to bypass organizational security.
D. A type of phishing attack targeting organizational systems.

A

Answer:
B. The use of unauthorized IT systems, devices, or software within an organization.

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Shadow IT refers to the use of IT resources without the knowledge or approval of the IT department.
Incorrect Options:
A: Shadow IT is characterized by the absence of IT department approval.
C: Shadow IT is internal, not implemented by external attackers.
D: Phishing attacks are unrelated to Shadow IT.

51
Q

Why does Shadow IT exist in organizations?

A. Employees want to avoid detection by external threat actors.
B. The IT department encourages employees to experiment with unauthorized tools.
C. The organization’s security posture is too restrictive or complex, making it difficult for business operations to function effectively.
D. Employees are unaware of the organization’s cybersecurity policies.

A

Answer:
C. The organization’s security posture is too restrictive or complex, making it difficult for business operations to function effectively.

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Shadow IT often emerges when employees seek alternative tools to overcome operational inefficiencies caused by overly restrictive security measures.
Incorrect Options:
A: Shadow IT is not implemented to avoid detection by external threats.
B: The IT department does not encourage the use of unauthorized tools.
D: While awareness can play a role, Shadow IT primarily stems from operational challenges.

52
Q

Which of the following describes Bring Your Own Devices (BYOD)?

A. The practice of using organization-issued devices exclusively for personal purposes.
B. The use of personal devices for work purposes within an organization.
C. IT projects managed by external vendors for employee convenience.
D. The deployment of enterprise tools that bypass IT department approvals.

A

Answer:
B. The use of personal devices for work purposes within an organization.

Explanation:

Correct Answer: BYOD refers to employees using their personal devices, such as laptops or smartphones, for work-related tasks.
Incorrect Options:
A: BYOD involves personal devices for work, not personal use of work devices.
C: BYOD is unrelated to external vendor-managed projects.
D: BYOD does not involve bypassing IT department approvals but raises potential security concerns.

53
Q

(Choose Two)
What are common risks associated with Shadow IT?

A. Increased organizational efficiency due to bypassing IT restrictions.
B. Introduction of security vulnerabilities and data breaches.
C. Loss of control over sensitive data.
D. Enhanced IT department control over employee devices.

A

Answer:
B. Introduction of security vulnerabilities and data breaches.
C. Loss of control over sensitive data.

Explanation:

Correct Answers (Choose Two):
B: Unauthorized tools can lack proper security measures, leading to vulnerabilities.
C: Shadow IT often involves the use of tools outside the organization’s visibility, risking data leakage.
Incorrect Options:
A: While efficiency may improve temporarily, it often comes at the cost of security.
D: Shadow IT decreases, not enhances, IT department control.

54
Q

(Choose Three)
Which measures can organizations implement to address Shadow IT risks?

A. Provide employees with approved alternatives that meet their needs.
B. Implement security awareness training to educate employees about Shadow IT risks.
C. Restrict all access to external tools and services without exceptions.
D. Conduct regular audits to detect unauthorized tools and applications.

A

Answer:
A. Provide employees with approved alternatives that meet their needs.
B. Implement security awareness training to educate employees about Shadow IT risks.
D. Conduct regular audits to detect unauthorized tools and applications.

Explanation:

Correct Answers (Choose Three):
A: Providing approved tools reduces the temptation to use Shadow IT.
B: Awareness training ensures employees understand the risks associated with unauthorized tools.
D: Regular audits help identify and address unauthorized IT use.
Incorrect Options:
C: Blanket restrictions can hinder operations and drive employees further toward Shadow IT.

55
Q

What is a Threat Vector?

A. The attack surface that an attacker attempts to exploit.
B. The means or pathway used by an attacker to deliver malicious payloads or carry out unwanted actions.
C. The total amount of system vulnerabilities present within an organization’s network.
D. The process of removing unnecessary software to minimize attack opportunities.

A

Answer:
B. The means or pathway used by an attacker to deliver malicious payloads or carry out unwanted actions.

Explanation:

Correct Answer: A threat vector refers to the “how” an attack is carried out, typically through different channels or methods, such as email or phishing.
Incorrect Options:
A: The attack surface refers to the “where” an attack can occur, not the means.
C: The amount of system vulnerabilities is a factor, but not the definition of a threat vector.
D: Removing software can reduce the attack surface but is not related to the definition of a threat vector.

56
Q

Which of the following are examples of Message-based Threat Vectors? (Choose Two)

A. Phishing campaigns delivered via email to deceive users into revealing their credentials.
B. A USB drive containing malware left in a public location for a victim to find.
C. Text messages used to impersonate a trusted entity to extract sensitive information.
D. Malicious code embedded in an image file attached to an email.

A

Answer:
A. Phishing campaigns delivered via email to deceive users into revealing their credentials.
C. Text messages used to impersonate a trusted entity to extract sensitive information.

Explanation:

Correct Answers (Choose Two):
A: Phishing campaigns use emails (a message-based vector) to deceive users.
C: SMS-based phishing (smishing) is also a message-based vector.
Incorrect Options:
B: Baiting with USB drives is a different type of threat vector, not message-based.
D: Embedded malicious code in images is an image-based threat vector, not a message-based one.

57
Q

Which of the following are strategies to minimize the Attack Surface? (Choose Three)

A. Restricting access to sensitive systems and data.
B. Adding more applications to the network to enhance functionality.
C. Removing unnecessary software from systems.
D. Disabling unused protocols to reduce potential vulnerabilities.

A

Answer:
A. Restricting access to sensitive systems and data.
C. Removing unnecessary software from systems.
D. Disabling unused protocols to reduce potential vulnerabilities.

Explanation:

Correct Answers:
A: Restricting access limits entry points for attackers.
C: Removing unnecessary software eliminates potential attack vectors.
D: Disabling unused protocols reduces the number of access points an attacker could exploit.
Incorrect Option:
B: Adding more applications increases the attack surface by providing more entry points.

58
Q

What is Baiting in the context of Removable Devices?

A. Using a USB drive infected with malware and leaving it in a public place for a target to find.
B. Sending phishing emails that contain a malicious attachment disguised as a legitimate file.
C. Inserting a malicious USB drive into an organization’s network to exploit system vulnerabilities.
D. Connecting to unsecured Bluetooth networks to exploit weak security protocols.

A

Answer:
A. Using a USB drive infected with malware and leaving it in a public place for a target to find.

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Baiting involves the act of leaving malware-infected USB drives in public places, hoping the target will plug them into their system.
Incorrect Options:
B: Phishing via email is a different type of attack (message-based).
C: This option refers to an active malicious action, not baiting.
D: Bluetooth-related attacks are different from baiting and concern wireless security.

59
Q

Which of the following are examples of Unsecure Networks that can be exploited by attackers? (Choose Three)

A. An unprotected Wi-Fi network with no password or encryption.
B. A wired Ethernet network with strong encryption and firewalls.
C. Bluetooth networks without security protocols in place.
D. An unsecured wireless network that transmits data in plain text.
E. A VPN network with a secure, encrypted connection.

A

Answer:
A. An unprotected Wi-Fi network with no password or encryption.
C. Bluetooth networks without security protocols in place.
D. An unsecured wireless network that transmits data in plain text.

Explanation:

Correct Answers (Choose Three):
A: An unprotected Wi-Fi network is vulnerable to unauthorized access and eavesdropping.
C: Unsecured Bluetooth networks can be exploited using specific Bluetooth vulnerabilities.
D: Unsecured wireless networks that transmit data in plain text are susceptible to data interception.
Incorrect Options:
B: Wired Ethernet networks are typically more secure than wireless, especially with strong encryption.
E: VPN networks are secure by design, providing encrypted connections to protect data.

60
Q

What is BlueBorne?

A. A type of phishing attack targeting Bluetooth-enabled devices.
B. A vulnerability in Bluetooth technology that allows attackers to take over devices and spread malware.
C. A denial of service attack aimed at interrupting Bluetooth services.
D. A physical access attack where attackers directly connect to Bluetooth devices.

A

Answer:
B. A vulnerability in Bluetooth technology that allows attackers to take over devices and spread malware.

Explanation:

Correct Answer: BlueBorne refers to a set of vulnerabilities in Bluetooth technology that allows attackers to take control of devices and propagate malware without user interaction.
Incorrect Options:
A: BlueBorne is not a phishing attack.
C: While it involves vulnerabilities in Bluetooth, BlueBorne does not focus on denial of service.
D: BlueBorne exploits vulnerabilities rather than relying on physical access.

61
Q

What are Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures (TTPs)?

A. The tools used to install honeypots and honeynets in a network.
B. Patterns of activities or behaviors associated with a specific threat actor or group of threat actors.
C. Strategies to implement dynamic page generation for network security.
D. Decoy files placed in systems to lure attackers.

A

Answer:
B. Patterns of activities or behaviors associated with a specific threat actor or group of threat actors.

Explanation:

Correct Answer: TTPs refer to the specific methods and behaviors threat actors use, which can be studied to counter their attacks effectively.
Incorrect Options:
A: TTPs are not tools; they describe behavioral patterns.
C: Dynamic page generation is a disruption strategy, not a TTP.
D: Decoy files are honeyfiles, not TTPs.

62
Q

Which of the following is a Honeynet?

A. A single decoy system set up to attract potential attackers.
B. A network of honeypots designed to mimic an entire network, including servers and routers.
C. A decoy file placed within a system to lure attackers.
D. A fake piece of data or resource monitored for access or use.

A

Answer:
B. A network of honeypots designed to mimic an entire network, including servers and routers.

Explanation:

Correct Answer: A honeynet is a more complex decoy system that simulates an entire network to mislead attackers.
Incorrect Options:
A: A single system is a honeypot, not a honeynet.
C: Decoy files are honeyfiles, not honeynets.
D: Fake data/resources are honeytokens, not honeynets.

63
Q

What is the purpose of Port Triggering as a security mechanism?

A. To detect and respond to malicious network scans by sending fake telemetry data.
B. To keep specific ports or services closed until a specific outbound traffic pattern is detected.
C. To create fake DNS entries that confuse attackers.
D. To dynamically generate fake pages on a website to mislead bots.

A

Answer:
B. To keep specific ports or services closed until a specific outbound traffic pattern is detected.

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Port triggering is a security mechanism that dynamically opens ports based on specific outbound traffic patterns, reducing the risk of unauthorized access.
Incorrect Options:
A: Sending fake telemetry data is a different disruption strategy.
C: Fake DNS entries are part of deception technologies, not port triggering.
D: Dynamic page generation misleads bots but is unrelated to port triggering.

64
Q

Which of the following is an example of a Honeytoken?

A. A fake folder placed within a system’s storage to deceive attackers.
B. A decoy network set up with routers, servers, and switches.
C. A piece of data with no legitimate value, monitored for access or use.
D. A fake DNS entry added to confuse attackers.

A

Answer:
C. A piece of data with no legitimate value, monitored for access or use.

Explanation:

Correct Answer: A honeytoken is a data resource with no real use, used to detect unauthorized access attempts.
Incorrect Options:
A: Fake folders are decoy directories, not honeytokens.
B: A decoy network is a honeynet.
D: Fake DNS entries are a separate deception strategy.

65
Q

What is the purpose of Dynamic Page Generation as a disruption strategy?

A. To mislead attackers by creating fake DNS entries in the system’s server.
B. To counter bots and scraping tools by generating fake pages on a website.
C. To lure attackers into accessing decoy files and directories.
D. To create a network of honeypots that mimics an entire system.

A

Answer:
B. To counter bots and scraping tools by generating fake pages on a website.

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Dynamic page generation is an effective technique against automated tools by serving fake or misleading content.
Incorrect Options:
A: Fake DNS entries are unrelated to dynamic page generation.
C: Decoy files and directories are separate deception techniques.
D: A network of honeypots is a honeynet, not dynamic page generation.

66
Q

How can Bogus DNS Entries help secure enterprise networks?

A. By hiding active services behind closed ports until triggered by outbound traffic.
B. By introducing fake DNS entries to confuse attackers and misdirect their activities.
C. By creating fake files within a system to lure attackers into accessing them.
D. By embedding malicious code in fake telemetry data to counter attackers.

A

Answer:
B. By introducing fake DNS entries to confuse attackers and misdirect their activities.

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Bogus DNS entries add misleading records to DNS servers, misdirecting attackers from legitimate resources.
Incorrect Options:
A: Hiding services is related to port triggering, not DNS entries.
C: Fake files are honeyfiles, unrelated to DNS.
D: Embedding malicious code is not part of fake DNS entry strategies.